Paper 2 Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

Explain the weakness experienced by the patient, and the relative roles of upper and lower neurones
in the motor pathway based on the clinical signs outlined in the case. (3 marks) In addition outline
the motor pathway. You may use a well-labelled diagram of the motor pathway in your answer.

A

Polyneuropathy - symmetrical, multiple nerves
Weakness = lower motor neurone. UMN = inhibition of LMN, loss of tonic LMN firing.
Diagram showing motor pathway from cortex to muscle, including decussation and synapses. (7) Lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give an overview of what is meant by “secondary neurulation” in an embryo. You may use a well
labelled diagram as your answer.

A

Formation of the neural tube inferior to the second sacral level by secondary neurulation. Mesoderm
invading this region during gastrulation condenses into a solid rod called the caudal eminence, which
later develops a lumen. At the end of the sixth week, this structure fuses with the neural tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the formation (3 marks) of the neural crest cells and name four (4) cells (2 marks) and/or
structures that develop from these cells.

A

from neural plate border, signals induce border cells to become specialised neural crest cells
Examples: cranial and sensory ganglia, adrenal medulla, melanocytes, brachial arch cartilages, cranial mesoderm and CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The properties of that peripheral receptor together with their associated primary sensory afferent
nerve endings encode the quality of a stimulus.

A

The quality of a stimulus refers to the type of energy transmitted by a stimulus and is encoded by the
identity of the activated peripheral receptor. Different axonal endings respond to restricted sets of sensory
stimuli (selectivity). Selectivity is explained by the morphological specializations of receptor endings and
properties of the ionotropic channels in receptor membranes. This selectivity is conveyed and preserved
in parallel pathways in the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Stimulus amplitude affects the response of receptor potentials and the frequency of action
potentials once a stimulus is applied to that receptor.

A

The quality of a stimulus refers to the type of energy transmitted by a stimulus and is encoded by the
identity of the activated peripheral receptor. Different axonal endings respond to restricted sets of sensory
stimuli (selectivity). Selectivity is explained by the morphological specializations of receptor endings and
properties of the ionotropic channels in receptor membranes. This selectivity is conveyed and preserved
in parallel pathways in the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define “receptive field” for a sensory neuron.

A

The receptive field of a neuron is the area on a sensory surface (such as skin or tissue), that a
stimulus must reach to activate that neuron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain why the topographic representation (homunculus) of the body surface in the
somatosensory cortex is an altered map of actual anatomic space.

A

The neural maps of the body surface are distorted because of the disproportionate representation
of different areas of the body (e.g., the hand and face areas) in the postcentral gyrus. That is, as
the neurons representing the hand and face have small receptive fields, a greater number of
neurons are required to represent the hand and face. This distortion reflects that of the DCN
(dorsal column nuclei), e.g., the skin of the back has a small representation because of low
afferent density and because of the high convergence (and large receptive fields) in DCN
neurons where many afferents converge onto a single DCN neuron, whereas the skin on the
fingertip has a high afferent density and only a few afferents converge on a single DCN neuron.
Thus, many DCN neurons are required to represent a given area of the skin on the fingertip. (5
marks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

State the purpose of this feature. Homunculus

A

Certain body regions that are especially important for function (hands, face) are over-
represented; i.e., receive disproportionate cortical allocation within the body map. (1 mark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define a “motor unit”.

A

Answer: an alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibres it innervates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain how motor neurons use a rate code to signal the amount of force to be exerted by a muscle.

A

An increase in the rate of action potentials fired by the motor neuron causes an increase in the amount
of force that the motor unit generates. When the motor neuron fires a single action potential, the muscle
twitches slightly, and then relaxes back to its resting state. If the motor neuron fires after the muscle
has returned to baseline, then the magnitude of the next muscle twitch will be the same as the first
twitch. However, if the rate of firing of the motor neuron increases, such that a second action potential
occurs before the muscle has relaxed back to baseline, then the second action potential produces a
greater amount of force than the first (i.e., the strength of the muscle contraction summates). With
increasing firing rates, the summation grows stronger, up to a limit, and when successive action
potentials no longer produce a summation of muscle contraction (because the muscle is at its
maximum state of contraction), the muscle is in a state called tetanus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the process of Wallerian degeneration and list the typical histological features that
accompany it.

A

(Degeneration of severed axons after injury. Proximal: chromatolysis, swelling of cell body. Distal:
degradation/phagocytosis of disconnected axon and associated myelin sheath by macrophages and
Schwann cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Outline the role of Schwann cells in the regeneration of peripheral nerves.

A

(Remove debris, provide growth promoting substrate and guidance for regenerating axon, promote
neuron survival by secreting neurotrophic factors, re-myelinate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the role of the three (3) major types of glia/supporting cells in the failure of axon
regeneration in the central nervous system.

A

(Oligodendrocytes: release/upregulation of neurite growth inhibitory proteins; astrocytes: glial scar
formation and upregulation of axon growth inhibitory proteoglycans; microglia: may further damage
and kill stressed neurons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the features of a CAT scan or/special investigations that would lead you to suggest a
patient is suffering from a metastasis to the brain.

A

i] primary tumour elsewhere : lung, colon, breast, renal, chorio
ii] multiple sites
iii] region of MCA territory [straightest course]
iv] located at grey/white matter interface
v] ring enhancing lesion : indicate its components
i] marked surrounding oedema [dark]
ii] circular area of contrast uptake [white]
iii] central necrosis [dark]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Insulin resistance may be associated with changes in muscle, adipose tissue, the vasculature, the liver
and even the brain. Briefly describe these changes for each system

A

Resistance to the suppressive effects of insulin on endogenous glucose production and the stimulatory
effects of insulin on peripheral glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis.
Decreased suppression of adipose tissue lipolysis by insulin, resulting in elevated circulating non-
esterified fatty acid (NEFA) levels.
Decreased vascular endothelial cell sensitivity to various actions of insulin, which include stimulating the
expression and activation of eNOS with consequent vasodilatation.
Insulin impacts on capillary recruitment to increase nutritive tissue perfusion, insulin resistance may
inhibit capillary recruitment.
Brain insulin action is required for physiological glucose homeostasis. Targeted impairments in insulin
receptors either in all neurons or specifically in the hypothalamus rapidly cause hyperphagia and diet-
dependent obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Consider the following metabolic “events” and the respective role of insulin and glucagon, for each.
Describe the role of insulin and glucagon for each metabolic event, tissue or process or indicate “no
effect”.

A

Fatty acid uptake and release in fat

Insulin: Stimulates synthesis of triglycerides (TG) from free fatty acids (FFA); inhibits release of FFA from TG.
Glucagon: Stimulates release of FFA from TG.
Liver glycogen

Insulin: Increases synthesis and thereby glucose uptake and and storage.
Glucagon: Stimulates glycogenolysis and glucose release.
Liver gluconeogenesis

Insulin: Inhibits, saves amino acids.
Glucagon: Stimulates, hepatic glucose synthesized and released.

17
Q

Describe the oral and injectable polio vaccines available today, and mention differences in immunity
acquired through the use of each.

A

Answer: Oral polio vaccine = live attenuated; 3 strains (1,2,3), with 2 eradicated, and 1+3 left in the
vaccine; IgA / mucosal / gut immunity also. IPV = inactivated, injected, 3 strains, humoral immunity
only.

18
Q

State when each of the polio vaccines is given in the public healthcare sector in South Africa.

A

Answer: OPV = birth + 6 weeks. IPV = 10 weeks, 14 weeks, 18 months.

19
Q

Briefly explain why the CSF glucose needs to be interpreted with a plasma glucose measurement.

A

CSF glucose is in equilibrium with blood glucose concentration [1] over the past 4 hours [½];
interpretation therefore requires knowledge of concurrent blood glucose [½].

20
Q

Name one test used to evaluate blood-brain barrier permeability.

A

CSF:plasma albumin ratio; or IgG index

21
Q

List four (4) biochemical abnormalities that occur in tumour lysis syndrome.

A

Hyperphosphataemia
Hyperkalaemia
Hyperuricaemia
Hypocalaemia
Metabolic acidosis

22
Q

List the names of the encepalopathic diseases that can be caused by measles through these different
pathophysiologic mechanisms. Explain how each is brought about, indicating for each whether or
not virus can be cultured from the brain

A

*Acute measles post-infectious encephalitis
*Measles inclusion body encephalitis
*Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

23
Q

List the four (4) most common types of support cells in the CNS and name their principal function

A

(Astrocytes, metabolic support; oligodendrocytes, myelination; microglia, immune defence; ependyma,
interface between CSF and brain tissue/movement of CSF)

24
Q

Name the anatomical structure that contains the cell bodies (somata) of primary somatosensory
neurons, and state how these neurons are classified in terms of their morphology

A

(Spinal/dorsal root ganglion; pseudo-unipolar)

25
Briefly describe the structure and function of the cell type after which the “Substantia Nigra” is named, give a unique diagnostic feature of these cells and state in what neurological disorder these cells play a key role
(Multipolar, dopamine-releasing neurons; modulate the activity of the direct and indirect pathways involved in motor control in the basal nuclei; contain neuromelanin pigment inclusions; Parkinson’s disease)
26
Define acute leukaemia.
Acute leukaemia is the presence of at least 20% blasts in the peripheral blood and/or bone marrow
27
State the cause of the patient’s bleeding.
Thrombocytopenia
28
State what is the most likely cause for the anaemia and the thrombocytopenia in this patient.
Bone marrow infiltration
29
Outline the systematic approach to further laboratory investigations that would aid you in reaching a definitive diagnosis and describe how each test would help you.
a. # Differential white cell count (determine the percentage of blasts and normal white blood cells) Need at least 20% blasts to make a diagnosis of acute leukemia b. # Peripheral blood smear (determine blast percentage and morphology, some morphological features such as presence of auer rods in blasts are pathognomic of Acute myeloid Leukemia c. # Cytochemistry (aids in differentiating between myeloid and lymphoid blasts – e.g. MPO and Sudan black are positive in myeloid leukemia blasts and negative in lymphoblasts etc d. # Flow cytometry (on peripheral blood and bone marrow aspirate samples. Utilises fluorescent antibodies against cytoplasmic and surface molecules/cluster of differentiation markers . This will determine the blast lineage (myeloid versus lymphoid), and stage of maturation e. #Cytogenetics (some leukemias are classified according to cytogenetic abnormalities, important for prognosis (poor versus good) f. #Molecular studies such as PCR (for cryptic translocations)
30
Outline three (3) prognostic features of AML.
a. # Cytogenetics of the malignanct cells (good vs poor) b. # Performance status of patient c. # Age of patient d. # Primary versus secondary AML e. # WCC at diagnosis f. # Response to induction chemotherapy
31
Describe the location, inputs and outputs (functions) of the reticular activating system and briefly describe why it is particularly vulnerable. You may include a diagram in your answer.
Reticular formations in pons and medulla. Inputs: special senses (vision, hearing). Output - thalamic nuclei - project to rest of cortex - regulate sleep/wakefulness/attentiveness. Muscle tone, HR, breathing, reflexes Location in hindbrain - herniation with raised ICP - compression/rupture of blood vessels.
32
Compare and contrast herpes simplex meningitis and herpes simplex encephalitis.
Answer: Meningitis: usually HSV-2 with genital reactivation; benign condition not needing treatment (except recurrent meningitis); also may be with HSV-2 primary genital herpes. Encephalitis: urgent acyclovir treatment; mortality high; permanent damage high; HSV-1 more common, worse than HSV- 2; viral replication in brain tissue, with preference for temporal lobe.
33
Name one antibiotic currently recommended for the empiric treatment of bacterial meningitis in South Africa.
Cefotaxime/ceftriaxone
34
Explain in terms of both antimicrobial spectrum and pharmacokinetics why this antibiotic is recommended.
Covers most common bacteria causing meningitis, including penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae. Good CSF penetration.
35
Outline two (2) critical principles regarding antibiotic treatment of meningitis.
Give first dose as soon as possible within 1-3 hours of arrival (1 mark) Give higher doses than normal (1 mark) (Give at correct time intervals/intravenous administration preferable to intramuscular- can get 1 mark for either of these as alternative to higher dose than normal)
36
Outline the public health response to a suspected case of meningococcal disease.
Every suspected case should prompt an urgent response to include: Immediate telephonic notification to the local health authority by a healthcare worker in the facility, followed by written notification. Rapid investigation of the case Classification of the case as confirmed or probable Provision of post exposure prophylaxis to close contacts Identification of other cases in the same institution or community that may suggest a cluster.
37