Paper 1 Flashcards
(489 cards)
1
Q
What is the definition of pollution?
A
Energy or matter released into the environment with the potential to cause adverse changes to an ecosystem.
2
Q
What are primary pollutants?
A
Pollutants released directly by human activities, e.g. CO2 from burning fossil fuels.
3
Q
What are secondary pollutants?
A
Pollutants produced by the interaction of other materials released by human activities, e.g. tropospheric ozone.
4
Q
What does the ‘polluter pays principle’ state?
A
Whoever causes the pollution is responsible for the problems caused and has an obligation to prevent it.
5
Q
What is teratogenicity?
A
Non-inherited birth defects caused by the interruption of DNA function in an unborn embryo.
6
Q
What is bioaccumulation?
A
The absorption and storage of pollutants in the tissues of organisms, increasing the amount over time.
7
Q
What is biomagnification?
A
Substances become more concentrated as they pass along a food chain, affecting organisms in higher trophic levels.
8
Q
Fill in the blank: The process of breakdown is called _______.
A
degradation
9
Q
What are the three types of degradation?
A
- Biodegradation
- Photodegradation
- Thermal degradation
10
Q
What is synergism in pollution?
A
Interaction of two or more pollutants creating a greater impact than the sum of their individual impacts.
11
Q
What factors affect the dispersal of pollutants?
A
- Wind and water currents
- Temperature inversions
- Presence of adsorbent materials
12
Q
What is the precautionary principle?
A
Assumes a waste will cause pollution until research confirms it is unlikely to when release is permitted.
13
Q
True or False: All pollutants have sources, pathways, and sinks.
A
True
14
Q
What do the terms ‘source’, ‘pathway’, and ‘sink’ refer to in pollution?
A
- Source: where pollution comes from
- Pathway: route taken by pollutant
- Sink: where it ends up
15
Q
What is the break-even point in pollution control?
A
When the costs of pollution are the same as clean-up costs.
16
Q
What is the significance of temperature in degradation?
A
Higher temperatures increase rates of reaction.
17
Q
Fill in the blank: Pollutants that attach to the surface of materials are said to be _______.
A
adsorbed
18
Q
What is the role of critical pathway analysis?
A
Used to predict the movement of pollutants and to plan monitoring programs.
19
Q
What is the main effect of temperature inversions on pollution?
A
Pollutant gases become concentrated as they cannot rise and disperse.
20
Q
What are diffuse sources of pollution?
A
Pollutants released from a large number of small sources, making effects difficult to judge.
21
Q
What is the mobility of a pollutant?
A
Measure of the degree to which the pollutant is carried by wind, water, or organisms.
22
Q
What is the difference between chronic and acute effects of pollutants?
A
- Chronic effect: causes effects over long periods
- Acute effect: causes rapid death
23
Q
What does the term ‘persistence’ refer to in relation to pollutants?
A
How long it takes for a pollutant to chemically break down.
24
Q
What is the significance of solubility in pollutants?
A
Water soluble pollutants are often more mobile in the hydrosphere.
25
True or False: CFCs are highly reactive pollutants.
False
26
What is the effect of density on pollutant dispersal?
More dense pollutants require more kinetic energy to stay suspended and are deposited closer to the source.
27
Fill in the blank: The measure of differing toxicities of a substance on different organisms is called _______.
specificity
28
What are the key objectives of general pollution control?
* Distinguish between critical pathway analysis and critical group monitoring
* Understand main emission control strategies
* Describe principles behind pollution control
29
What human activities are known to cause pollution?
* Fuel combustion
* Fuel extraction
* Manufacturing
* Domestic and industrial waste
* Pesticides and fertilizers
30
What is the effect of pollutants like acids on cellular structures?
Change the shape of cell membranes and function of proteins, affecting proper functioning.
31
What are organochlorine insecticides characterized by?
Chemically stable and break down slowly, resulting in high persistence.
## Footnote
Example: DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is a well-known organochlorine insecticide.
32
How do pyrethroid insecticides compare in terms of persistence?
They have low persistence.
## Footnote
Pyrethroids are synthetic chemicals modeled after pyrethrins, which are derived from chrysanthemum flowers.
33
What is the behavior of heavy metals in terms of breakdown?
They do not break down as they are elements.
## Footnote
Examples include lead, mercury, and cadmium.
34
How does density affect pollutant dispersal?
More dense pollutants require more kinetic energy to remain suspended, leading to deposition close to the source.
## Footnote
Example: Hydrogen cyanide from the Bhopal disaster settled close to the ground due to its density.
35
What different energy forms can pollutants have?
Noise, heat, ionizing radiation, light.
## Footnote
Each form affects how pollutants behave in the environment.
36
What effect does the state of matter have on pollutant dispersal?
Solids tend to be deposited close to the source, while gases are easily dispersed in the atmosphere.
37
What is Critical Group Monitoring?
A method of assessing the risk of public exposure to pollutants by focusing on high-risk groups.
## Footnote
If the risk for these groups is low, it’s assumed that the risk for the general public is lower.
38
What do lapse rate diagrams show?
The relationship between temperature and altitude.
39
What is one strategy for controlling emissions based on location?
Discharging emissions where water currents will dilute and disperse them.
## Footnote
Example: Marine discharges.
40
How does the timing of emissions affect their dispersal?
Emissions timed with tidal cycles can influence dispersal; upstream during incoming tide and downstream during outgoing tide.
41
What is the impact of temperature inversions on atmospheric emissions?
They prevent dispersion of atmospheric emissions, leading to increased pollution concentration.
## Footnote
Common in urban areas, temperature inversions trap pollutants close to the ground.
42
What are sounds?
Vibrations that pass through matter (solids, liquids, gases)
## Footnote
Sound vibrations cannot pass through a vacuum.
43
Define noise.
Sounds that are unwanted, disturbing, or can cause damage.
44
What is the impact of noise on wildlife?
Limited impact on wildlife but serious impacts on human health and quality of life.
45
What does an increase of 10dB represent?
A 10x increase in volume.
46
What is 0dB?
The quietest sound that can be heard at 1000 Hz, the threshold for human hearing.
47
What is the typical frequency range of human hearing?
20 – 20000Hz.
48
What health issues can excessive noise exposure cause in humans?
* Deafness
* Tinnitus
* Stress
* Communication problems
* Headaches, ulcers, irritability
49
What are some effects of noise on livestock?
Disturbance can cause injury or miscarriage.
50
How can noise pollution affect wildlife, particularly birds?
* Disturb breeding
* Scare off nests
* Reduced feeding success
51
What is acoustic fatigue?
Cracking of a material and structural failure due to repetitive vibrations at the resonant frequency.
52
What are shock impacts?
Damage caused by forces of impact after sudden loud noises, such as sonic booms.
53
What are some methods to minimize military aircraft noise pollution?
* Informing farmers of schedules
* Avoiding urban areas
* Varying flight paths
54
How do civil aircraft reduce noise when cruising?
Cruise at high altitudes so little/no noise reaches the ground.
55
What is the purpose of acoustic insulation in housing?
To reduce noise from aircraft.
56
What design features help reduce noise from aircraft engines?
* High-bypass ratio engines
* Chevron nozzles
* Engine hush kits
* Engine acoustic liners
57
What is the benefit of blended wing aircraft design?
Engines located on top reduce noise that reaches the ground.
58
What is a quota count system in controlling aircraft noise?
Aircraft types are allocated points based on noise levels, and airlines cannot exceed their quota.
59
What are some ways to control road traffic noise?
* Quieter engines
* Sound-absorbing materials on roads
* Improved vehicle aerodynamics
60
What is used to reduce railway noise from wheel vibration?
Track polishing and sound absorbing ballast rails.
61
What methods are employed to control industrial noise?
* Sound absorbing surfaces
* Acoustic mats
* Machinery rotation
* Worker ear protection
62
What is a decibel?
A unit of sound used to measure noise pollution.
63
What does the L10 measurement indicate?
Noise measured during the noisiest 10 percent of each hour.
64
What is Leq 57 dB?
Average sound level over a period, with levels above this considered annoying.
65
What is Effective Perceived Noise Level (EPNL)?
Estimate of the relative loudness of a particular type of aircraft during take-off, overflight, and landing.
66
What is solid waste?
Anything that isn’t needed and is solid.
67
List the main sources of solid wastes.
* Mining
* Domestic
* Agricultural
* Industrial
68
What properties of solid wastes influence disposal choices?
* Degradability
* Radioactivity
* Flammability
* Toxicity
69
What are the main categories of municipal waste?
* Packaging & containers
* Printed paper
* Organic materials
* Clothing & textiles
* Broken or discarded domestic appliances
70
True or False: Mining waste is typically non-hazardous.
True
71
What is a major environmental risk associated with mining waste?
Toxic leachate may cause pollution.
72
What are the problems associated with dealing with domestic waste?
* Large quantities produced
* Labour-intensive collection
* Seasonal composition variation
* Mixing of different waste types
73
What is the main pollution risk from agricultural waste?
Nutrient runoff causing deoxygenation or eutrophication.
74
Fill in the blank: Most products bought have built in _______.
obsolescence
75
What are two advantages of recycling?
* Conserves raw materials
* Reduces methane emissions from landfills
76
What is the estimated CO2 savings from current UK recycling?
More than 18 million tonnes a year.
77
What are the advantages of landfill?
* Cheap
* Generates electricity from methane
* Little treatment required
78
What are the disadvantages of landfill?
* Loss of potential resources
* Large area requirements
* Methane and CO2 emissions
* Wildlife habitat loss
79
What features should an ideal landfill site have?
* Separation of waste types
* Plastic lining to prevent leachate
* Regular leachate collection
* Perimeter fence
* Methane collection
80
What are the advantages of incineration?
* Reduces final waste volume
* Generates heat energy
* No sorting needed
81
What are the disadvantages of incineration?
* Increases atmospheric pollution
* Resource value of recyclables lost
* High costs for treatment
82
What type of waste requires specialist storage or treatment?
Hazardous waste
83
What is encapsulation in waste management?
A method to permanently store hazardous waste to prevent leakage.
84
What is vitrification?
Mixing hazardous waste with molten glass to encapsulate it.
85
What are leachates?
Liquids that drain or 'leach' from a landfill.
86
Identify three risks at landfill sites.
* Toxic leachate
* Methane emissions
* Contamination of groundwater
87
What is the main component of biodegradable waste?
Organic materials
88
What is the European Landfill Directive?
A regulation aimed at reducing the amount of waste sent to landfills and promoting recycling.
89
What is Acid Mine Drainage (AMD)?
Drainage waters from coal and metal mines that become acidic due to the oxidation of sulfide ores.
90
What causes the water in AMD to become very acidic?
Oxidation of sulfide ores, leading to the formation of sulfurous and sulfuric acids.
91
What are the environmental effects of Acid Mine Drainage?
Effects similar to acid rain, direct harm to living organisms, and mobilization of toxic heavy metals.
92
What are the two types of treatment for Acid Mine Drainage?
* Active treatment
* Passive treatment
93
What are the three stages of active treatment for AMD?
* Settlement
* Precipitation
* Flocculation and coagulation
94
What is the purpose of using lime in the precipitation stage of AMD treatment?
To neutralize acidity and precipitate dissolved metals.
95
What is the role of wetlands in passive treatment of AMD?
They trap and precipitate metals, using limestone to neutralize acidity.
96
What defines heavy metals?
Metallic chemical elements that are toxic or poisonous at low concentrations.
97
What are the properties of heavy metals?
* Enzyme inhibition
* Bioaccumulation
* Biomagnification
* Synergism
* Solubility and pH
98
What does biomagnification refer to?
The increasing concentration of heavy metals along the food chain.
99
What is synergistic action in relation to heavy metals?
The combined harmful effects of different heavy metals being greater than their individual effects.
100
At what pH are heavy metals more soluble?
At lower pH (acidic conditions).
101
What are common sources of lead pollution?
* Paint pigments
* Pipework
* Batteries
* Lead in petrol
* Fishing weights
* Lead shot
102
What are the general effects of lead exposure?
* Anaemia
* Headaches
* Impaired development of the nervous system
* Coma and seizures at high exposure
103
What measures can be taken to control lead pollution from water pipes?
* Replace lead pipes with copper or plastic
* Use phosphoric acid to create an insoluble layer in pipes
104
What are major sources of mercury pollution?
* Disposal of mercury-containing items
* Chemical plants
* Combustion of coal
105
What are the general effects of mercury on living organisms?
* Insanity
* Birth defects
* Nerve disorders
* Death
106
What toxic effects does organic mercury have?
Highly toxic, particularly as methyl mercury produced by bacteria.
107
What are the effects of cadmium exposure?
* Brain damage
* Lung cancer
* Kidney failure
* Skeletal collapse
108
What is tri-butyl tin (TBT) and its effect on marine organisms?
A substance in marine paints that disrupts growth and reproduction.
109
What is the effect of iron in water?
Can cause deoxygenation, harming aerobic organisms.
110
Fill in the blank: Heavy metals are more soluble at lower _______.
pHs
111
True or False: Passive treatment of AMD is less controllable than active treatment.
True
112
What is the lithosphere composed of?
The lithosphere is made up of the crust and the upper layer of the outer mantle.
113
What is the primary composition of the Earth's crust?
The crust is mainly made up of rocks.
114
What is the thickness range of the Earth's crust?
The thickness of the crust varies between 5 and 100 km.
115
List three types of physical resources provided by the lithosphere.
* Mined metal ores
* Non-metal minerals
* Fossil fuels
116
What role does soil play in the lithosphere?
Soil serves as a growth medium for plants, a habitat, and a location for part of all the biogeochemical cycles.
117
Define a rock.
A rock is a mixture or aggregate of minerals.
118
What is an ore?
An ore is a rock that has enough of a mineral deposit to make it viable to be exploited commercially.
119
What are the consequences of unsustainable exploitation of lithosphere resources?
* Exhaustion of reserves
* Increased production of harmful waste
* Land degradation
* Lower quality of life for current and future generations
120
Are the mineral resources extracted from the lithosphere renewable or non-renewable?
The mineral resources extracted from the lithosphere are non-renewable.
121
What geological processes produce localized concentrations of recoverable mineral deposits?
* Hydrothermal deposition
* Metamorphic processes
* Proterozoic marine sediments
* Physical sediments
* Biological sediments
122
What are the three categories of rocks?
* Igneous rocks
* Sedimentary rocks
* Metamorphic rocks
123
What are igneous processes?
Igneous processes refer to the creation of rocks and minerals by the cooling and hardening of magma or molten lava.
124
What is a batholith?
A batholith is a large underground mass of solidified molten magma.
125
Differentiate between intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks.
Intrusive igneous rocks are formed by magma cooling beneath the surface, while extrusive igneous rocks are formed by magma cooling above the surface.
126
What is fractional crystallization?
Fractional crystallization is a process that sorts minerals for mining, allowing for viable extraction.
127
How do hydrothermal deposits form?
Hydrothermal deposits form when hot water dissolves minerals and carries them along fissures, depositing them as solids when the solutions cool.
128
What are metamorphic processes?
Metamorphic processes alter existing rocks with high temperatures and pressure without melting them.
129
What are examples of metamorphic rocks?
* Marble (from limestone)
* Slate (from mudstone)
* Gneiss (from granite)
130
What is sedimentary deposition?
Sedimentary deposition occurs when weathered rock particles are carried away and re-deposited, forming new sedimentary rocks.
131
What are Proterozoic marine sediments?
Proterozoic marine sediments include iron ore deposits formed when dissolved iron compounds were oxidized by photosynthesis.
132
What are alluvial deposits?
Alluvial deposits are rocks or minerals carried by water and deposited in different places based on density.
133
What are evaporites?
Evaporites are crystallized minerals formed when water evaporates from mineral-rich solutions.
134
What are biological sediments?
Biological sediments are formed when organisms use materials dissolved in air or water to build their tissue.
135
Define 'stock' in the context of mineral resources.
Stock includes all material that exists in the lithosphere, including that which can be exploited now or in the future.
136
What is the definition of a resource?
A resource is all materials that can be exploited technically and economically now or in the future.
137
What is a reserve?
A reserve is the proportion of a resource that can be economically exploited with existing technology.
138
List the categories of mineral reserves.
* Inferred reserves
* Probable reserves
* Proven reserves
139
What is Lasky’s Principle?
Lasky’s Principle states that as the linear purity of a deposit decreases, there is a logarithmic increase in the amount of the material that is included.
140
What are some methods of mineral exploration?
* Remote sensing
* Satellite surveys
* Gravimetry
* Magnetometry
* Seismic surveys
* Resistivity measurements
141
What is the cut-off ore grade for mining?
The cut-off ore grade is currently 25 g kg-1.
142
What are the key minerals that are more magnetic?
Iron ore magnetite, tungsten, cobalt
## Footnote
These minerals are identified due to their magnetic properties.
143
What do seismic surveys involve?
Sound waves produced by controlled explosions or a seismic vibrator
## Footnote
The echoes provide information about rock strata.
144
What is resistivity?
Measurement of the difficulty with which electricity passes through a material
## Footnote
Igneous rocks generally have higher resistivities than sedimentary rocks.
145
What is trial drilling?
The most expensive technique per sampling site that produces underground rock samples
## Footnote
It is essential for confirming mineral presence.
146
What is the purpose of chemical analysis in mining?
To confirm the chemical composition and purity of minerals in rock samples
## Footnote
Conducted in a laboratory setting.
147
What does gravimetry detect?
Variations in gravity caused by differences in density and mass of rocks
## Footnote
Igneous rocks are usually denser than sedimentary deposits.
148
What is the main focus of satellite surveys?
Identifying minerals based on the infrared radiation they emit
## Footnote
Different minerals emit infrared radiation at different wavelengths.
149
What is the cut-off ore grade (COOG)?
The lowest ore purity that can be mined economically using existing technology
## Footnote
It helps determine the viability of mining operations.
150
What factors affect mine viability?
Ore purity, chemical form, overburden and hydrology, depth, economic viability, transport costs, market economics
## Footnote
Each factor influences the economic feasibility of mining.
151
What are the environmental impacts of mineral exploitation?
Amenity loss, land take, subsidence, habitat loss, air and water pollution, traffic congestion, spoil disposal, flooding
## Footnote
These impacts necessitate careful planning and management.
152
What is the main cause of habitat loss during mining?
The extraction of minerals leads to the loss of species and their habitats
## Footnote
Open cast mining causes more habitat loss than deep mining.
153
What methods can reduce dust pollution from mining?
Water spraying
## Footnote
This method helps settle dust raised by blasting and vehicle movement.
154
What is the role of sedimentation lagoons in mining?
To treat turbid drainage water by settling particles
## Footnote
This prevents high turbidity levels that block sunlight for aquatic life.
155
What are spoil heaps?
Solid waste left behind by mining, including overburden and unwanted material
## Footnote
They can cause aesthetic and stability issues.
156
How can the stability of spoil heaps be improved?
By reducing the gradient, adding soil, and planting vegetation
## Footnote
Proper drainage can also prevent waterlogging.
157
What is the impact of toxic leachate?
It can dissolve toxic metals and sulfides, leading to acid leachate solutions
## Footnote
This contamination can harm local water sources.
158
How can flooding from mining be managed?
By storing drainage water correctly and using holding lagoons
## Footnote
Prevents overflow and contamination when a mine is abandoned.
159
What strategies can improve future mineral supply?
Increased exploration, better exploratory techniques, and technological advancements
## Footnote
These strategies can help access previously unreachable deposits.
160
What is the significance of habitat restoration in mining?
can create new habitats
Stability Of Soil
Aesthetic
## Footnote
This can enhance the ecological value of mined areas.
161
What are the two main categories of copper resources?
Reserves and resources
## Footnote
Reserves are profitable to exploit, while resources include uneconomic deposits.
162
What does remote sensing do in mineral exploration?
Collects information without direct contact
## Footnote
Provides data on topography and surface deposits quickly.
163
What are the economic implications of market fluctuations for mining?
Market demand and sale value control the viability of exploiting mineral deposits
## Footnote
Prices can fluctuate widely based on supply and demand.
164
What is the general density comparison between igneous rocks and sedimentary rocks?
Igneous rocks are usually denser than sedimentary rocks
## Footnote
This density difference can hint at the presence of ore deposits.
165
What technique uses the strength of magnetism to detect magnetic rocks?
Magnetometry
## Footnote
This method is particularly useful for detecting ores like iron, cobalt, and nickel.
166
What do seismic surveys provide information on?
Depth, angle, density, and thickness of rock strata
## Footnote
Seismic surveys rely on echoes of surface vibrations.
167
What is core sampling?
A method to guarantee the existence of a mineral deposit by identifying its extent and thickness
## Footnote
It involves taking a grid of samples.
168
How can newer satellites improve mineral exploration?
By carrying improved sensors that generate greater numbers of image pixels
## Footnote
This enhances remote sensing image resolution.
169
What is a mechanism for extracting minerals more rapidly?
Mechanised mining techniques
## Footnote
Large excavators can make the process more cost-effective.
170
What is the depth of the largest open cast mine in the world, Phalaborwa?
450m deep
171
What alternative method can be used to concentrate copper from leachate water?
Evaporation followed by electrolysis
## Footnote
This method is used to extract copper from spoil heaps.
172
Which bacteria can be used to extract copper from low grade copper sulfide spoil heaps?
Thiobacillus
## Footnote
They oxidise sulfur and produce an acidic solution that leaches out copper.
173
What is the benefit of recycling in mineral extraction?
It alleviates the pressures to extract more reserves from the ground
## Footnote
However, not all metals can be economically recycled.
174
What is resource substitution?
The use of another, more abundant material to do the same job
## Footnote
Example: using plastic pipes instead of copper.
175
Define 'bioleaching.'
The use of live organisms to extract metals from their ores
176
What type of bacteria is used in bioleaching to extract metals like copper?
Acidophilic bacteria such as Acidothiobacillus sp.
177
What is phytomining?
A method where plants absorb metal ions and concentrate them in their leaves
## Footnote
This method can also decontaminate polluted sites.
178
How do polymetallic nodules form?
They may be formed by chemical precipitation of metals around a small solid object
## Footnote
These nodules are found on the seabed and contain various metals.
179
What is a major environmental concern with recovering polymetallic nodules?
Disturbing the seabed and killing benthic organisms
## Footnote
This process can increase water turbidity with unknown consequences.
180
What is the main challenge of recycling aluminum?
Separation of alloys of mixed metals
## Footnote
Recycled aluminum alloys cannot be used where pure aluminum is needed.
181
What does 'cradle to cradle design' refer to?
The design of products for materials to be reused after their useful lives
## Footnote
This includes easy separation of components and identification of materials.
182
What are the four main approaches to increasing future mineral supplies?
* Better exploration
* Increased efficiency of traditional methods
* New extraction methods
* End-of-life strategies
183
What are the benefits of improved extraction and processing technology?
Enables exploitation of previously inaccessible deposits and economic processing of very low grade ores
184
What is the impact of recycling on energy costs?
Recycling aluminum saves energy compared to extracting it from bauxite
## Footnote
However, transport energy costs may exceed savings if small quantities are collected.
185
True or False: Rare earth metals are abundant and easy to extract.
False
## Footnote
Exploitable deposits are limited and extraction is complicated.
186
What is the significance of deep sea sediments in mineral extraction?
They have relatively high concentrations of rare earth metals
## Footnote
Currently, there is no viable method for exploitation.
187
What is an example of a polymer that can be used for metal ion adsorption?
Lignin from wood or chitin from shrimp shells
## Footnote
These can be used to extract uranium and may provide a low energy method for fuel production.
188
What is the role of remote sensing in mineral exploration?
It allows for precise identification of minerals and reduces the area of land needed for geochemical surveys
189
What does leachate collection involve?
Recirculating rainwater that dissolves soluble metal ions through spoil heaps
## Footnote
This increases the concentration of metals for extraction.
190
What is the main challenge of recycling smaller quantities of materials?
Increased labour costs
## Footnote
Processing smaller amounts is more expensive and time-consuming.
191
What is used to measure wind velocity?
An electronic anemometer
## Footnote
Wind velocity is standardized by holding the anemometer at the same height above ground and ensuring no obstacles to airflow.
192
How is humidity traditionally measured?
Using a whirling hygrometer
## Footnote
It involves spinning two thermometers (one wet and one dry) and comparing the temperature difference to estimate humidity.
193
What is the formula for calculating species evenness?
E = N / Σn
## Footnote
Where N is the total number of organisms and n is the number of individuals of a particular species.
194
What does Simpson's Diversity Index measure?
Species diversity
## Footnote
It assesses the likelihood of two randomly selected individuals belonging to the same species.
195
What does high species diversity indicate about an ecosystem?
It indicates ecological stability
## Footnote
A low diversity value may suggest an unstable ecosystem or pollution.
196
Define species richness.
The number of different species in a habitat.
197
What is habitat diversity?
The number of different habitats in an area.
198
What is the relationship between structural diversity of plants and bird species diversity?
Directly proportional or positive correlation.
## Footnote
More varied plant structure creates more habitats or niches for birds.
199
What is the DAFOR abundance scale used for?
Assessing the abundance of species in a study area.
## Footnote
Categories include Dominant, Abundant, Frequent, Occasional, and Rare.
200
What is the Lincoln Index used for?
Estimating population size in ecology.
201
What is the formula for the Lincoln Index?
N = (n1 * n2) / m
## Footnote
Where N is the population size, n1 is the number marked in the first sample, n2 is the total caught in the second sample, and m is the number of marked individuals in the second sample.
202
What are common marking techniques for animals?
* Spot of paint for invertebrates
* Leg-rings for birds
* Shaved patch of hair for mammals
* Small metal disks for fish
* DNA fingerprint for larger animals
203
What is a null hypothesis?
A statement that there is no effect or relationship between variables.
204
What does accuracy in data collection refer to?
How close the recorded data is to the true value.
205
What is precision in the context of data collection?
Intervals between possible recorded results.
206
What is biodiversity?
The variety of living organisms in an area.
207
What are the three levels at which biodiversity can be considered?
* Habitat Diversity
* Species Diversity
* Genetic Diversity
208
What is the significance of a low diversity value in a habitat?
It suggests the habitat is dominated by a few species, making it vulnerable to environmental changes.
209
How can percentage cover be estimated using a frame quadrat?
By estimating the area covered by each species within the quadrat.
210
What is the advantage of using percentage cover estimation?
It is faster and avoids the need to count individuals.
211
What is a disadvantage of percentage cover estimation?
It can be difficult with overlapping organisms.
212
How can species identification keys be used?
To identify species seen or caught during sampling.
213
What is ecological monitoring?
An important part of wildlife conservation programmes.
214
What does ecological monitoring help to achieve?
* Find species richness
* Monitor habitat conditions
* Monitor population features
215
What is the definition of representative data?
Data that accurately reflects the complete data set.
216
What does reliable data provide?
Consistent results that are repeatable.
217
What is an anomalous result?
A result that differs from other results in a data set.
218
What is the purpose of statistical tests in hypothesis testing?
To determine if results are significant or due to chance.
219
Describe the scientific method.
* Identify topic of interest
* Literature search
* Construct hypothesis
* Design experiment
* Carry out experiment
* Analyze results
* Develop further research
220
What is representative data?
Data that accurately reflects the complete data set
## Footnote
Representative data is essential for drawing valid conclusions in scientific research.
221
What does reliability in data mean?
Provides consistent results that are repeatable
## Footnote
Reliability can be achieved with repeat measurements.
222
What are anomalous results?
A result that differs from other results in a data set
## Footnote
Repetition of the study will identify anomalous results.
223
Define validity in the context of data collection.
If accurate, precise and reliable data is collected then it is valid and conclusions can be based on results.
224
What is the dart board analogy used for?
To explain reliable, precise, accurate and valid results.
225
What must be considered when designing an investigation?
Data collected must be relied upon to draw valid conclusions.
226
List the components of good scientific research planning.
* Location of sampling sites
* Timing of sampling
* Count of data
* Number of samples
* Size of sample
* Standardised sampling techniques
* Statistical analysis
227
What does the mnemonic 'Lazy Tigers Can Never Stop Sniffing Snow' help to remember?
Planning stages in scientific research.
228
What are biotic and abiotic factors?
Biotic factors are living components, while abiotic factors are non-living components of an ecosystem.
229
Why do environmental scientists need to know population sizes?
* Study population dynamics
* Look at distribution influenced by biotic or abiotic factors
* Impact assessments
* Restoration ecology
* Set harvest limits
* Control pest populations
230
What is a challenge when counting individuals in a target area?
It can be difficult or simply not possible to count all individuals.
231
What is the solution to estimating population size?
Use some form of sampling technique.
232
What is the importance of sample size in research?
Larger samples are more likely to produce representative results.
233
What is the recommendation for the number of samples in an investigation?
Multiple samples eliminate variability; at least 10 samples are recommended.
234
What is density in ecological terms?
The mean number of individuals per unit area.
235
How is species frequency measured?
By recording the proportion of samples in which a species is found.
236
What is the advantage of using species frequency?
It is a quick assessment of general distribution.
237
What is a disadvantage of using species frequency?
No information about density or actual numbers of species.
238
When should sample timing be considered?
If something being investigated changes with time.
239
What is the purpose of using preliminary studies?
To test the reliability of methods chosen before the main experiment.
240
What are some electronic meters used to measure abiotic factors?
* Temperature
* pH
* Dissolved oxygen
* Light levels
* Wind and water velocity
241
What assumptions are made when marking individuals in a study?
* Individual animals are mobile
* Population size remains constant
* Marking method is non-toxic
* Marks do not get lost
* Marked individuals distribute evenly
* All individuals have equal chances of being caught
242
What does systematic sampling involve?
Using a methodical approach to collect samples along a defined gradient.
243
What is an interrupted belt transect?
Records species present in quadrats placed at fixed points along a line.
244
What is random sampling?
Samples taken are representative of the entire population.
245
What is a disadvantage of using line transects?
Many organisms could be missed, resulting in less representative data.
246
What is the goal of sampling?
To collect as many randomly selected samples as possible.
247
What can bias in sampling lead to?
Overestimation or underestimation of population size.
248
What is the purpose of stratified sampling?
To ensure that different subgroups within a population are represented.
249
What are the objectives of traditional sampling techniques?
To know the methods of traditional sampling techniques for different organisms, to explain how to standardise method and what the limitations are, and to explain modern specialist techniques used in ecological research.
250
Why is scientific research important in ecological monitoring?
It is important to obtain representative data of different situations in the environment for valid conclusions used in decisions about environmental problems.
251
What can a good ecological survey determine?
* Species present in a habitat or ecosystem
* Conditions in a habitat over time
* Population sizes
* Age structure of a population
* Growth rate and breeding rate of a population
* Territory size of a species
* Population movements
252
What sampling techniques are used for plants?
* Quadrats (point and grid)
253
What sampling techniques are used for aquatic animals?
* Pond net
* Kick sampling
* Surber samplers
* Planktonic nets
* Colonisation media
254
What sampling techniques are used for terrestrial and aerial animals?
* Pitfall traps
* Aerial insect nets
* Suction samplers (pooters)
* Sweep nets
* Beating trays
* Tullgren funnels
* Light traps
* Extraction of earthworms
255
What are some modern specialist techniques in ecological research?
* Imagery (image databases, motion sensitive cameras, CCTV)
* Tags/marking
* DNA databases/eDNA
* Auditory marking/sonograms
* Position marking (radio/GPS/acoustic tracking)
256
What are indirect methods of monitoring populations?
* Nests/burrows
* Droppings
* Feeding marks
* Owl pellets
* Footprints/tracks
* Territorial marks
257
What is a quadrat?
A sampling tool that is usually square or circular, varying in size depending on the habitat type.
258
What factors determine the size of a quadrat?
* Size of plants/animals
* Distribution of species
259
How does the number of sample quadrats affect reliability?
More sample quadrats lead to more reliable results.
260
What is a point quadrat?
A quadrat made of a horizontal bar with 10 holes for a pin to drop through, recording species touched by the pin.
261
What is the formula to calculate percentage cover in a quadrat?
Percentage cover = (number of hits / total number of pins) x 100
262
What are frame quadrats used for?
To look at plant communities and small slow-moving invertebrates, assessing species abundance or diversity.
263
What are some limitations of quadrats?
* Subjective judgement when estimating percentage cover
* Quadrat frames may flatten or move plants
264
What is the method for using pond nets?
Pond nets are swept through water or aquatic vegetation to capture organisms.
265
What are the limitations of using pond nets?
Mobile species may escape and accurate standardisation is difficult.
266
Describe the kick sampling method.
A net is held on the riverbed while the riverbed is disturbed, dislodging invertebrates into the net.
267
What are the limitations of kick sampling?
* Standardising is difficult
* Buried organisms may not be collected
* Swimming organisms could escape
* Water flow may affect capture rate
* Fragile organisms may be killed
268
What is the method for using Surber samplers?
Place the sampler in the riverbed with water flowing into the net, disturbing the riverbed to collect organisms.
269
What are the limitations of Surber samplers?
* Can only be used in sufficient water flow
* Small size may limit use on rough substrates
* Large organisms may escape
270
What is the method for planktonic drift nets?
A fine mesh is pulled through water to capture organisms, either fixed or towed behind a boat.
271
What are the limitations of planktonic drift nets?
* Coarse mesh may miss smaller organisms
* Fine mesh may clog and prevent water flow
272
What is the purpose of colonisation media?
To provide suitable habitats for monitoring species that may colonise them.
273
What are the limitations of colonisation media?
* Not all species may use the media
* Accurate population estimates are not possible
274
What are the limitations of using colonisation media for monitoring species?
Not all species can be monitored as they may not use the media. Accurate population estimates are not possible as the proportion that colonises the media is not known.
275
How can colonisation media be applied in freshwater environments?
It can be used for restoration work to create habitats for invertebrates and increase diversity.
276
What is the method for using pitfall traps?
Place a container into the ground, support a cover over the opening, leave traps for a standard period, then identify and count trapped organisms.
277
What are the limitations of pitfall traps?
* Organisms below the surface or that move little will not be collected
* Some organisms may be repelled or attracted to the ‘killing’ fluid
* Active animals are most likely to be trapped
278
What types of suction samplers are mentioned?
* Pooters
* Air suction samplers
* Motor driven suction samplers
279
What is the method for aerial suction samplers?
Long pipes extend into the air; a fan directs sucked-in insects into a solution of water and antifreeze.
280
What is a limitation of aerial suction samplers?
Some invertebrates may avoid the noise of the sampler.
281
What is the method for using sweep nets?
A figure of 8 movement is used to sweep through vegetation, trapping organisms in the net.
282
What is a limitation of sweep nets?
Some more motile organisms may escape being caught.
283
What is the purpose of beating trays?
To identify invertebrates on vegetation above ground by dislodging them onto a sheet.
284
What is a limitation of beating trays?
It is difficult to standardise the vigour of hitting between different researchers.
285
What method is used to collect night-flying insects?
Light traps that attract insects to bright lights.
286
What are Tullgren funnels used for?
Collecting invertebrates from soil or leaf litter.
287
What is a limitation of Tullgren funnels?
Only species repelled by light are collected.
288
What are the two techniques for earthworm extraction?
* Soil flooding
* Soil pit extraction
289
What is the method for soil flooding?
Flood soil with an irritant and saturate the surrounding area to count and identify worms.
290
What is a limitation of soil flooding?
Solutions may not penetrate impermeable soils, and different species react differently to chemicals.
291
What are some specialist techniques for monitoring species?
* Photographic studies
* Tags/Marking
* DNA databases
* Auditory marking
* Position marking
292
What is the purpose of photographic surveys?
To collect data on individuals of some species due to unique features.
293
What is the limitation of photographic studies?
Few species have unique features that can be used to identify individuals.
294
What is the use of motion-sensitive cameras?
To monitor habitats and detect animal activity.
295
What is environmental DNA (eDNA)?
DNA shed by aquatic species that can be identified from water samples.
296
What are the advantages of using eDNA over traditional methods?
* More accurate identification of species
* Less time-consuming at sampling site
* Less disturbance of the site
297
What are some limitations of using eDNA?
* Takes longer to obtain results
* DNA can degrade quickly
* Doesn't indicate movement of organisms
298
What does auditory monitoring involve?
Tracking species that produce distinct sounds using sonograms.
299
What technologies are used for position monitoring?
* Radio transmitters
* GPS transmitters
* Acoustic transmitters
300
What is the purpose of data recorders?
To collect data on abiotic factors such as temperature and light intensity.
301
What are sensor carrier systems?
Methods to place sensors in specific locations for data collection.
302
What can satellite systems monitor?
* Deforestation
* Flooding
* Changes over time
* Vegetation density and temperature
303
What are indirect methods of monitoring species?
* Bird nests
* Droppings
* Feeding marks
* Owl pellets
* Footprints
304
What is the natural composition of the atmosphere?
Fairly constant with variations due to regular cycles and human activities.
305
What are the three ways human activities change the composition of the atmosphere?
* Direct emissions from human activities
* Activities that change natural processes that release gases
* Activities that change natural processes that absorb gases
306
Define dynamic equilibrium in the context of the atmosphere.
A combination of active processes that cancel each other’s effects so that there is no overall change.
307
What processes might change atmospheric gases?
* Changes in the sun's activities
* Geological processes
* Human actions
308
How do photosynthesis and respiration relate to atmospheric gases?
They roughly balance each other, but their rates vary over different timescales, causing fluctuations in gas concentrations.
309
List ways the atmosphere supports life on Earth.
* Provides gases for natural and human processes
* Absorbs electromagnetic radiation from the sun
* Delays the escape of infrared energy
* Distributes heat by moving air
* Distributes water vapor by moving air
* Winds create ocean currents
* Affects the ease of liquid water evaporation
310
What gases does the atmosphere contain that are essential for biological molecules?
* Carbon
* Oxygen
* Hydrogen
* Nitrogen
311
What is the role of the ozone layer in the stratosphere?
Absorbs UV radiation from the Sun.
312
How does atmospheric pressure affect water on Earth?
It controls the ease with which water molecules can evaporate and escape from the water surface.
313
What are the main layers of the atmosphere?
* Troposphere
* Stratosphere
* Mesosphere
* Ionosphere (upper mesosphere and thermosphere)
314
How does temperature change with altitude in the troposphere?
Temperature drops with altitude due to heating by re-radiation emitted from the ground.
315
What is the main characteristic of the stratosphere?
Contains the ozone layer, which absorbs UV radiation and causes temperature to increase with altitude.
316
What is insolation?
The amount and duration of incoming solar radiation.
317
What is albedo?
The ratio between total solar radiation reaching a surface and the amount reflected.
318
True or False: Pressure increases with altitude.
False
319
True or False: The troposphere is heated from the ground.
True
320
True or False: Ozone in the stratosphere causes eye, ear, and throat irritation.
True
321
True or False: Temperatures increase with altitude in the stratosphere because ozone and water vapor absorb heat from the Sun.
True
322
What percentage of the Sun is composed of hydrogen and helium?
* 70% hydrogen
* 30% helium
323
What is the process that generates energy from the Sun?
Nuclear fusion, where hydrogen nuclei join to form helium.
324
What types of electromagnetic radiation reach the upper atmosphere?
* UV
* Visible light
* Near infrared
325
What is the greenhouse effect?
The trapping of heat as some outgoing radiation is absorbed, scattered, or reflected by clouds and gases in the atmosphere.
326
What are the three types of UV radiation?
* UVB (280-320 nm)
* UVC (100-280 nm)
* UVA (320-400 nm)
327
What effect does UVC radiation have?
Kills bacteria and viruses.
328
Fill in the blank: The Earth’s surface absorbs EMR and is heated up, re-radiating it as _______.
infrared radiation
329
What is the enhanced greenhouse effect?
The enhanced greenhouse effect refers to the increased concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere due to human activities, leading to more heat being trapped.
330
Name the gases responsible for the enhanced greenhouse effect.
* Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
* Methane (CH4)
* Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
* CFCs
* Tropospheric Ozone
331
What are the human sources of Carbon Dioxide (CO2)?
* Burning fossil fuels
* Deforestation
* Respiration
* Natural fires
332
What are the natural sources of Methane (CH4)?
* Anaerobic decay of vegetation
* Termites
* Anaerobic bacteria in paddy fields, landfill sites, and intestines of livestock
333
Fill in the blank: The approximate relative effect per molecule of Methane (CH4) is _______.
30
334
True or False: Most greenhouse gases have only human sources.
False
335
What happens to natural sinks of greenhouse gases?
They are decreasing, leading to an imbalance in gas absorption.
336
What is the approximate relative effect per molecule of Nitrous Oxide (N2O)?
160
337
What causes sea level rise due to climate change?
* Thermal expansion of seawater
* Melting land ice flowing into the sea
338
What are the effects of increased sea levels?
* Low-lying land flooding
* Increased coastal erosion
* Saltwater intrusion into aquifers
* Habitat changes
339
What is the average rate of sea level rise observed over the last fifty years?
1.8 mm per year
340
What are the changes observed in the cryosphere due to climate change?
* Reduction in snow and ice cover
* Changes in the extent and speed of land ice movement
* Loss of ice shelves
* Changes in ice thickness and area
341
What is the Coriolis Effect?
It is the deflection of winds and ocean currents due to the Earth's rotation.
342
How does global warming affect wind patterns?
It causes jet streams to become smaller and move nearer the poles, leading to prolonged and intense weather events.
343
What is the North Atlantic Conveyor (Gulf Stream)?
It is a warm ocean current that travels from the tropical Atlantic towards NW Europe.
344
What happens during an El Niño event?
Wind patterns change direction, affecting rainfall patterns and disrupting nutrient upwelling.
345
Fill in the blank: La Niña is characterized by winds blowing more strongly in the _______ direction.
normal
346
What are some ecological changes due to climate change?
* Changes in species distribution
* Altered timing of ecological events
* Potential localised extinctions
347
What health impacts can result from climate change?
* Heat waves leading to heart disease and respiratory problems
* Changes in disease vectors
348
How does climate change affect food supplies?
* Changes in crop species
* Reduced water availability for irrigation
* Increased pest damage
349
What are the main factors that affect the greenhouse effect?
* Concentration of greenhouse gases
* Human activities
* Natural processes
350
What role do ocean currents play in climate?
They distribute heat around the planet and significantly affect climate patterns.
351
True or False: Ice floating on the sea contributes to sea level rise when it melts.
False
352
What is the impact of changes in rainfall patterns due to climate change?
Increased rainfall in some areas while reducing it in others.
353
What may block movement in ecosystems?
Ecological changes
## Footnote
Interdependent species may not be able to recolonise at the same speed.
354
What are examples of ecological changes?
Impacts on Human Society, Health, Water supplies, Food supplies
## Footnote
Examples include heat waves affecting health and droughts impacting water supplies.
355
What health problems can arise from heat waves?
Heart disease, respiratory problems
## Footnote
Heat waves can exacerbate existing health conditions.
356
How may disease vectors change due to climate change?
They may change their distribution, e.g. malarial mosquitoes spreading to hotter areas
## Footnote
This can lead to increased disease prevalence.
357
What impacts on infrastructure can climate change have?
Road heat stress, track buckling, drainage issues, landslides, bridge damage
## Footnote
Changes in temperature and rainfall can severely affect infrastructure.
358
What is dynamic equilibrium in relation to Earth's radiation?
Balance between the amount of radiation that reaches the Earth and that which leaves it
## Footnote
It involves various forms of radiation including infrared and solar.
359
Which latitudes receive a net surplus of radiation?
Latitudes between 0 degrees and 30 degrees
## Footnote
The poles experience a net heat deficit.
360
What are the key components of heat transfer in climate?
Warm currents, global winds, cool currents, convection and latent heat
## Footnote
Heat moves from the tropics to the poles through these mechanisms.
361
What is a negative feedback mechanism?
Resists changes and helps maintain a stable planet
## Footnote
It counteracts original changes to maintain dynamic equilibrium.
362
What does the cloud albedo effect describe?
Clouds reflect more sunlight, which cools the atmosphere
## Footnote
Increased cloud cover can lead to higher humidity and further cloud formation.
363
What is a positive feedback mechanism?
Increases the size of the original change
## Footnote
It destabilizes dynamic equilibrium and can lead to accelerated climate change.
364
What is runaway climate change?
A positive feedback mechanism that becomes continuous without the original human action
## Footnote
Tipping points may lead to uncontrollable climate change.
365
What are the main gaps in our knowledge about predicting climate change?
Lack of understanding of natural processes, lack of historical data, regional differences in change
## Footnote
These gaps complicate predictions and assessments.
366
What is proxy data?
Estimates about one factor based on a related factor that can be measured
## Footnote
Examples include ice cores and tree rings.
367
What historical data indicates about CO2 levels?
They are now the highest they have been for 440,000 years
## Footnote
There is a close correlation between CO2 levels and air temperature.
368
What was the Kyoto Protocol?
An international agreement to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases by 5.2% of 1990 levels
## Footnote
It set legally binding targets for developed countries.
369
What is the Paris Agreement?
An international agreement aiming to limit global temperature rise to well below 2.0C above pre-industrial levels
## Footnote
It requires nations to review their emission contributions every five years.
370
What are Kyoto Mechanisms?
Emissions trading, joint implementation, clean development mechanism
## Footnote
These mechanisms help countries manage and reduce emissions collaboratively.
371
How many countries have signed the Paris Agreement?
196 countries have signed the agreement
372
What is Donald Trump's action regarding the Paris Agreement?
Donald Trump has pulled the USA out of the Paris Agreement
373
What is the primary goal of the Paris Agreement concerning global temperatures?
To keep global temperatures 'well below' 2.0C above pre-industrial times and 'endeavour to limit' them even more, to 1.5C
374
What is one of the goals related to greenhouse gas emissions in the Paris Agreement?
To limit the amount of greenhouse gases emitted by human activity to levels that trees, soil, and oceans can absorb naturally
375
When are countries required to review their contributions to cutting emissions?
Every five years
376
What type of support is expected from rich countries to poorer nations in the Paris Agreement?
Providing 'climate finance' to adapt to climate change and switch to renewable energy
377
What is one method to reduce CO2 emissions?
Reduction in fossil fuel use, e.g. through energy consumption
378
What technique can be used for carbon sequestration?
Afforestation or CO2 capture from power stations in underground geological structures
379
Name a method to reduce methane (CH4) emissions.
Reduce use of landfill, increase recycling, reduce food waste
380
What is one way to improve recovery of gas from coal mines?
Improve recovery of gas from coal mines and gas and oil facilities
381
What is a method to reduce NOx emissions?
Reducing the peak temperature of fossil fuel combustion
382
True or False: Catalytic converters decrease CO2 emissions.
False
383
What alternative materials can be used to reduce CFC emissions?
Butane & propane in aerosol cans, HFCs and HCFCs in fridges
384
What is carbon sequestration?
Afforestation will sequester carbon in wood through photosynthesis
385
What does Carbon Capture & Storage involve?
Technological processes that remove CO2 produced in industrial processes
386
What are some methods of geoengineering?
Painting roofs white, adding nutrients to seas, putting solar shields in orbit
387
Fill in the blank: Climate change may require changes in _______.
lifestyle, infrastructure service, and land use
388
What building design adaptations can help cope with climate change?
Building design to cope with raised temperature or increase in storms
389
Name a method for flood control in response to climate change.
Coastal erosion control
390
What is managed retreat in the context of climate change?
A strategy to relocate communities away from vulnerable areas
391
What is one technique for urban drainage management?
Permeable urban surfaces
392
What is the purpose of raised buildings in climate adaptation?
To cope with flooding and rising sea levels
393
What is a potential design for homes to adapt to climate challenges?
Floating homes
394
What is the primary function of ozone in the atmosphere?
Ozone absorbs harmful UV radiation, particularly UV B and UV C
395
What are the three types of UV radiation and their characteristics?
* UV A (320-400nm): Causes sunburn and cataracts, not absorbed
* UV B (290-320nm): Damages DNA and chlorophyll, partially absorbed
* UV C: Highly lethal, filtered out by ozone and oxygen
396
What is ozone?
Ozone is an allotrope of oxygen gas, composed of three oxygen atoms (O3)
397
How is ozone formed in the stratosphere?
Oxygen molecules (O2) are bombarded by high energy UV light, creating oxygen radicals (O·) which react with more O2 to form O3
398
What happens during ozone destruction?
Ozone (O3) is broken down by UV radiation into oxygen gas (O2) and oxygen radicals (O·)
399
What are chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?
CFCs are organic molecules containing chlorine, fluorine, and carbon used as refrigerants, aerosol propellants, and solvents
400
What is the Rowland-Molina Hypothesis?
It suggests that CFCs can deplete ozone due to their chemical properties and stability in the atmosphere
401
What is the process by which CFCs remove ozone?
CFCs release chlorine radicals when dissociated by UV light, which then react with ozone, converting it into oxygen gas
402
What role do chlorine radicals play in ozone depletion?
Chlorine radicals react with ozone, removing it from the ozone cycle and converting it back to oxygen gas
403
What are ozone-depleting substances (ODS)?
ODS include halogenated hydrocarbons (CFCs, HCFCs), halons, and nitrous oxides that break down ozone in the stratosphere
404
What are the health effects of increased UV radiation due to ozone depletion?
* Increased risk of sunburn
* Accelerated skin aging
* Higher likelihood of skin cancer
* Increased risk of cataracts
405
How is ozone measured?
Ozone is measured in Dobson units, where 1 Dobson unit equals a thickness of one hundredth of a mm at Earth’s surface
406
What evidence supports the reduction of ozone levels?
* Ground-based data showing higher UV levels
* Satellite surveys indicating unexpected UV reflection
* Air samples confirming presence of chlorine and ClO
407
What international agreement aimed to reduce CFC usage?
The Montreal Protocol (1987) aimed to phase out the use of CFCs and other ODS
408
What are some alternatives to CFCs?
* Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
* Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
* Propane and butane for aerosols
* Alcohols and CO2 for solvents
409
True or False: CFCs are flammable.
True, CFCs used in aerosols now often include propane and butane, which are flammable
410
What is the impact of the Montreal Protocol?
It has led to a global reduction in CFC use, with ozone levels expected to recover over time
411
What is the significance of stratospheric conditions over Antarctica?
Cold temperatures and polar vortex create conditions that exacerbate ozone depletion
412
Fill in the blank: The ozone molecule is made up of _______.
three oxygen atoms (O3)
413
What are the types of sampling methods mentioned for lichens?
Random, systematic, stratified, transect
## Footnote
These methods help in choosing representative sample sites for studying lichen distribution.
414
What factors should be considered when choosing sample sites for lichens?
* Pollution gradient
* Areas with different pollution concentrations
* Distance from roads
* Similar substrate type
* Aspect and light intensity
* Precipitation patterns
* Wind direction
## Footnote
These factors influence lichen growth and distribution.
415
What is smoke smog?
Smoke smog is caused by the interaction of smoke and fog
## Footnote
It occurs when moist air cools, causing water vapor to condense into airborne droplets.
416
What are the health effects of smoke pollution as seen in the Great London Smog of 1952?
Over 4000 people died of respiratory problems in a single week
## Footnote
This event led to the introduction of the Clean Air Act (1956).
417
What was the Clean Air Act (1956) designed to do?
* Ban the release of excessive smoke
* Ban burning of smoky fuel in urban smokeless zones
* Provide funds for pollution-control research
* Set air quality standards
* Allow citizens to sue for violations
## Footnote
It aimed to reduce air pollution in urban areas.
418
What are some domestic sources of air pollution?
Use of smokeless fuels (natural gas, electricity)
## Footnote
These sources are considered cleaner alternatives to traditional fuels.
419
What are some industrial sources of air pollution?
Electrostatic precipitators, flue-gas desulfurization
## Footnote
These technologies help reduce emissions from industrial processes.
420
What is the significance of smoke particle size regarding pollution levels?
* Time spent in the atmosphere
* Health effects
* Environmental impact
## Footnote
Smaller particles can remain airborne longer and penetrate deeper into the lungs.
421
What does synergistic effects mean?
Two or more pollutants interact to create a different (usually worse) effect
## Footnote
For example, smoke can act synergistically with sulfur dioxide.
422
What are the main sources of smoke?
* Burning vegetation
* Burning wood fuel
* Burning coal
* Diesel combustion
* Combustible wastes
## Footnote
These sources contribute significantly to air pollution, especially in urban areas.
423
What are some effects of smoke on living organisms?
* Damage to respiratory systems
* Toxic effects from heavy metals and acids
* Reduced photosynthesis in plants
## Footnote
Smoke can have detrimental effects on both human health and biodiversity.
424
What are primary pollutants involved in photochemical smog formation?
* Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
* Hydrocarbons
## Footnote
These pollutants undergo reactions in the presence of sunlight to form secondary pollutants like ozone.
425
What is the role of catalytic converters in controlling air pollution?
They convert harmful nitrogen oxides (NOx) back into nitrogen and oxygen gases
## Footnote
Catalytic converters are essential in reducing emissions from vehicles.
426
What is the definition of biotic indicators?
Species that show varying levels of sensitivity to pollutants
## Footnote
Lichens are commonly used as biotic indicators due to their sensitivity to air quality.
427
What are some effects of tropospheric ozone on health?
* Breathing difficulties
* Asthma
* Reduced growth rates in plants
## Footnote
Tropospheric ozone is a harmful air pollutant affecting both human health and vegetation.
428
What are some methods for reducing nitrous oxide emissions in agriculture?
* Reducing nitrogen-based fertilizer applications
* Applying fertilizers more efficiently
## Footnote
These methods aim to minimize the environmental impact of agricultural practices.
429
How does smoke affect buildings?
Can damage surfaces, make them dirty, and cleaning becomes expensive
## Footnote
The acids and sulfates in smoke contribute to the deterioration of structures.
430
What is the main cause of acid rain?
Dissolution of CO2 and NOx in rainwater, forming acids
## Footnote
Acid rain occurs when the pH of rainwater falls below 5.6.
431
What is photochemical smog?
A mixture of pollutants formed by sunlight-driven reactions between primary and secondary pollutants
## Footnote
It does not involve smoke or fog but is exacerbated by temperature inversions.
432
What are the common gases in the atmosphere?
* Nitrogen (78%)
* Oxygen (21%)
* Argon (0.9%)
* Carbon dioxide (0.04%)
* Neon (0.002%)
* Helium (0.0005%)
* Methane (0.0002%)
* Hydrogen (0.00006%)
* Nitrous oxide (0.00003%)
* Carbon monoxide (0.00001%)
* Ozone (0.000007%)
* Nitrogen dioxide (0.000002%)
## Footnote
These gases make up the Earth's atmosphere and play different roles in environmental processes.
433
What is the pH level that defines enhanced acid rain?
Lower than 5.6
434
What acids are produced when oxides of nitrogen dissolve in water?
* Nitrous acid (HNO2)
* Nitric acid (HNO3)
435
What weak acid is formed when sulfur dioxide dissolves in water?
Sulfurous acid (H2SO3)
436
What strong acid is produced when sulfur trioxide dissolves in water?
Sulfuric acid (H2SO4)
437
What gases are primarily responsible for acid rain?
* Oxides of sulfur (SOx)
* Oxides of nitrogen (NOx)
438
What are the direct effects of acid rain on living and non-living things?
Acid rain has direct impacts when in contact with living or non-living things
439
What are the indirect effects of acid rain?
Secondary or tertiary impacts that might affect living things
440
What is the definition of acid rain?
Rain, snow, sleet, fog, cloudwater, or dew with a pH lower than 5.6
441
How does acid rain affect limestone?
Acid rain reacts with limestone to produce gypsum, damaging the stone's surface
442
What are the mobility characteristics of atmospheric pollutants compared to water and soil pollutants?
* Move quickly due to winds
* Disperse over a large area
* Interact easily with EM radiation and undergo photochemical reactions
443
What are the direct effects of acid rain on living organisms?
* Denaturation of enzymes
* Damage to tissues exposed to the environment
444
What happens to metal ions in acidic conditions?
They become more soluble and can leach into the soil
445
Fill in the blank: Acidic solutions affect the mobility of ______ in the soil.
nutrients
446
What toxic metal ions can leach out of the soil and affect human health?
* Lead
* Aluminium
447
What are some controls for oxides of sulfur?
* Fossil fuel desulfurization
* Dry flue-gas desulfurization
* Wet flue-gas desulfurization
448
What are some controls for oxides of nitrogen?
* Low temperature combustion
* Catalytic converters
* Urea sprays
449
What are some health effects of acid rain on humans?
* Breathing difficulties
* Asthma
* Bronchitis
* Emphysema
450
How does acid rain affect organisms with shells and exoskeletons?
Calcium carbonate shells will dissolve in acidic water, reducing protection from predators
451
What effect does acid rain have on plant cells?
It removes the wax cuticle from leaves, increasing evaporation and desiccation
452
What can lichens indicate about acid rain pollution?
Their size, health, abundance, and diversity can be used as a biotic index
453
What is the effect of acid rain on fish?
Fish eggs can die and gills are damaged, affecting oxygen absorption
454
How does low pH affect seed germination?
Enzymes needed for germination stop working at low pH
455
What are the effects of acid rain on soil organisms?
Toxic ions inhibit enzyme action in plant root hair cells and other soil organisms
456
What are primary fuels?
An energy source that is extracted or harnessed from the environment, e.g., fossil fuels, nuclear fuels, solar, wind, wave, tidal, geothermal, biofuels, HEP.
## Footnote
Primary fuels are essential for energy production and are the basis for secondary fuels.
457
What are secondary fuels?
An energy source that has been produced by converting a primary fuel, for example, electricity or hydrogen.
## Footnote
Secondary fuels are derived from primary fuels and play a crucial role in energy distribution.
458
How does energy availability affect societal development?
Energy shortages limit transportation, access to water, power equipment, and food preservation.
## Footnote
Communities without adequate energy access often experience reduced quality of life and hindered development.
459
What factors influence per capita energy consumption?
* Economic factors
* Industry
* Climate
* Social and environmental awareness
## Footnote
These factors can vary significantly from one country to another.
460
True or False: More affluent societies generally use energy more efficiently.
False
## Footnote
Affluent societies are often more wasteful in their energy consumption.
461
What is the impact of industry on energy consumption?
The level and type of industry influence energy use, with heavy industries using significantly more energy than light or service industries.
## Footnote
Examples include mining (heavy) versus retail (light).
462
Fill in the blank: A cold climate increases energy use for _______.
heating
463
What is the relationship between population size and energy use?
An increase in population size will produce a proportional increase in energy use, even if there is no change in per capita use.
## Footnote
This relationship highlights the importance of population trends in energy planning.
464
What distinguishes renewable from non-renewable energy resources?
Renewable resources naturally re-form quickly, while non-renewable resources re-form slowly, reducing future availability.
## Footnote
Examples of renewable resources include solar, wind, and geothermal energy.
465
What are depletable energy resources?
Resources where use can reduce future availability, including all non-renewable resources and renewable resources that are unsustainably exploited.
## Footnote
Unsustainable exploitation can lead to resource depletion, such as deforestation.
466
What does energy density measure?
The amount of energy in a given mass of energy resource.
## Footnote
High energy density resources are generally more useful due to easier storage and transport.
467
How do technological developments impact energy usage?
Technological advancements can improve efficiency and reduce costs, making energy sources more viable.
## Footnote
New technologies can also change the dynamics of energy production and consumption.
468
What are some environmental impacts of fuel extraction?
* Habitat loss
* Pollution from dust and noise
* Gas emissions (e.g., CO2, NOx)
* Water contamination
* Aesthetic problems and site restoration
## Footnote
Different fuels have varying environmental impacts during extraction and processing.
469
True or False: Fossil fuel usage has no long-term environmental consequences.
False
## Footnote
Fossil fuels contribute to pollution and climate change, impacting both local and global environments.
470
What is the significance of energy conversion?
The form in which energy is harnessed is not necessarily the form delivered to the end-user, requiring conversion processes.
## Footnote
This includes converting chemical energy from fossil fuels into electrical energy for appliances.
471
What factors affect the ease of energy transportation?
Properties such as the form of energy and energy density influence how easily energy resources can be transported.
## Footnote
The location of energy resources also plays a significant role.
472
What are the economic influences on energy costs?
Calculating the full cost of energy includes environmental damage and mitigation costs, which are often not reflected in the market price.
## Footnote
Hidden costs can lead to a distorted understanding of energy expenditures.
473
What is the impact of energy scarcity on communities?
It can lead to a lack of mechanization, limited processing of materials, and challenges in transportation and water purification.
## Footnote
Energy scarcity can severely hinder community development and quality of life.
474
What are particulates?
Small solid or liquid particles suspended in air or water.
475
What environmental impact can seismic surveys have on cetaceans?
Damage to movement, migration, and breeding.
476
What pollution results from oil spills?
Pollution of water bodies.
477
What are two negative effects of machinery in fuel extraction?
Dust and noise.
478
What gas is primarily released when surplus gas on oil rigs is flared?
Methane.
479
Fill in the blank: Oil refining causes gaseous emissions such as CO2, NOx, _______ and hydrocarbon vapours.
particulates.
480
What greenhouse gas is commonly leaked during gas extraction?
Methane.
481
What is a significant resource requirement for fracking?
Large amounts of water.
482
What is a consequence of manufacturing equipment for energy harnessing?
Habitat loss from material extraction and processing.
483
What types of pollution can result from the manufacture of energy equipment?
Metals, concrete, and plastics.
484
What are two environmental impacts associated with site development for power stations?
Site clearance and access roads.
485
What is a consequence of coal spoil?
Aesthetics, habitat loss, acidic drainage, land-slip risk.
486
What health risks are associated with radioactive waste?
Acute radiation poisoning and chronic cancer.
487
What do pipelines used for fossil fuel delivery cause?
Habitat disturbance.
488
What is embodied energy?
Energy consumed by all processes associated with the production of a building.
489
What is a potential aesthetic issue with electricity cables?
Bird strikes.
