Parasitology final exam Flashcards

(216 cards)

1
Q

In the bacterial name Borrelia burgdorferi, what does burgdorferi represent?

A

Species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is more prevalent in

A

The southeastern US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The etiologic agent of lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an important function of bacterial flagella?

A

Locomotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What parasite has only the cat as its definitive host?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The most common portal of entry for microorganisms into the body is:

A

Respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are found in what part of the body?

A

Intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Kittens are most likely to get roundworms (toxocara) by what route?

A

Transmammary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is:

A

Skin penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In appearance, hookworm ova resemble

A

Strongyle ova

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Finding proglottids around a dog’s anus indicates infection with:

A

Tapeworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The intermediate host for heartworms is the:

A

Mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Serology tests can detect heartworm in a dog’s blood:

A

Several months after becoming infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Heartworm treatment begins with killing the:

A

Adult worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is not a type of coccidian:

A

Giardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two diagnostic forms of Giardia?

A

Cysts and trophozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compared to a roundworm ova, coccidian appear:

A

Smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The roundworm of horses is:

A

Parascaris spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The difference in appearance between small and large strongyle ova in horses is:

A

None, they look alike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ruminant ova such as Haemonchus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus, and Cooperia resemble canine:

A

Hookworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following protozoan parasite of cattle causes abortion or fetal resorption:

A

Tritrichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which intracellular parasite appears fairly large, paired and teardrop shaped when viewed microscopically?

A

Babesia canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An intracellular parasite, which appears as a structure called morula, found in the cytoplasm of leukocytes, is:

A

Ehrlichia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What ectoparasite is barely visible to the naked eye?

A

Mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which of these is a non-burrowing mange mite?
Psoroptes cuniculi
26
What ectoparasite has zoonotic potential?
Sarcoptes
27
Which statement regarding demodex is false?
It is highly contagious True - Not highly contagious, live mites and/or eggs may be found in skin scrapings, it is cigar shaped, resides in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands of certain mammals
28
The genus that is commonly known as the fur mite is:
Cheyletiella spp
29
The sarcoptic mange mite of the guinea pig is:
Trixocarus caviae
30
What tick is a soft tick?
Otobius
31
Which of the following parasite ova is collected using a cellophane tape method?
Oxyuris
32
What tick is the vector for lyme disease?
Ixodes scapularis
33
It is possible to differentiate between suckling lice and chewing lice by which of the following features?
Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas suckling lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax
34
An ectoparasite known both for its host specificity and site specificity is the:
Louse
35
The parasite that is distinguished by white operculated eggs that are cemented to the hairs of its hosts is the:
Louse
36
A buffy coat examination for microfilaria can be made in conjunction with what other hematologic procedure?
Packed cell volume
37
What can the ELISA heartworm test detect that the Difil cannot?
Occult infection
38
A local airy farmer has just acquired some livestock from Louisiana and is concerned that they may have Fasciola hepatica. What fecal examination method will give you the best chance of finding the eggs of this parasite?
Sedimentation
39
In what host do the sexually mature adult parasites live?
Definitive
40
Unlike a histologic section, a wet mount of parasite eggs is three dimensional, therefore when examining the slide under the microscope you must:
Continually adjust the focus to view all objects
41
What major disadvantage is common to both the direct smear and fecal sedimentation methods of fecal examination?
Fecal debris will make microscopic examination difficult
42
The modified Knott technique for microfilaria has what two additives for ease of heartworm diagnosis?
Formalin and new methylene blue stain
43
Tapeworm infections are most often diagnosed in small animals by which of the following methods?
Gross examination
44
The least sensitive diagnostic test for finding microfilariae is:
Direct examination of blood
45
What pair of parasites differs in morphology and size?
Ancylostoma vs Toxascaris
46
What is not a concentration method for parasite ova detection?
Fecal flotation
47
Fecal specimens should be examined routinely with what objective?
10x
48
What is the minimum number of minutes a fecal flotation should stand before examination?
10 minutes
49
The instrument specifically designed to collect a fecal sample directly from the animal's rectum is a:
Fecal loop
50
In what analysis could heartworm microfilariae appear as an incidental finding?
Differential
51
The fecal solution most likely to be successful in detecting Giardia cysts is:
Zinc sulfate
52
What is the main reason that flotation solutions with specific gravities over 1.300 are not commonly used?
They tend to distort ova
53
A 4 year old dog has a chronic cough and the veterinarian has included Filaroides on his list of possible diagnoses. What is the common name of this parasite?
Lungworm
54
Which of the following nematodes are characterized by an ovoid egg with a thin shell and a morulated embryo?
Ancylostoma caninum
55
A method for diagnosing Cheyletiella is:
Cellophane tape method
56
A wood's lamp is used to examine an animal for the presence of:
Ringworm
57
Transmission of coccidia occurs by:
Ingesting oocysts
58
The causative agent of Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
59
Which of these ectoparasites is zoonotic?
Sarcoptes
60
Which of the following mites is commonly found in rabbits and large animals?
Psoroptes
61
What endoparasite larva causes creeping eruptions in humans?
Hookworm
62
What parasite can cause blockage of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses?
Strongylus vulgaris
63
Lyme disease is transmitted via?
Deer tick
64
What is a tick-borne organism found in dogs?
Ehrlichia
65
Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice?
Pediculosis
66
What does the occult heartworm test actually detect?
Immature female heartworms
67
What mite is most damaging to cattle?
Psoroptes
68
Which of the following is a tapeworm seen in horses?
Anoplocephala
69
A skin scraping is used to diagnose what parasite?
Notoedres
70
Which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm?
Hydatid cyst
71
What protozoan parasite causes venereal disease in cattle?
Tritrichomonas
72
What parasite uses snails as intermediate hosts?
Paragonimus
73
What equine parasite produces microfilariase, which causes patchy alopecia and depigmentation?
Onchocerca
74
What heartworm diagnostic test uses a concentration technique that increases the chance of microfilariae?
Filtration test (Difil)
75
What canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic?
Spirocirca
76
Which of the following parasites is not zoonotic?
Dipylidium
77
Observing a "zippy" motility in fresh feces is used to help diagnose the presence of what parasite?
Tritrichomonas
78
What fly is responsible for the greatest economic losses in US cattle?
Horn Fly
79
What parasite causes malaria?
Plasmodium
80
What fecal flotation solution is recommended when looking for Giardia cysts?
Zinc sulfate
81
Visceral larval migrans is caused by the larvae of:
Toxocara canis
82
Proglottids are produced by what parasite?
Tapeworm
83
What lungworm is found in cats?
Capillaria aerophila
84
What is the least likely way of transmitting Toxoplasma to a human?
Skin penetration
85
The fecal sedimentation technique is often needed to diagnose the presence of what bovine parasite?
Fasciola hepatica
86
What small animal parasite ova resemble strongyle ova in horses?
Hookworm
87
Stomach bots are common is horses, but where are bots found in sheep?
Nasal passages
88
Occult heartworm infections are those in which:
Microfilariae are absent
89
What parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals?
Hookworm
90
What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs?
Sarcoptes
91
Myiasis is an infestation of:
Flies
92
What causes the sensitivity of the occult heartworm test to decrease?
Male worms only
93
Which statement is true about Dirofilaria infection in the cat?
The lifespan of the heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs
94
What adult parasite would be described as having a slender anterior end with its mouth at the tip and a thickened posterior extremity?
Whipworm
95
Trematodes are
Flukes
96
A gravid proglottid is:
A tapeworm segment filled with eggs
97
When an isospora oocyst is infective, how many sporozoites does is contain?
8
98
Which of these is a coccidian organism?
Cryptosporidium
99
A quick check for Dirofilaria immitis using a spun hematocrit tube involves microscopically viewing the border between the:
Plasma and buffy coat
100
Dirofilaria immitis adults have not been found in the:
Subcutaneous tissues
101
Which of these is not characteristic of Dirofilaria immitis:
curved tail IS characteristic: 310 u long, straight tail, tapered head
102
Cheyletiella spp are:
Mites
103
Which of the following is not a fecal flotation medium:
Potassium hydroxide Zinc sulfate, sodium nitrate, and sugar solution ARE fecal flotation mediums
104
Which of these is not a stage of a protozoan life cycle?
Trophite Rophozoite, Cyst, and Oocysts ARE stages
105
What are the tips of Trichuris vulpis ova called?
Opercula
106
Paragonimus kellicotti is a:
Fluke
107
Which is not detected using ELISA technology:
Fibrinogen
108
Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ____ of dogs.
Right kidney
109
The adult form of the parasite _______ is a fly, and the larval stage is an endoparasite.
Gasterophilus
110
Bots are:
Fly larvae
111
Nits are:
Lice eggs
112
What parasite could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking?
Strongylus vulgaris
113
Mrs. T brings her dog to your clinic for routine vaccinations and tells you she thinks her dog has ear problems. A smear from the ear reveals yeast. What is the genus of the most common cause of mycotic (fungal) otitis externa?
Malassezia
114
What equine parasite produces microfilaria?
Setaria equine
115
What parasite is the equine pinworm?
Oxyuris equi
116
Where in an adult cow would you expect to find adult Haemonchus spp parasites?
Abomasum
117
What is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes?
Babesia
118
What bovine erythrocyte parasite resembles Haemobartonella felis in cats?
Anaplasma
119
Haemobartonella felis is seen most commonly in the erythrocytes of:
Cats
120
Which of the following parasites is a tapeworm:
Paranoplocephala mamillana
121
Which of these parasites is classified as coccidian?
Cryptosporidium parvum
122
The definitive host for Baylisascaris procyonis is:
Raccoons
123
What resistant stage of a protozoan is usually passed in feces?
Cyst
124
Trophozoites and cyst forms are associated with:
Protozoans
125
Dipylidium caninum is a:
Cestode
126
Fasciola hepatica is a:
Trematode
127
All of the following are blood-born parasites, but which one does not belong in the same classification group as the other 3?
Dirofilaria spp Haemobartonella, Toxoplasma, and Anaplasma are all single celled
128
Flotation solutions usually have a specific gravity between:
1.200 and 1.250
129
What method does not concentrate the ova?
Direct smear Centrifugal flotation, simple flotation, and sedimentation all concentrate the ova
130
What method favors detection of fluke ova?
Sedimentation
131
What is unique about fluke ova that require a special detection procedure?
They have a higher specific gravity than most other ova
132
Cellophane tape is traditionally used to detect the ova of _______ in horses.
Pinworms
133
Which of the following is not a fecal flotation solution:
sodium sulfate Sodium nitrate, sodium chloride, and sugar ARE used as fecal flotation solutions
134
To examine for trophozoites, it is best to use a mixture of fresh feces and:
Zinc sulfate
135
A puppy infected with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heartworm microfilariae until it is _____ months old.
6-7 months old
136
The ELISA heartworm test kit detects the antigens of:
Female adult heartworms
137
Dirofilaria immitis is a:
Nematode
138
Otodectes cynotis is a:
Arthropod (ear mite)
139
Transmission of lice is mostly via:
Direct contact
140
A dog becomes infected with Dipylidium caninum by ingestion of:
Infected fleas
141
A spurious parasite infection would occur if:
Moniezia expansa ova were seen in canine feces.
142
In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for:
Toxocara
143
The most common intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis is a:
Rabbit
144
The parasite whose adults resemble a whip and whose eggs have bipolar plugs is:
Trichuris vulpis
145
Taenia eggs closely resemble the eggs of:
Echinococcus
146
The genus of the tapeworm that releases its eggs in packets is:
Dipylidium
147
Trichophyon metagrophytes causes _____ in cats.
Ringworm
148
Pediculosis is an infestation of:
Lice
149
In people, Toxocara canis is the causative agent of:
Visceral larval migrans
150
A large ciliate protozoa that may be found in swine feces is:
Balantidium spp
151
The parasite also known as the brown dog tick is:
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
152
The parasite also known as a winter tick:
Dermacentor albipictus
153
The parasite known as the American dog tick is:
Dermacentor variabilis
154
The parasite also known as the deer tick:
Ixodes dammini
155
The parasite that lives in ears is:
Otodectes spp
156
The parasite that lives on the skin's surface is:
Chorioptes spp
157
The parasite that burrows into the skin is:
Sarcoptes spp
158
The parasite that lives in hair follicles is:
Demodex spp
159
Which stage of the tick life cycle has 6 legs?
larval
160
A flea is the intermediate host for:
Dipylidium caninum
161
A rabbit is the intermediate host for:
Taenia pisiformis
162
Cheyletiella mites use ______ as their hosts.
Dogs, cats, and rabbits
163
Infection of this parasite is via skin penetration.
Strongyloides stercoralis
164
People may serve as the intermediate host of:
Echinococcus granulosus
165
What parasite ova have a single operculum?
Alaria spp
166
What parasite ova have a single operculum?
Alaria spp
167
What parasite ova have 3 pairs of hooklets?
Moniezia spp
168
What parasite ova have bipolar plugs?
Trichuris spp
169
What parasite ova have radial striations?
Taenia spp
170
Fish are intermediate hosts of what parasite?
Diphyllobothrium spp
171
What parasite has ova found in sputum?
Paragonimus spp
172
The double pore tapeworm is:
Dipylidium caninum
173
The parasite that infects the liver of its host is:
Fasciola spp
174
The parasite whose larvae encyst in the subcutaneous tissue of rabbits is:
Cuterebra spp
175
The parasite whose eggs are cemented to the hair of horses is:
Gasterophilus spp
176
The parasite whose larvae form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the back of cattle is:
Hypoderma spp
177
The parasite whose larvae enter the nasal cavity of sheep is:
Oestrus spp
178
What parasite completes its life cycle on or in its host:
Otodectes spp
179
What species causes a disease known as walking dandruff:
Cheyletiella spp
180
Scabies is caused by:
Sarcoptes spp
181
The parasite also known as the hookworm is:
Bunostomum spp
182
The parasite also known as the stomach hair worm is:
Trichostrongylus spp
183
The parasite also known as the brown stomach worm is:
Ostertagia spp
184
The parasite also known as the barber's worm is:
Haemonchus spp
185
Choose the correct size sequence, from largest ova to smallest ova:
Nematodirus, Trichostrongylus, Strongyloides, Eimeria
186
The parasite found in the abomasal gastric glands of ruminants is:
Ostertagia spp
187
The parasite that sucks blood in the abomasum of ruminants is:
Haemonchus spp
188
The parasite that matures in the lungs is:
Dictyocaulus spp
189
The parasite that forms nodules in the intestinal mucosa is:
Oesophagostomum spp
190
The most common parasite found in pigs is:
Ascaris spp
191
A client has found a large number of roundworms in her puppy's feces at home. A logical explanation might be:
The dog has been treated recently for roundworms
192
Choose the correct size sequence, from smallest to largest ova:
Isospora, Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, Toxocara
193
Anemia in puppies is most likely associated with infection with:
Ancylostoma spp
194
A common sign of giardiasis is
Chronic diarrhea
195
The parasite also known as a liver fluke is:
Fasciola spp
196
The parasite also known as a lung fluke is:
Paragonimus spp
197
The parasite also known as the lung worm is:
Capillaria spp
198
Trichuris ova most resemble the ova of
Capillaria spp
199
Skin penetration is a means of entry into a host by:
Ancylostoma spp
200
A chewing louse of dogs is:
Trichodectes spp
201
A chewing louse of cats is:
Felicola spp
202
A sucking louse of cattle is:
Haematopinus spp
203
A chewing louse of cattle is:
Damalinia spp
204
The genus name for the spinose ear tick is:
Otobius
205
What species is not parasitized by pinworms?
Dogs
206
An intestinal fluke is:
Alaria spp
207
The parasite also known as lungworm is:
Metastrongylus spp
208
The parasite known as a kidney worm is:
Stephanurus spp
209
Which statement concerning fleas is true?
Flea dirt is flea feces
210
The parasite that causes generalized pruritis is:
Melophagus spp
211
The parasite that causes creeping eruption in people is:
Ancylostoma spp
212
A gravid proglottid would be found in a:
tapeworm
213
The parasite that causes feline scabies is:
Notoedres spp
214
The parasite that is a protozoan is:
Cryptosporidium spp
215
A sucking louse is a/an:
Arthropod
216
Which of these parasites is a mite?
Psoroptes spp