Part 1 Flashcards

(159 cards)

1
Q

A customer buys a NASDAQ stock in a principal transaction at $79 plus a $1 mark-up. Which statement is TRUE?

The cost basis for tax purposes is $78 per share
The cost basis for tax purposes is $79 per share
The cost basis for tax purposes is $80 per share
The trade will be reported to the tape at $80 per share

A

For tax purposes, any commissions or mark-ups charged to buy stock are considered to be part of the cost basis (therefore, they are not deductible). The cost basis is $79 plus $1 mark-up = $80 per share.

The trade is reported to the tape exclusive of commissions or mark-ups, which are added well after the trade occurs. Remember, all trades are reported within 10 seconds, and the trade is reported at $79 per share.

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Secondary Market?

First Market
Primary Market
Second Market
Third Market

A

The Primary Market is the sale of new issues for the first time; no trading takes place in the Primary Market

The First Market is trading of exchange listed security’s on the exchange floor

The Second Market is trading of securities that are not exchange listed in the over-the-counter market

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3
Q

Quotes from the market centers in AMEX (NYSE American) listed securities are found on (the):

UQDF (UTP Quote Data Feed)
ADF (Alternate Display Facility)
CQS (Consolidated Quotations Service)
Pink Sheets

A

CQS aggregates and displays quotes for all the market makers in exchange listed issues - both NYSE and AMEX

UQDF aggregates and displays quotes for all market makers in NASDAQ

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4
Q

The individual who make a secondary market in corporate bonds include all of the following EXCEPT

Market Makers
Traders
Underwriters
Dealers

A

The secondary market is the trading of issues outstanding in the market. The individual making the secondary market are the market makers (aka dealers) and traders

Underwriters take new issues public in the primary market (new issues), not the secondary (trading) market.

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5
Q

Typically, a dual listed stock is one that trades in:

The First and Third Markets
The Second and Third Markets
The Third and Forth Markets
multiple First Markets

A

A dual listed stock is one that is listed on more than one exchange, and any exchange is a First Market. A typical dual listed stock is listed on both the NYSE and a smaller regional exchange. There is no such thing as a dual listing between an exchange and the Third or Fourth Markets. Both the Third and Fourth Markets do not have “listings”

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6
Q

Traditionally, First Market trading occurred in a(n):

Auction market
Negotiated market
Unregulated market
Primary market

A

The first market is trading of listed stocks on the floor of an exchange. Exchanges started as pure auction markets, where an open outcry auction determined the price of a stock. With the advent of computerized trading, the NYSE is now a “hybrid” market that offers both a computerized matching market and an auction market that is done both electronically and manually.

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7
Q

An unpriced order that is routed to a securities trading venue is a:

market order and is filled immediately
market order and is not guaranteed a fill
limit order and is filled immediately
limit order and is not guaranteed a fill

A

Market orders are first in line to be filled at the current market price. The order will be executed, but the execution price is unknown (through it should be close to the price of the last reported trade).

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8
Q

A customer places an order to buy bonds. The order reads “Buy 5M ABC 9s M ‘35 @ 90 GTC.” At which of the following prices may the order be executed?

90 or below
90 only
90 or above
Below 90 since the “all in” price of 90 must include and commission or mark-up under Guaranteed To Client (GTC) rules

A

The customer places a limit order to buy 5M - or 5 $1,000 par bonds at 90% of par value or less, if possible. The order must be executed at 90% or less. If executed, the customer is buying $5,000 par value of bonds at 90% = $4,500 or less. GTC is a qualifier that means Good ‘Til Cancelled.

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9
Q

To limit loss on a long stock position, the appropriate order to place is a:

buy stop order
sell stop order
buy limit order
sell limit order

A

To limit loss on a long stock position, the investor wants to sell if the market drops. To sell in a falling market, the appropriate order is a sell stop order. A sell limit order is used to sell in a rising market, and thus is not appropriate.

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10
Q

A sell stop order is executed in:

falling markets at the price specified
falling markets at the market price
rising markets at the price specified
rising markets at the market price

A

A sell stop order is an order to sell at a price that is lower than the current market. It is used to stop a loss on a long stock position, by selling out as the market falls. The “stop” price is a trigger, that, once hit, “elects” the order and turns it into a market order to sell. Thus, the actual execution price is unknown - it will be at the prevailing market.

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11
Q

Which of the following securities is NOT traded in the secondary market?

Preferred Stocks
American Depositary Receipts
Mutual Funds
Municipal Bonds

A

Equities - common stock, preferred stock, and American Depositary Receipts trade on exchanges and are traded “over-the-counter.” Municipal and U.S. Government bonds are traded “over-the-counter.” There is no trading of mutual fund shares - these are redeemable securities that are redeemable with the sponsor.

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12
Q

What is the cost basis to the recipient of an inherited mutual fund position?

The cost basis of the deceased person
the net asset value as of the date of death of the deceased person
The market value as of the date the recipient liquidates the position
The greater of the cost basis of the deceased person or the net asset value as of the date of death

A

One benefit built into the tax code is the inherited securities are given a new cost basis to the recipient, using the date of death to value the securities

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13
Q

Which statement is TRUE about an order to: Buy 100 ABC @ 45 Stop 50 Limit?

The order is elected at $45 or higher and executed at $50 or higher
The order is elected at $45 or higher and executed at $50 or lower
The order is elected at $45 or lower and executed at $50 or higher
The order is elected at $45 or lower and executed at $50 or lower

A

This is a Buy Stop Limit order. Buy Stop orders are placed higher than the current market, and are filled as the market rises. The guidelines of the stop price must be adhered to first. A buy stop is elected as the market rises to the stop price ($45) or higher. As soon as the market hits $45 or higher, the order is elected, and turns into a limit order to buy at the limit price of $50. An order to buy at $50 means to buy at $50 or lower. Thus, the order is elected at $45 or higher; and executed at $50 or lower.

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14
Q

Sell limit orders:

are used to sell securities at prices that are lower than the current market price
are used by clients seeking rapid executions
guarantee a specific execution price or better
guarantee a fill by the end of that trading day

A

Sell limit specify a minimum sale price. They are used to sell securities at prices that are higher than the current market. They may only be filled at the limit price or higher - so they do guarantee a specific execution price or better. That said, if the price never reaches the limit, there is no guarantee of an execution.

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15
Q

All of the following information must be on an order ticket before it can be entered EXCEPT:

execution price if the order is not a market order
amount of accrued interest to be paid
size of the transaction
customer account name and/or number

A

The amount of accrued interest is calculated after a bond trade is executed - it is not on the order ticket that is used to enter the order. The ticket must include the size of the trade, desired execution price, and customer identification.

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16
Q

An unpriced order that is routed to a securities trading venue is a:

market order and is filled immediately
market order and is not guaranteed a fill
limit order and is filled immediately
limit order and is not guaranteed a fill

A

Market orders are first in line to be filled at the current market price. The order will be executed, but the execution price is unknown (through it should be close to the price of the last reported trade).

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17
Q

A buy limit order is executed when the market is:

falling at or below the limit price
falling at or above the limit price
rising at or below the limit price
rising at or above the limit price

A

A buy limit order is an order to buy at a price that is lower than the current market. The limit is the maximum price at which the customer will buy. (Remember the old adage: Buy Low; Sell High - that’s how limit orders are placed in the market)

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18
Q

Prior to the opening of the options exchange, an investor wishes to place an order to sell an option contract at a premium that is higher than the previous day’s close. The order type to be placed is a(n):

At the open order
Limit order
Stop order
Not Held order

A

The orders that are placed higher than the current market are “OSLOBS” - Open Sell Limits and Open Buy Stops. Thus, to sell at a price higher than the current market, an open sell limit order would be placed.

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19
Q

All of the following statements are correct about sell limit orders EXCEPT:

These orders may be placed GTC with the broker
These orders are placed above the current market value
All executions will be equal to, or higher than, the limit price
These orders are executed if the market falls

A

Sell limit orders are placed above the current market value and are executed if the market rises to a price equal to or higher than the limit. Limit orders may be placed as either GTC or Day orders.

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20
Q

Sell limit orders:

are used to sell securities at prices that are lower than the current market price
are used by clients seeking rapid executions
guarantee a specific execution price or better
guarantee a fill by the end of that trading day

A

Sell limit specify a minimum sale price. They are used to sell securities at prices that are higher than the current market. They may only be filled at the limit price or higher - so they do guarantee a specific execution price or better. That said, if the price never reaches the limit, there is no guarantee of an execution.

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21
Q

All of the following statements are true about stop orders EXCEPT:

A. Buy stop orders can accelerate price advances in bull markets
B. Sell stop orders can accelerate price declines in bear markets
C. Buy stop orders limit losses on short stock positions
Sell stop orders limit losses on short stock positions

A

Buy stop orders are placed above the market and are triggered as the market rises. If there is a large pool of buy stop orders at a certain price, when the market hits that level, they are triggered and become market orders to buy - fueling the rise in the market.

Sell stop orders are placed below the market and are triggered as the market falls. If there is a large pool of sell stop orders at a certain price, when the market hits that level, they are triggered and become market orders to sell - fueling the drop in the market.

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22
Q

To limit loss on a long stock position, the appropriate order to place is a:

buy stop order
sell stop order
buy limit order
sell limit order

A

To limit loss on a long stock position, the investor wants to sell if the market drops. To sell in a falling market, the appropriate order is a sell stop order. A sell limit order is used to sell in a rising market, and thus is not appropriate.

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23
Q

Which statement is TRUE about an order to: Buy 100 ABC @ 45 Stop?

The order is elected at 45 or higher and can only be executed at 45
The order is elected at 45 or higher and becomes a market order once elected
The order is elected at 45 or lower and can only be executed at 45
The order is elected at 45 or lower and becomes a market order once elected

A

Buy Stop orders are placed above the current market and are elected (triggered) as the market moves up to the stop price or higher. As soon as the order is elected, it becomes a market order and is executed based on its standing in the market order queue.

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24
Q

A buy stop order is executed in:

falling markets at the price specified
falling markets at the market price
rising markets at the price specified
rising markets at the market price

A

A buy stop order is an order to buy at a price that is higher than the current market. It is used to stop a loss on a short stock position, by buying in as the market rises. The “stop” price is a trigger, that, once hit, “elects” the order and turns it into a market order to buy. Thus, the actual execution price in unknown - it will be at the prevailing market.

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25
A customer has asked his registered representative to sell 100 XYZ if the market falls to 50, but he does not want to sell for less than 45. This type of order is a: stop order limit order **stop limit order** split order
The order is a stop limit order - the customer wishes to sell if the market falls to $50 per share (this is the stop price). If the market falls to $50 or lower, the order is elected and becomes a limit order to sell at $45, meaning that the customer wants at least $45 per share to sell.
26
In a falling market, which orders will be executed? Open Buy Stops and Open Sell Stops Open Buy Limits and Open Sell Limits Open Sell Limits and Open Buy Stops **Open Buy Limits and Open Sell Stops**
The orders that are executed if the market drops are “OBLOSS” - Open Buy Limits and Open Sell Stops. The orders that are executed in a rising market are “OSLOBS” - Open Sell Limits and Open Buy Stops.
27
Which of the following is NOT part of the Secondary Market? First Market **Primary Market** Second Market Third Market
The Primary Market is the sale of new issues for the first time; no trading takes place in the Primary Market. The First Market is trading of exchange listed securities on that exchange floor. The Second Market is trading of securities that are not exchange listed in the over-the-counter market. The Third Market is trading of exchange listed securities in the over the counter market.
28
The Secondary Market is divided into how many submarkets? 2 3 **4** 5
The Secondary Market is divided into 4 subcategories: the First Market; the Second Market; Third Market; and the Fourth Market.
29
The First Market is trading of: **listed securities on an exchange** OTCBB securities “over-the-counter” listed securities “over-the-counter” securities directly between institutions
The First Market is trading of listed stocks on an organized stock exchange - like the NYSE, AMEX (now renamed the “NYSE American”), or NASDAQ. Exchanges have listing standards for the companies that trade there and accessible order books, where orders can be posted and traded against.
30
Which first market does NOT trade stocks? NYSE AMEX (NYSE American) PHLX **CBOT**
The NYSE trades stocks. The AMEX and PHLX trade stocks and stock options. (The AMEX is a wholly owned subsidiary of the NYSE, and it has renamed its equities market “NYSE American,” while its options market is still called the AMEX.) The CBOT - Chicago Board of Trade - is not a securities exchange. Rather, it is a futures market.
31
All of the following are trades that take place in the Second Market EXCEPT trades of: OTCBB securities Municipal bonds U.S. Government bonds **NYSE listed securities on the exchange floor**
The Second Market is OTC (over-the-counter) trading of securities that are not listed on an exchange. For equities, the Second Market is the OTCBB (Over-The-Counter Bulletin Board) and the Pink OTC Markets. Also, virtually the entire debt market is “OTC” - including the Treasury market, municipal bond market, and the corporate bond market (only a tiny amount of corporate bonds are traded on exchanges).
32
The Second Market is the: **trading of OTCBB stocks** issuance of listed stocks trading of listed stocks on the floor of an exchange issuance of listed and unlisted stocks
The Second Market is over-the-counter trading of securities that are not listed on a stock exchange. For equities, the Second Market is the OTCBB (Over-The-Counter Bulletin Board) and the Pink OTC Markets.
33
The trading of listed securities over-the-counter occurs in the: First Market Second Market **Third Market** Primary Market
The trading markets are: First Market: Trading of exchange listed securities on stock exchanges Second Market: Trading of unlisted securities over-the-counter Third Market: Trading of exchange listed securities over-the-counter The Primary Market is where new issues are sold (not traded).
34
The “Third Market” is trading of: **listed securities over-the-counter** listed securities on stock exchanges unlisted securities over-the-counter unlisted securities solely on regional stock exchanges
The trading markets are: First Market: Trading of exchange listed securities on stock exchanges Second Market: Trading of unlisted securities over-the-counter Third Market: Trading of exchange listed securities over-the-counter
35
The Fourth Market is direct trading of securities between: brokers buying for their own accounts NYSE customers NASDAQ customers **institutions**
The Fourth Market is direct trading of securities between institutions on ECNs (Electronic Communications Networks) such as Instinet or Archipelago. The systems bypass brokerage firms, and therefore brokerage commissions. Instead, the ECN charges a small matching fee.
36
ECNs trade securities during regular NYSE market hours between 9:00 AM and 9:00 PM **24 hours a day** only when the primary trading markets are closed
ECNs - Electronic Communications Networks - only accept orders for actively traded securities - that is, NYSE listed and NASDAQ stocks. Essentially they are electronic matching services, matching customer buy and sell orders for a very low fee (often as low as $1 per trade). ECNs do a lot of their volume when the major exchanges are closed - since these venues stay open 24 hours a day.
37
Which of the following securities is NOT traded in the secondary market? Preferred Stocks American Depositary Receipts **Mutual Funds** Municipal Bonds
Equities - common stock, preferred stock, and American Depositary Receipts trade on exchanges and are traded “over-the-counter.” Municipal and U.S. Government bonds are traded “over-the-counter.” There is no trading of mutual fund shares - these are redeemable securities that are redeemable with the sponsor.
38
All of the following information must be on an order ticket before it can be entered EXCEPT: execution price if the order is not a market order **amount of accrued interest to be paid** size of the transaction customer account name and/or number
The amount of accrued interest is calculated after a bond trade is executed - it is not on the order ticket that is used to enter the order. The ticket must include the size of the trade, desired execution price, and customer identification.
39
An unpriced order that is routed to a securities trading venue is a: **market order and is filled immediately** market order and is not guaranteed a fill limit order and is filled immediately limit order and is not guaranteed a fill
Market orders are first in line to be filled at the current market price. The order will be executed, but the execution price is unknown (through it should be close to the price of the last reported trade).
40
Prior to the opening of the options exchange, an investor wishes to place an order to sell an option contract at a premium that is higher than the previous day’s close. The order type to be placed is a(n): At the open order **Limit order** Stop order Not Held order
The orders that are placed higher than the current market are “OSLOBS” - Open Sell Limits and Open Buy Stops. Thus, to sell at a price higher than the current market, an open sell limit order would be placed.
41
A customer places an order to sell bonds. The order reads “Sell 5M ABC 9s M ‘35 @ 90 GTC.” The customer has entered a: stop order to sell at 90 **limit order to sell at 90** market order to sell stop limit order to sell
Since a price is specified with no other qualifications, this is a limit order to sell $5,000 face amount (“5M”) of 9% bonds maturing in 2035. Since a price is specified with no other qualifications, this is a limit order to sell. The customer wants to sell for 90% of par or more. Open sell limit orders are executed if the market rises.
42
All of the following statements are correct about sell limit orders EXCEPT: These orders may be placed GTC with the broker These orders are placed above the current market value All executions will be equal to, or higher than, the limit price **These orders are executed if the market falls**
Sell limit orders are placed above the current market value and are executed if the market rises to a price equal to or higher than the limit. Limit orders may be placed as either GTC or Day orders.
43
Sell limit orders: are used to sell securities at prices that are lower than the current market price are used by clients seeking rapid executions **guarantee a specific execution price or better** guarantee a fill by the end of that trading day
Sell limit specify a minimum sale price. They are used to sell securities at prices that are higher than the current market. They may only be filled at the limit price or higher - so they do guarantee a specific execution price or better. That said, if the price never reaches the limit, there is no guarantee of an execution.
44
All of the following statements are true about stop orders EXCEPT: Buy stop orders can accelerate price advances in bull markets Sell stop orders can accelerate price declines in bear markets Buy stop orders limit losses on short stock positions **Sell stop orders limit losses on short stock positions**
Buy stop orders are placed above the market and are triggered as the market rises. If there is a large pool of buy stop orders at a certain price, when the market hits that level, they are triggered and become market orders to buy - fueling the rise in the market. Sell stop orders are placed below the market and are triggered as the market falls. If there is a large pool of sell stop orders at a certain price, when the market hits that level, they are triggered and become market orders to sell - fueling the drop in the market. Buy stop orders can be used to buy in short stock positions as the market rises, cutting losses. Conversely, sell stop orders can be used to sell out long stock positions in falling markets, cutting losses.
45
To limit loss on a long stock position, the appropriate order to place is a: buy stop order **sell stop order** buy limit order sell limit order
To limit loss on a long stock position, the investor wants to sell if the market drops. To sell in a falling market, the appropriate order is a sell stop order. A sell limit order is used to sell in a rising market, and thus is not appropriate.
46
An OTC confirmation that discloses the remuneration to be received by the member and which makes available to the customer the name of the contra-broker is required for: Non-NASDAQ principal trades **Non-NASDAQ agency trades** position trades primary trades
Commissions must be disclosed for agency trades; also the name of the contra broker and time of the trade must be made available to the customer upon written request. In a principal transaction, the mark-up is included in a net price and is disclosed for NASDAQ securities transactions (but it is NOT disclosed for non-NASDAQ OTC securities transactions). The mark-up, or commission, must be fair and reasonable
47
Which of the following is NOT disclosed on a customer confirmation? Commission if an agency trade **Inventory position of the dealer** Mark-up if a principal transaction Amount of accrued interest for a bond trade
The confirmation does not disclose the inventory position of the dealer - this has no bearing on the customer.
48
All of the following must be disclosed on municipal bond trade confirmation **EXCEPT**: “In Whole” call dates For revenue bonds, the source of revenue backing the issue For industrial revenue bonds, the name of the corporation guaranteeing the issue **For general obligation bonds, the source of income backing the issue**
There is no requirement to disclose the source of income backing a general obligation issue because it must be taxing power. The MSRB does require that the type of revenue backing a revenue bond issue be disclosed, as well as the name of the corporate guarantor for industrial revenue bonds. “In Whole” call dates must also be disclosed on customer confirmations, since they can affect the pricing of the issue under MSRB rules (the MSRB requires that if a bond quoted on a yield basis is trading at a premium, and if it is callable “in whole” at preset dates and prices, then the dollar price must be computed to the call date rather than to the maturity date, since it will most likely be called).
49
All of the following must be disclosed on a municipal agency confirmation EXCEPT: commission **tax equivalent yield** yield basis redemption date used to compute dollar price
There is no requirement that the tax equivalent yield be disclosed on a municipal confirmation. The commission in an agency trade, the yield basis upon which the trade was effected, and the redemption date used to compute the dollar price must all be disclosed
50
All of the following information appears on a municipal bond trade confirmation EXCEPT: Agency or principal capacity **Paying agent name** Broker-dealer name Accrued interest
Paying agent name does not appear on a bond confirmation. The name of the broker-dealer, the accrued interest, and the capacity in which the transaction was executed, all appear
51
All of the following must be disclosed on municipal bond trade confirmations **EXCEPT**: In Whole call dates For industrial revenue bonds, the name of the corporation guaranteeing the issue For revenue bonds, the source of revenue backing the issue **For general obligation bonds, the source of income backing the issue**
“In Whole” call dates, where the entire issue is callable at preset dates and prices, must be disclosed on customer confirmations under MSRB rules. The MSRB requires the corporate guarantor for industrial revenue bonds and that the type of revenue backing a revenue bond issue be disclosed. There is no requirement to disclose the source of income backing a general obligation issue because it must be taxing power
52
All of the following information must be shown on a municipal bond trade confirmation EXCEPT: Name, address, and telephone number of the municipal dealer Whether the trade was effected on an agency or principal basis Whether the bond was a General Obligation or a Revenue bond **The name, address, and telephone number of the underwriter for the initial bond offering**
Much information must be included on a municipal bond trade confirmation - name, address, and telephone number of the municipal dealer; whether the trade was effected on an agency or principal basis; whether the bond was a General Obligation or a Revenue bond; and of course, the Trade date and Settlement date.
53
Which of the following would NOT be needed to compute the total dollar price of a municipal bond traded on a yield basis in the secondary market? Purchase price Maturity date **Dated date** Call date
When pricing a municipal bond traded in the secondary market on a yield basis, the MSRB requires that the dollar price be computed on a “worst case” basis. For premium bonds, having the bond called early (losing the premium faster) is worst; so premium bonds must be priced to the nearest “in whole” call date. For discount bonds, having the bond last until the maturity date is worst, earning the discount slower. Thus, these dates are employed when pricing municipal bonds quoted on a yield basis. Of course, the purchase price of the issues would always be required. The dated date has no meaning for pricing a bond trading in the secondary market. It is simply the legal date of issuance of the bond, and is the date from which interest started accruing on the issue.
54
All of the following dates are needed to compute the total purchase price of a municipal bond traded in the secondary market that is quoted on a yield basis EXCEPT: **dated date** maturity date settlement date in whole call date
When a municipal dealer gives a basis quote, he is promising the purchaser a certain yield on the bond. MSRB rules require that when the actual dollar price is determined, that the dollar price be computed to the lowest dollar amount of yield to call or yield to maturity. The only calls that are considered are optional calls, meaning the issuer has the option of calling in the entire issue at preset dates and prices, as set forth in the bond contract. This is an “in whole” call. Settlement date is needed to compute the amount of accrued interest.
55
Under MSRB rules, yield to worst means that: all municipal bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to the near-term in whole call date municipal par bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to the near-term in whole call date municipal discount bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to the near-term in whole call date **municipal premium bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to the near-term in whole call date**
When municipal serial bonds are quoted on a yield basis, the dealer must compute the dollar price shown on the customer confirmation. This dollar price must assure, that at a minimum, the customer will receive the promised yield. This is known as pricing to the “worst case” scenario. For a premium bond, the “worst case” scenario is having the bond called early (which is the likely case). Bonds trade at a premium because market interest rates have dropped, so the issuer can refund the issue at lower current market rates by calling in the bonds. In this case, the bond is priced based on giving the customer the promised yield using the near-term in whole call date as the redemption date. If the bond were not called, the customer’s actual yield would improve, because the annual loss of premium incorporated into the yield would be spread over a longer time frame.
56
Under MSRB rules, yield to worst means that: all municipal bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to maturity municipal par bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to maturity **municipal discount bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to maturity** municipal premium bonds quoted on a yield basis must be priced to maturity
For a discount bond, the “worst case” scenario is having the bond held to maturity (which is the likely case). Bonds trade at a discount because market interest rates have risen, so the issuer would not call these bonds. In this case, the bond is priced based on giving the customer the promised yield using the maturity date. If the bond were called early, the customer’s actual yield would improve, because the annual earning of the discount incorporated into the yield would be spread over a shorter time frame.
57
Under MSRB rules, pricing of callable municipal premium bonds quoted on a yield basis is based upon: best case scenario **worst case scenario** yield to maturity nominal yield
When municipal serial bonds are quoted on a yield basis, the dealer must compute the dollar price shown on the customer confirmation. This dollar price must assure, that at a minimum, the customer will receive the promised yield. This is known as pricing to the “worst case” scenario. For a premium bond, the “worst case” scenario is having the bond called early (which is the likely case). Bonds trade at a premium because market interest rates have dropped, so the issuer can refund the issue at lower current market rates by calling in the bonds. In this case, the bond is priced based on giving the customer the promised yield using the near-term in whole call date as the redemption date. If the bond were not called, the customer’s actual yield would improve, because the annual loss of premium incorporated into the yield would be spread over a longer time frame.
58
Which of the following call provisions must be considered when determining the purchase price of a municipal bond trade effected on a yield basis? **Optional Calls** Extraordinary Optional Calls Mandatory Calls Extraordinary Mandatory Calls
When a municipal dealer gives a basis quote, he or she is promising the purchaser a certain yield on the bond. MSRB rules require that when the actual dollar price is determined, that the dollar price be computed to the lowest dollar amount of yield to call or yield to maturity. The only calls that are considered are optional calls, meaning the issuer has the option of calling in the entire issue at preset dates and prices, as set forth in the bond contract. Mandatory calls are not considered - an example of a mandatory call is a “sinking fund” call. In such a call, the issuer is obligated to deposit monies annually to a sinking fund, and then use the funds to call in bonds on a random pick method at specified dates. It is the luck of the draw as to whether a given bond is called or not. Since there is no reasonable certainty of a specific bond being called, this type of call is not considered when pricing municipal bonds. Extraordinary calls (such as catastrophe calls, or calls of bonds backed by mortgages due to mortgage prepayments) are not considered, again because of the lack of any certainty as to their actually happening.
59
An 8% general obligation bond is issued with 20 years to maturity. A customer buys the bond on a 7.50% basis. The bond contract allows the issuer to call the bonds in 5 years at 102 1/2, with the call premium declining by 1/2 point a year thereafter. The bond is puttable in 5 years at par. The price of the bond to a customer would be calculated based on the: **5 year call at 102 1/2** 5 year put at 100 10 year call at 100 20 year maturity
This is a very difficult question. Since the bond has a stated rate of interest of 8%, but is priced to yield 7.50%, the bond is being sold at a premium. The amount of the premium that this equates to is about $100 (you do not need to know how to do this, but you should understand the concept that follows). The dollar price of the bond would be $1,100 to yield 7.50% to maturity. Under MSRB rules, bonds are priced on a worst case basis, meaning in this case where the premium ($100 in this case) is lost in the shortest time period. This premium will be lost in the shortest period of time if the bonds are called early. Thus, under MSRB rules, premium bonds must be priced to the near term call date. Then, the customer will get, at a minimum, the yield promised. If the bonds aren’t called, the yield actually improves on the bonds. Put options are not considered when pricing municipal bonds, since it is up to the holder to decide whether he or she wishes to “put” the bond.
60
Under MSRB rules, if the yield to call is lower than the yield to maturity, the bond must be priced based on: yield to maturity **yield to call** current yield nominal yield
The MSRB requires that dollar prices of bonds quoted on a yield basis be computed to the lowest dollar amount of Yield to Maturity or Yield to Call.
61
If a municipal bond, callable at par, is quoted on a yield basis that is lower than the nominal yield, the price of the bond to a customer would be calculated based on: nominal yield current yield **yield to call** yield to maturity
If a bond is purchased at a premium, its yield to call will be the lowest effective yield. Under MSRB rules, bonds are priced on a worst case basis, meaning, in this case where the premium is lost in the shortest time period. This premium will be lost in the shortest period of time if the bonds are called early. Thus, under MSRB rules, premium bonds must be priced to the near term call date. Then, the customer gets, at a minimum, the yield promised. If the bonds aren’t called, the yield actually improves on the bonds.
62
Which callable municipal bonds quoted on a yield basis would be priced to the near term “in whole” call date? par bonds discount bonds **premium bonds** zero-coupon bonds
Municipal bonds trading in the secondary market at a premium must be priced to give the customer the promised yield based upon yield to call - this is the worst case basis. Using the call date assumes that the premium will be lost over the shortest time period - if the bond is not called, then the customer’s yield improves. If a par bond is called early, the customer’s yield stays the same (or improves, if there is a call premium paid). If a discount bond (or zero-coupon bond) is called early, then the customer’s yield improves. For both of these, the “worst case” is for the bonds to be held to maturity - earning the discount over the slowest period of time.
63
A 7% general obligation bond is issued with 20 years to maturity. A customer buys the bond on a 7.50% basis. The bond contract allows the issuer to call the bonds in 5 years at 102 1/2, with the call premium declining by 1/2 point a year thereafter. The bond is puttable in 5 years at par. The price of the bond to a customer would be calculated based on the: 5 year call at 102 1/2 5 year put at 100 10 year call at 100 **20 year maturity**
This is a very difficult question. Since the bond has a stated rate of interest of 7%, but is priced to yield 7.50%, the bond is being sold at a discount. The amount of the discount to which this equates is about $140 (you do not need to know how to do this, but you do need to understand the concept that follows). The dollar price of the bond would be $860 to yield 7.50% to maturity. Under MSRB rules, bonds are priced on a worst case basis, meaning in this case where the discount ($140 in this case) is earned over the longest period of time. This occurs if the bonds are held to maturity. If the bonds are called earlier, the yield actually improves on the bonds, since the customer earns the discount faster.
64
If a municipal bond, callable at par, is quoted on a yield basis that is higher than the nominal yield, the price of the bond to a customer would be calculated based on: yield to call yield to put current yield **yield to maturity**
Regarding a bond purchased at a discount: the yield to call will be the highest effective yield. Under MSRB rules, bonds are priced on a worst case basis, meaning in this case where the discount is earned over the longest period of time. This occurs if the bonds are held to maturity. If the bonds are called, the yield actually improves on the bonds, since the customer earns the discount faster.
65
For municipal transactions effected on a yield basis, how are these bonds generally priced? All bonds are priced to their highest possible yield **Premium bonds are priced to the near-term call date** All bonds are priced to maturity date All bonds are priced to the initial near-term call date
For transactions in callable issues effected on a yield basis, discount bonds are priced to maturity while premium bonds are priced to the near term call date. Thus, the customer is always given a dollar price that ensures he will, at a minimum, get the promised yield. In essence all bonds are priced at their “yield to worst.”
66
Which statement is TRUE about a stock trade effected for cash in a margin account? Payment is required prior to placing the trade with settlement occurring by the end of the same day Payment is required prior to placing the trade with settlement occurring by the end of the next business day **Payment is required in part or in full with settlement occurring by the end of the same day** Payment is required in part or in full with settlement occurring by the end of the next business day
Trades effected for cash settle the same day. If the trade is effected in a margin account, payment is required either in part (the margin requirement) or in full on settlement. Cash settlement is same day settlement, before 2:30 PM ET.
67
Cash settlement is: **same day settlement before 2:30 PM** same day settlement after 2:30 PM next day settlement before 2:30 PM next day settlement after 2:30 PM
Cash settlement is same day settlement, before 2:30 PM.
68
Regular way trades of which of the following securities settles “next business day”? Corporate debt **Listed options** Municipal debt Listed stock
Government debt and listed options trades settle regular way the next business day. Listed corporate stock/debt and municipal bond trades settle regular way (2 business days after trade date).
69
Which statement is **TRUE** about a regular way stock trade effected in a cash account? Payment in full is required in 1 business day **Payment in full is required in 2 business days** Payment in part or in full is required in 1 business day Payment in part or in full is required in 2 business days
Regular way trades settle in 2 business days. In a cash account, full payment is required.
70
A client sells stock in a regular way trade in a listed stock on Thursday. The client knows that settlement takes place in 2 days and asks the representative if the funds will show in his account on Saturday. The representative should tell the client that the settlement date when the proceeds will be reflected in the account will be: A. that Saturday **the Monday following that Saturday** C. the Tuesday following that Saturday D. the Wednesday following that Saturday
Regular way settlement is 2 business days following trade date. If a regular way trade takes place on a Thursday, 2 days later is Saturday. However, 2 business days later is Monday, and that is the date the trade would settle.
71
A corporation declares a cash dividend on Friday, December 5th, payable to holders of record on Friday, December 19th. The local newspaper publishes the announcement on Monday, December 8th, while Standard and Poor’s reports the dividend on Friday, December 12th. The ex date for regular way trades will be set at: Friday, December 5th Wednesday, December 17th **Thursday, December 18th** Friday, December 19th
The regular way ex date for cash dividends is set at 1 business day prior to record date. Since the record date is Friday, December 19th, the ex date is 1 business day prior and is Thursday, December 18th.
72
Which option position is used to hedge a long stock positing Long call Short call **long put** Short put
Buying a put allows the owner of stock to sell it a fixed price (Stilke price) if the market falls. This limits downside risk on the long stock position
73
A customer sells short 100 shares of PDQ stock at $59 and sells 1 PDQ Oct 60 PUT @ $6. The client is attempting to: Double her bearish bet **generate income against the short position** Hedge her short position Take advantage of a steep price fall to $0
When a client shorts stock and writes a put against the core bearish stock position it is know as “covered put writing” This strategy is used by short sellers who seek to generate income against an excising short position. If the stock falls sharply, the put will be exercise, and the writer will be force to bury back the shares at the strike price.
74
What is the maximum potential loss for a customer who is short 100 shares of ABC stock at $33 and short 1 ABC Jan 35 Put at $6? $3,300 $600 Limited **unlimited**
If the market rises, the put contract expertise, but the customer is responsible for covering the short rock position. The potential loss on the remains short stock position is unlimited, since the market can rise an unlimited amount
75
A customer buys 1 ABC Jul 40 Put at $9 when the market price of ABC is $35. The customers maximum potential gain is: **$3,100** $4,000 $4,900 unlimited
The maximum gain for the holder of a put occurs if the market goes to “0.” If it does, the customer can sell the stock at $40 and purchase it for nothing. Since the customer paid $900 in premiums for this right, the maximum potential gain is: **$4000 - $900 = $3100**
76
What position can an investor take to hedge a short a short stock position? Short call Short put **Long Call** Long put
When a client has a short stock position, borrowed shares have been sold with the agreement that the customer will buy back the position at a later date. If the market rises, the loss potential is unlimited. The purchase of a call (long call) allows teh stock to be bought in at a fixed price, limiting upside risk
77
A customer sells short 100 shares of ABC stock at $63 per share and writes 1 ABC Sept 55 Put at $2. The customer is a: Naked put writer **Covered put writer** Hedged bull Hedged bear
When a customer shorts stock and writes a put, he or she is engaged in covered put writing. This is an income-producing strategy for a client with a core short position. The core short stock position determine the client’s bearish bias.
78
What is the maximum potential loss for a customer who is short 100 shares of ABC stock at $33 and short 1 ABC Jan 35 Put at $6? $3,300 $600 Limited **unlimited**
If the market rises, the put contract expires, but the customer is responsible for covering the short stock position. The potential loss on the remaining short stock position is unlimited, since the market can rise an unlimited amount
79
Which of the following option positions is used to generate additional income against a short stock position Long call Short call Long put **Short put**
When one has a short stock position, borrowed shares have been sold with the agreement that the customer will but back the posting at a later date. If the customer thinks that the market will remain flat, he or she can sell a covered put against his stock position to earn extra income during that time period. If the stock fails, the short put is exercised, obligating the customer to buy the stock at the same price at which it was sold.
80
A customer buys 100 shares of ABC stock at $39 and sells 1 ABC Jan 45 Call @ $2 on the same day in cash account. This strategy is: The same as buying a put **Subject to large losses** An effective hedge Used to immunize a portfolio
If the stock drops, the call expires “out the money.” As the stock keeps dropping, the customer loses more and mor on the stock position. Because the customer effectively paid $3,700 ($39 price minus $2 premium collected) for the stock, this is the maximum potential loss. Writhing a **call** does not provide the same level of protection as buying a put
81
A customer sells short 100 shares of DEF stock at $62 and sells 1 DEF Oct 60 put @ $6. The potential gain while both positions are in place stops when: The stock rises to $68 The stock rises to $66 **The stock falls to $60** The stock falls to $53
If the market drops, the short put is exercised, and the customer must buy the stock at $60. Since the stock was sold at $62, the customer gains 2 points, in addition to collecting 6 points of premiums. Thus, the maximum gain is $800. Conversely, if the market rises, the short put expires, leaving a short stock position that has potentially unlimited loss.
82
The purchase of a put has all of the same characteristics as selling stock short EXCEPT: **Unlimited loss potential in a rising market** Limited gain potential in a falling market Low liquidity risk if the position is to be liquidated Both are bear market strategies
The purchase of a put has limited loss in a rising market - the maximum that can be lost is the premium paid. In a rising market, the loss potential on a short sale of stock is unlimited, since the stock must be purchased at the higher market price and replaced
83
A customer buys 100 shares of ABC stock at $40 and sells 1 ABC Jan 45 Call @ $2 on the same day in a cash account. The customers maximum potential gain until the option expires is: **Limited** Unlimited $200 if the option expires $4000
A long stock position coupled with a call write is referred to as a covered call writer. This is a bullish position with a capped profit potential since the call will be exercised if the stock rises sharply.
84
A customer sells short 100 shares of ABC stock at $41 and buys 1 ABC Mar 40 Call @ $5. The maximum potential gain occurs when: **The stock becomes worthless** The call expires The call is exercised The call is assigned
The client has a core bearish stock bet. If the stock falls, the customer gains on the short stock position. The customer sold the stock for $41. If it falls to “0,” the customer can buy the shares for “nothing” to replace the borrowed shares sold and make 41 points.
85
On the same day in a margin account, a customer sells short 100 shares of ABC at $31 and buys 1K ABC Jan 35 Call @3. This client’s market outlook is: Very bearish **Cautiously bearish** Very bullish Cautiously bullish
The client’s core short stock position makes him or her bearish. The call was purchased as a hedge, which makes the clients cautiously bearish.
86
A customer buys 200 shares of ABC stock at $68 and sells 2 ABC 70 calls @ $3. The market rises at $80, and the calls are exercised. The customer must: Sell stock at $80 Buy stock at $80 **Sell stock at $70** Buy stock at $70
If the calls are exercised, the stock (which cost $68 per share) must be sold at the $70 strike price for a $2 gain times 200 shares which equals $400. The customer also received $200 per contract for selling the calls, for a total of $600 in premiums received.
87
All of the following are standardized for listed option contracts EXCEPT: Strike price Contract size **Premium** Expiration
Exchange traded option contracts have standardized contract sizes (e.g., 100 shares of stock), expiration dates, and strike prices. The premium or “price” of the option is determined minute by minute in the trading market
88
A customer buys 100 shares of ABC at $30 and buys 1 ABV Jan 30 Put @ $5. When is the position profitable? When the stock falls Anywhere above $30 Anywhere below $35 **Anywhere above $35**
To breakeven, the customer must recover the $5 spent on the insurance. His or her core long position is stock which was purchased at $30 must rise by 5 points. (30 + 5 = 35). Any price movement higher is profitable
89
A customer owns an ABC Call option. ABC declares a dividend for shareholder on record July 17th. The last day to exercise the option and get the dividend is: July 11th July 12th **July 15th** July 16th
If an option is exercised, a regular way stock trade results (2 business day settlement). To be an owner of record, the call must be exercised 2 business days prior to July 17th, which is July 15th
90
**Regular way trades** of which of the following securities settle next business day Municipal bonds Listed stocks **Listed stock options** Corporate bonds
Regular way trades of listed options securities settle next business day (as do regular way trades of US government)
91
What are the profit/loss characteristics of taking a long call position? Unlimited upside (profit) and unlimited downside (loss) **Unlimited upside (profit) and limited downside (loss)** Limited upset (profit) and unlimited downside (loss) Limited upside (profit) and limited downside (loss)
A long call position give the holder the right to buy the stock at a fixed price. If the market price keeps rising, the holder keeps gaining, so the gain potential is unlimited. On the other hand, if the market price falls below the strike price, the call expires worthless.
92
A customer buys 100 shares of XYZ stock at $80 and buys 1 XYZ Oct 80 Put @ $3. The customer has a(n): Unlimited profit potential and unlimited loss potential Limited profit potential and limited loss potential **Unlimited profited potential and limited loss potential** Limited profit potential and unlimited loss potential
The customer buys the put for $3 and buys the stock at $80 for a total outlay of $83 per share. The put has been purchased as protection if the stock price should fall. This means the client’s loss potential is limited by the hedge
93
A customer buys 1 ABC Oct 65 Put at $7 when the market price of ABC is 62. ABC stock rises to $70 and stays there through October. The customer: Breaks even Loses $200 **Loses $700** Loses $1,200
If the market rises to $70, the put expires “out the money” (since the strike price is $65). The customer loses the $700 premium paid
94
Which action taken by a fiduciary would be consistent with the obligations imposed by the "Prudent Man Rule"? Purchasing new issues of low price speculative stocks Shorting stock Selling naked calls **Diversifying a portfolio by purchasing overseas issues**
The "prudent man rule" is part of Uniform State Law, and it requires fiduciaries to make investments for accounts under their control as would a "prudent man." This makes sense, since fiduciaries are investing for the benefit of others, and the investments are supposed to provide a long term future benefit to these persons.
95
A customer has purchased three different bonds, each yielding 9%, with 5 year, 10 year, and 15 year maturities. If prevailing interest rates drop by 20 basis points, which will show the greatest percentage price change? 5 year maturity 10 year maturity **15 year maturity** The bonds will all move by the same percentage
96
PDQ Company $10 par common stock is currently trading at $40. PDQ is currently paying a common dividend of $.20 per share quarterly. The current yield of PDQ stock is: 0.5% **2.0%** 5.0% 8.0%
Yields are based on annual return. The formula for current yield is: Annual Income/Market Price = Current Yield $.80/$40 = 2.00%
97
A bond issue where the bonds have the same maturity but different dates of issuance is a: term bond offering **series bond offering** serial bond offering combined serial and term bond offering
A bond issue where the bonds have the same maturity but different dates of issuance is a series bond issue. These are rarely issued and are used to finance long-term construction projects where all of the money is not needed at once.
98
Two bonds are being offered by a dealer at the same yield. One is rated AAA and the other is rated BB. What could be a reason for this? The AAA-rated bond is non-voting Both bonds have the same maturity The AAA-rated bond has a term maturity **The BB-rated bond has a sinking fund**
If the BB bond has a sinking fund covenant, then the issuer must deposit money to the sinking fund annually, building up the funds needed to redeem the issue at maturity. Because the issuer is, in essence, prepaying the debt in installments, there is less net debt outstanding each year, improving the credit quality of the issue. In contrast, a term bond pays interest only during the "term" of the bond, and all principal is paid at maturity.
99
Which statement is correct concerning cumulative voting? It allows for a proportionate voting weight and helps smaller investors It allows for a proportionate voting weight and helps larger investors **It allows for a disproportionate voting weight and helps smaller investors** It allows for a disproportionate voting weight and helps larger investors
Cumulative voting allows a disproportionate voting weight to be placed on selected directors who are up for election. This is considered to be advantageous for the smaller investor, who wishes to have a specific director (or directors) elected.
100
Common stockholders and preferred stockholders BOTH have: voting rights pre-emptive rights **dividend rights** subscription rights
Both common and preferred shareholders have the right to receive dividends, if declared by the Board of Directors. Common shareholders have both voting rights and preemptive/subscription rights (the right to maintain proportionate ownership if the issuer issues additional common shares). Preferred stockholders do not have voting rights and do not have preemptive/subscription rights.
101
Common carriers such as airline, railroad, or trucking companies would most likely issue: Mortgage bonds **Equipment trust certificates** General obligation bonds Revenue anticipation notes
Equipment trust certificates are issued by common carriers such as airlines, railroads, and trucking companies. The rolling (or flying) stock is the collateral for the debt. Securing the debt in this manner allows the issuer to lower its financing cost.
102
The largest participants in the trading of U.S. Government debt include all of the following EXCEPT: Domestic money center banks Foreign money center banks Domestic Broker-Dealers **Ginnie Mae**
Trading of government and agency securities takes place in the over-the-counter market. The participants include large commercial banks, foreign banks, U.S. Government securities dealers, full service brokerage firms, and the Federal Reserve. Ginnie Mae is an Agency - it does not trade U.S. Government debt.
103
What will back a municipal revenue bond? Any municipal revenue collected **The specific revenue stipulated in the bond's Official Statement** Taxes collected by the state of issuance Taxes collected by the issuing municipal entity
A revenue bond is backed by a "revenue pledge" - these are specific revenues from an enterprise activity (such as the revenue from operating an airport financed with an airport revenue bond issue). Other revenues (such as the revenue from a nearby toll bridge) would be used to pay for a revenue bond issue used to finance the building of that bridge - not of the airport, making Choice A incorrect. Tax collections by states and municipal entities are used to back General Obligation bonds, not revenue bonds.
104
Industrial development bonds are issued by municipalities to build facilities that are leased to: **corporations** government agencies municipalities sovereign governments
Industrial development bonds are issued by municipalities to build facilities that are leased to corporations. These are a type of revenue bond where the lease payments made by the corporate lessee are the source of funds to pay debt service on the issue.
105
All of the following are money market instruments EXCEPT: Tax Anticipation Notes **Treasury Notes** Certificates of Deposit Commercial Paper
Treasury Notes are issued in 1 to 10 year maturities, hence they are not a money market instrument. A money market instrument is issued with a maturity under 1 year. Tax Anticipation Notes, Certificates of Deposit, and Commercial Paper are all money market instruments.
106
The Federal Reserve would enter into a transaction involving which of the following with a primary U.S. Government securities dealer? **Overnight repurchase agreement** Federal Funds Eurodollars Banker's acceptance
Overnight repurchase agreements are common for transactions between banks and the Federal Reserve. In such an agreement, the Fed buys U.S. Government securities from the dealer for 1 day; agreeing to sell them back to the dealer the next day. The difference in buying and selling price represents one day's worth of interest.
107
The Federal Reserve would enter into a transaction involving which of the following with a primary U.S. Government securities dealer? **Overnight repurchase agreement** Federal Funds Eurodollars Banker's acceptance
Overnight repurchase agreements are common for transactions between banks and the Federal Reserve. In such an agreement, the Fed buys U.S. Government securities from the dealer for 1 day; agreeing to sell them back to the dealer the next day. The difference in buying and selling price represents one day's worth of interest.
108
Which statement about investment companies is **FALSE**? An open end fund is a type of management company A closed end fund is a type of management company Closed-end fund shares trade throughout the day **Open-end fund shares trade throughout the day**
Management companies are either open-end or closed-end. Either has an investment manager, managing the fund based on a stated investment objective. An open-end management company is a mutual fund. Mutual funds (open-end funds) are "open" to new investment. Shares are issued and redeemed at the end of the day and do not "trade."
109
All of the following securities are redeemable EXCEPT: Common stock mutual funds Bond mutual funds **Corporate debentures** Series HH bonds
Mutual funds - common stock and bond funds - are redeemable securities which do not trade. Savings bonds (Series EE and HH) sold by the U.S. Government are redeemable securities. There is no trading in these issues. To "cash out," they are redeemed with an agent for the Government - a bank or savings and loan. Corporate debentures are negotiable (tradeable) - they cannot be redeemed with the issuer. They trade OTC and on exchanges.
110
A "SPDR" is a(n): mutual fund **ETF** derivative face amount certificate
The "SPDR" is the Standard and Poor's Depositary Receipt, one of the first index-ETFs. It is based on the composition of the Standard and Poor's 500 Index.
111
All of the following statements are true regarding a Standard and Poor's 500 Index fund EXCEPT the: **portfolio manager can decide to invest in any stock as long as it is included in the Standard and Poor's 500 Index** the portfolio manager must change the composition of the fund if the stocks included in the index are changed fund must weight its investments in the same manner as the Standard and Poor's 500 index is weighted management fee for such a fund is typically lower than for an actively managed fund
Index funds attempt to "shadow" the performance of a designated index, such as the Standard and Poor's 500 index; or the Value Line Index. Because no research is done to select stocks for the fund, the management fees are lower than for actively managed funds. It is false that the portfolio manager can invest in any stock in the Standard and Poor's 500 index, since the fund must match the composition of the index as a whole.
112
An investor buys $10,000 of a "regulated" mutual fund investing solely in municipal securities. Which statement is TRUE regarding the federal tax treatment of the interest income? The investor must pay federal income tax on all interest received, since payments come from the investment company The investor must pay tax on any distributions received from the investment company, while the company has no tax obligation The investor has no tax liability on any distributions received, while the investment company must pay tax on any retained income **The investor has no tax liability on distributions received, and the investment company has no tax liability on retained income**
113
An exploratory oil and gas limited partnership has: low risks **low mineral rights costs** immediate current income low intangible drilling costs
A wildcat well (or exploratory oil and gas limited partnership) has low mineral rights costs (since the likelihood of finding oil in unproven areas is slim) and high intangible drilling costs (much drilling is going to have to be done before any oil is found, if it is found). These programs initially have no income since in their early stages, oil has not yet been found. (And potentially; may never be found!)
114
Which type of real estate limited partnership offers an immediate depreciation benefit? New Construction Raw Land **Existing Housing** All of the above
Raw land is not depreciable; only the building on the land is depreciable. Existing housing is immediately depreciable. New construction is only depreciable after the building is completed - during the building phase, no depreciation deductions are permitted.
115
A new issue of common stock has a Public Offering Price of $30 per share. The proceeds to the issuer are $29 per share. The management fee is $.10 per share and the selling concession is $.40 per share. The spread is: $.40 $.50 $.90 **$1.00**
This one is pretty simple. The "spread" is the gross compensation to the underwriters. It is the difference between the POP (Public Offering Price) and the amount per share that was received by the issuer. In this case, the POP is $30, and the issuer received $29 per share, so the spread is $1.
116
Which statement is TRUE regarding new issue U.S. Government and Agency securities? Agency securities are sold at auction conducted by the Federal Reserve **U.S. Government securities are sold at auction conducted by the Federal Reserve** U.S. Government securities are sold at auction conducted by the Department of Treasury Agency securities are sold at auction conducted by the Department of Treasury
U.S. Government securities are sold at auction conducted by the Federal Reserve. In contrast, agency securities are sold to the public through a selling group of broker-dealers assembled by the agency.
117
A seller who has filed Form 144 can sell 1% of the outstanding shares or the weekly average of the last 4 weeks' trading volume. This amount can be sold every: 30 days 60 days **90 day** 180 days
Rule 144 allows the sale of 1% of the issuer's outstanding shares or the weekly average of the preceding 4 weeks' trading volume (whichever is greater). This amount can be sold every 90 days (every 3 months), so a sale can occur 4 times per year.
118
Which statement is FALSE about Rule 147? Both the issuer and all purchasers must be state residents Resale to state residents is permitted immediately **The rule exempts intrastate issues from "blue sky" registration** The rule exempts intrastate issues from federal registration
Rule 147 exempts "intrastate" issues from registration with the SEC. However, the issue is still subject to state (blue-sky) registration. To obtain the 147 exemption, both the issuer and the purchaser must be state residents. Resale is restricted to state residents for 6 months following the offering; thereafter, the issue can be sold interstate. Note, however, that because these securities were never registered with the SEC, they cannot be publicly traded. The only way to resell them is in a "private transaction”
119
Which statement describes trading of Rule 144A issues? Rule 144A issues are NMS securities that are listed and trade on the NYSE, AMEX and NASDAQ Rule 144A issues are not listed and trade OTC **Rule 144A issues trade in the PORTAL market from QIB to QIB** Rule 144A issues cannot be traded in the public markets
Rule 144A issues are private placement securities sold in minimum $500,000 blocks only to QIBs - Qualified Institutional Buyers (institutions with at least $100MM of assets available for investment). Whereas normal private placements cannot be traded, these can be traded from QIB to QIB. The market for this is PORTAL, but trading activity is thin in this market, especially as compared to the market for publicly traded securities.
120
Under the "penny stock rule," an established customer that is exempt from the rule is defined as a person who has made a deposit of funds or securities with that broker-dealer more than: **1 year previously** 2 years previously 3 years previously 5 years previously
Suitability statements are not required under the "penny stock rule" for so-called "established customers." These are customers who have either had cash or securities in custody of that broker-dealer for at least 1 year; or customers who have bought 3 or more "penny stock" issues previously from that broker-dealer.
121
Which action taken by a fiduciary would be consistent with the obligations imposed by the "Prudent Man Rule"? Purchasing new issues of low price speculative stocks Shorting stock Selling naked calls **Diversifying a portfolio by purchasing overseas issues**
The "prudent man rule" is part of Uniform State Law, and it requires fiduciaries to make investments for accounts under their control as would a "prudent man." This makes sense, since fiduciaries are investing for the benefit of others, and the investments are supposed to provide a long term future benefit to these persons.
122
Under FINRA rules, a readily apparent reference to BrokerCheck and hyperlink to the BrokerCheck website is required: on a member firm's initial webpage that is intended to be viewed by retail investors on a member firm's web page that includes a professional profile of an individual registered person who conducts business with retail investors on a member firm's web page that includes the professional profiles of a number of registered persons who conduct business with retail investors **on all of the above**
FINRA requires that a readily apparent reference to BrokerCheck and a hyperlink to the BrokerCheck website be shown on a member firm's initial webpage that is intended to be viewed by retail investors and also on any member firm web page that includes a professional profile of a registered person (or a number of registered persons) who conducts business with retail investors.
123
A municipal securities firm places the following advertisement: *"We Hold and Sell New York State 6% TANs"* Under MSRB rules, which statement is TRUE? The advertisement must also show the maturity of the notes **The advertisement must state whether the percentage rate shown is the coupon or yield** The advertisement must show the tax equivalent yield for an investor in the top tax Federal bracket The advertisement must show the bond rating assigned by Moody's or Standard and Poor's
Under MSRB rules, any advertisement that shows an interest rate or yield must state whether the rate of return shown is the coupon rate or the yield to maturity; and if the yield is being shown, it must be stated if it is yield to maturity, or yield to call date.
124
XYZ common stock is currently trading at $96 per share. Last year, XYZ common stock earned $8.00 per share, giving the company a Price / Earnings Ratio of 12:1. If XYZ splits 3 for 1, the new Price / Earnings ratio will be: 4:1 6:1 **12:1** 24:1
A stock split or dividend will have no effect on the Price / Earnings ratio of an issuer. The market price is adjusted on "ex date" for the split; and the earnings per share are restated downward to reflect the increased number of shares that will be issued. Since both decrease proportionately, the ratio stays the same.
125
Which statement is TRUE about the Federal Funds rate? The Federal Funds rate is set by the Federal Reserve and is the rate at which member banks can borrow reserves from the Fed **Federal Reserve actions taken by the FOMC will influence the Federal Funds rate** The Federal Funds Rate is higher than the discount rate The "Effective" Federal Funds rate is the weekly compounded rate of interest paid by borrowers
The Federal Funds Rate is set by member banks, and is the rate on overnight loans of reserves from member to member.
126
In a period of deflation, all of the following statements about fixed income securities are true EXCEPT: holders receive payments on fixed income securities that buy more in real terms holders are likely to realize capital appreciation on fixed income securities that are not close to maturity **issuers are less likely to sell fixed income securities because interest rates will rise** issuers are likely to sell non-callable issues
In a deflationary period, prices fall. Therefore, money buys "more" in real terms.
127
Which of the following economic events would have a positive long term impact on common stock prices? Rising interest rates **Falling capital gains tax rates** Rising unemployment rates Rising inflation rates
Rising interest rates are bad for stock prices. More investors will switch from investments in stocks to bond investments. A falling capital gains tax rate makes stocks more attractive to investors since any potential profits would be taxed at a lesser rate. Rising unemployment indicates that the economy is contracting. This is bearish for corporate profits and hence, stock prices.
128
A customer has $12,000 of capital losses and $4,000 of capital gains in a tax year. On that year's tax return, the investor has a: $3,000 capital loss deduction with no loss carryforward **$3,000 capital loss deduction and a $5,000 loss carryforward** $8,000 capital loss deduction with no loss carryforward $12,000 capital loss deduction
The tax law allows capital gains and losses to be netted each year. Net capital gains are fully taxable at the tax bracket. However, only $3,000 of net capital losses can be deducted in any year. Any losses above this amount can be carried forward to the next tax year. Here, the customer has a net capital loss of $8,000, of which $3,000 can be deducted this year; with a $5,000 loss carryforward to the next tax year.
129
An officer of a publicly traded company is prohibited from all of the following actions EXCEPT: selling short the common stock of that company retaining a profit generated from the purchase and sale of the company's stock within a 6 month period trading that company's stock based upon material, non-public information **exercising call options or pre-emptive rights on that issuer's stock**
Under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, insiders are prohibited from selling their own company's stock short; must disgorge any profits obtained from short swing trading of that company's stock (defined as gains earned over a 6 month period); and are prohibited from trading based upon material, non-public ("inside") information. There is no prohibition on an insider exercising preemptive rights or call options held on that company's stock. However, these transactions would be reported to the SEC within 2 business days of the trade.
130
A customer buys 100 shares of ABC stock at $51 and buys 1 ABC Jan 50 Put @ $3. The position is: bearish with limited loss potential bearish with unlimited loss potential **bullish with limited loss potential** bullish with unlimited loss potential
The customer is bullish due to the core long stock position and buys the put as a hedge. This makes the customer cautiously bullish. The loss is limited by the put hedge. If the stock falls, the client could sell the shares at the $50 strike price.
131
Which of the following securities is NOT eligible for Fed trading? Treasury Bonds Treasury Bills **Commercial Paper** Prime Banker's Acceptances
Commercial paper, which is issued by corporations, is not eligible for Fed trading. The eligible securities are U.S. Government debt, Government Agency debt, and prime Banker's Acceptances. These are the securities that the Fed trades with the primary U.S. Government dealers (the major commercial banks and brokerage firms) to control credit availability in the economy.
132
A customer buys 100 shares of ABC stock at $44 and sells 1 ABC Jan 45 Call at $5. Subsequently, the marke price of ABC goes to $59, and the call contract is exercised. The customer must: sell stock at $59 buy stock at $59 **sell stock at $45** buy stock at $45
The customer has created an income strategy. In this case, the customer buys the stock and thinks that the market price of ABC will remain at or about the price for which the customer bought the stock. Thus, the customer sells a call against his or her long stock position. However, if the market goes up, he or she will not enjoy the market rise because the call goes "'in the money'" and is exercised. The customer will still make money - just not as much. The customer originally bought the stock at $44 and must deliver the stock at the strike price of the call, or $45, for a $1 point gain. The customer also gets $5 in premiums for selling the call. The total gain is $600.
133
What can be used to efficiently hedge a broadly diversified stock portfolio? **The purchase of S&P options contracts** The purchase of individual options contracts on the stock positions in the portfolio The short sale of the stock positions in the portfolio The long sale of the stock positions in the portfolio
It would be nice if the purchase of put options were mentioned, but that is not the case. The purchase of S&P 100 (SPX) or S&P 500 (SPX) index options is the most efficient way to hedge a broadly diversified stock portfolio. If the market drops, the gain on the index puts offsets the loss on the physical stock portfolio.
134
An officer of a company has been invited by a large mutual fund company to give a talk to the fund company's analysts about its business plans and prospects. At the talk, the officer inadvertently discloses material information that could affect the stock's price. Which statement is FALSE? The officer is considered to be a "tipper" The analysts are considered to be "tippees" The company must make an immediate public disclosure of the information to avoid insider trading liability **The company must file a 10K with the SEC disclosing the information to avoid insider trading liability**
If an officer of a company makes an accidental disclosure of material non-public information at a presentation to analysts, Regulation FD considers the officer to be a tipper and the analysts to be tippees. To avoid insider trading liability, the company can either make an immediate public disclosure of the information or can file an 8K Report (a special report of significant events with the SEC, which makes the information public). A 10K is the corporation's annual audited financial statements and has nothing to do with Regulation FD.
135
All of the following statements are true regarding stop orders EXCEPT: stop orders can protect a profit on a long stock position stop orders can limit a loss on a long stock position **stop orders allow a specific execution price to be "locked-in"** stop orders are placed "away" from the current market
Stop orders do not allow a specific execution price. Once the "stop" price is reached, the order is elected and becomes a market order to be filled at the next price - which could be higher, lower, or the same as the stop price. Stop orders can be used to protect a profit on a long stock position (place a sell stop order just below the current market price of the stock). They can be used to limit a loss on a long stock position (place a sell stop order for execution if the market falls to a certain price). Stop orders are placed "away" from the current market - sell stop orders are placed below the current market price while buy stop orders are placed above the current market price.
136
When comparing Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) to Real Estate Limited Partnerships (RELPs), all of the following statements are true EXCEPT: REITs allow for flow through of gain RELPs allows for flow through of gain **REITs allow for flow through of loss** RELPs allow for flow through of loss
REITs do not allow for flow through of loss - only net income flows through to shareholders under conduit tax treatment. On the other hand, Real Estate Limited Partnerships (RELPs) are a tax sheltered investment that allow both gain and loss to flow through to the partnership investors.
137
The only order listed that is reduced on the ex date is an open: **buy limit** buy stop sell limit buy limit DR
The orders that are reduced on ex date are "OBLOSS" - Open Buy Limits and Open Sell Stops. These are the orders below the current market. The intent is to make sure that the order does not become executable due to the fact that the stock's opening price is reduced by the dividend amount. Therefore, Choice A would be reduced. If the order is DR, this means Do Not Reduce and on ex date the order would NOT be adjusted.
138
Which investment gives the LEAST protection against purchasing power risk? 6 month Treasury Bill 10 year Treasury Note 10 year Treasury "TIPS" **10 year Treasury "STRIPS"**
Purchasing power risk is the risk of inflation - that the prices of goods and services rises faster than real economic growth. When there is significant inflation, interest rates rise. And this causes bond prices to fall. Treasury "TIPS" are Treasury Inflation Protection Securities - the principal amount of these securities is adjusted upwards with the rate of inflation. Even though the interest rate is fixed, the holder receives a higher interest payment, due to the increased principal amount. When the bond matures, the holder receives the higher principal amount. Thus, there is no purchasing power risk with these securities.
139
Which is the BEST definition of an "annuity unit"? An accounting measure used to determine the number of units the contract holder may purchase in the separate account An accounting measure used to establish the contract holder's ownership interest **An accounting measure upon which the amount of pay out is determined** An accounting measure used to determine the contract holder's death benefit
Once a variable annuity contract is annuitized, accumulation units are converted to annuity units. These determine the annuity payments to be made.
140
A variable life policy will remain in force: for the stated term of the policy until the death of the insured **if the policy has sufficient cash value to pay the premium** as long as the insured individual does not exercise his or her nonforfeiture option
An insurance policy remains "in force" as long as the premiums are paid. If the premiums are not paid, the policy will lapse and there is no more insurance! Because variable life is permanent insurance that build cash value, if the premium payment is not made, the insurance company will use the cash value (if any) to make the premium payment. "Nonforfeiture in an insurance policy means the actions that an insured individual can take not to forfeit the policy if the premium cannot be paid. These typically include taking the full cash value and forfeiting future coverage or accepting a "reduced paid up option" where the policy death benefit amount is reduced.
141
Prime broker-dealers do all of the following EXCEPT: lend securities to institutional clients lend money to institutional clients **execute all trades for institutional clients** consolidate and maintain positions for institutional clients
Hedge fund investors typically use a "prime broker" to consolidate all of their positions with one brokerage firm. In a prime brokerage agreement, the institutional investor can use different executing brokers for its trades, but all of these trades are settled by the "prime broker" who maintains custody of the positions, and most importantly, provides margin financing on these positions and arranges for stock loans on short stock positions. By using a single prime broker, trade reports and position reports come from a single source, making account recordkeeping easier. The hedge fund, in return for sending trades to different executing brokers at full commission rates, gets valuable research and recommendations in return. By using a prime broker to consolidate all positions the hedge fund gets lower financing costs on borrowed funds and "front of the line" status when it wishes to borrow securities to effect short sales.
142
Which statement is TRUE regarding money market funds? Money market funds are typically sold with a nominal sales charge Money market funds typically do not impose management fees **Fund dividends are taxable even if reinvested** Typical maturities of securities held in the portfolio are 270 days or less
Money market funds usually do not impose sales charges but all funds impose management fees. Fund dividends are taxable, whether or not they are automatically reinvested in additional fund shares. The reason why these funds are called "money" funds is that the securities held in the portfolios have very short maturities (less than 30 days) and turn over into cash quickly.
143
A corporation's capitalization is: 1st Mortgage Bonds 10% M '32 $20,000,000 Preferred Stock 5% 10,000,000 Common Stock ($.01 par) 500,000 Capital in Excess of Par 700,000 Retained Earnings 3,000,000 The company's common stock ratio is: **12%** 15% 22% 26%
144
Which statement is TRUE about a registered "fund of hedge funds?" Registered funds of hedge funds are redeemable shares of mutual funds available to the general public **Registered funds of hedge funds are closed-end funds under the Investment Company Act of 1940, but they are not listed on an exchange** Registered funds of hedge funds hold portfolios of registered securities that are hedged using listed or unlisted derivatives Registered funds of hedge funds use a manager to make investments in unregistered hedge funds, so that lower fees can be negotiated with the hedge fund managers
A "fund of hedge funds" is an investment fund that makes investments in underlying unregistered hedge funds. Hedge funds are only available to wealthy accredited investors in private placement offerings. They use aggressive leverage investment strategies to boost returns, but this comes with much higher levels of risk.
145
Which statement is FALSE regarding the conduct of Treasury Bill auctions? 4 week, 8 week, 13 week and 26 week T-Bills are auctioned weekly 1 year T-Bills are auctioned monthly Non-competitive bids take priority over competitive bids **Bids are awarded based on the lowest discount yield except for 26 week bills which are sold at par**
4 week, 8 week, 13 week and 26 week Treasury Bills are auctioned weekly; 1 year T-Bills are auctioned monthly. Bedause the amount of securities represented by non-competitive bids are withheld from auction and are always filled at the average winning yield, these bids have priority. Competitive bids will not be filled if the yield specified is too high. The bids are always awarded on the basis of lowest discount yield.
146
A customer buys 100 shares of ABC stock at $10 as an initial transaction in a margin account. The customer must deposit: **$1,000** $2,000 $2,500 $3,000
Even though minimum equity to open a long margin account is $2,000, this does not apply if the securities in the account are fully paid. A customer cannot be asked to deposit more than 100% when buying since this is the maximum potential loss. The customer wants to buy $1,000 of stock, so 100% or $1,000 must be deposited.
147
Which of the following debt securities is NOT issued by a corporation? Mortgage Bonds Collateral Trust Certificates **Revenue Bonds** Income Bonds
Corporations do not issue revenue bonds - rather, these are a type of municipal bond, backed by revenues from public projects such as toll roads, bridges, tunnels and airports. Corporations can issue mortgage bonds (backed by real property), collateral trust certificates (backed by a portfolio of marketable securities), and income or adjustment bonds (that obligate the issuer to pay only if there are sufficient earnings).
148
All of the following are advantages of buying a put as compared to selling short stock EXCEPT: lower capital requirement no requirement to borrow shares no requirement to pay interest on a stock loan **no loss of time premium as the position is held**
The advantages of buying a put over selling that security short are a lower capital requirement (paying 100% of the premium is lower than putting up 50% initial margin on the full value of the stock position); no requirement to make up dividend payments on borrowed shares; and no requirement to pay interest on a stock loan of borrowed shares. A disadvantage of holding an option is that every day its time value decreases, to zero at expiration. This does not occur with stock positions, since there is no finite life on the position.
149
What are characteristics of Defined Contribution Plans? **Annual contribution amounts are fixed; if the corporation has an unprofitable year, the contribution must still be made** Annual contribution amounts are fixed; if the corporation has an unprofitable year, the contribution may be omitted Annual contribution amounts may vary; if the corporation has an unprofitable year, the contribution may be omitted Annual contribution amounts may vary; if the corporation has an unprofitable year, the contribution must still be made
Under a defined contribution plan, a fixed percentage or dollar amount is contributed annually for each year that the employee is included in the plan. If the corporation has an unprofitable year, it must still make the contributions.
150
A customer sells short 100 shares of PDQ stock at $49 and sells 1 PDQ Sept 50 Put @ $6. The client is a(n): **income-focused bear** income-focused bull protection-focused bear protection-focused bull
Shorting stock and writing a put against the position is referred to as a covered put writer. The client is bearish due to the core short stock position and writes the put to collect the premium. This income-producing strategy limits profits since if the stock moves down sharply, the put will be assigned, and the writer will be forced to buy back stock at the strike price.
151
If a corporation reports a loss for a year, it is obligated to make interest payments on all of the following bonds EXCEPT: Reset bonds **Adjustment bonds** Convertible bonds Callable bonds
Adjustment bonds, also known as income bonds, pay interest only if the corporation hits a predetermined level of earnings. If the income level is not sufficient, there is no obligation to make the interest payment. Reset bonds are obligated to pay interest, however the rate is reset annually. Conversion and call features have no effect on the obligation to pay.
152
Types of funds used to back revenue bond issues include all of the following EXCEPT: excise taxes lease rentals **ad valorem taxes** enterprise activity income
Ad valorem taxes back general obligation bonds. Revenue bonds can be backed by any source of revenue other than ad valorem taxes. These sources include revenue from facility operations, grants, excise taxes, or other non-ad valorem taxes, like sales and income taxes.
153
A variable annuity is a(n): **security regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940** insurance product that is not regulated under the Investment Company Act of 1940 security but it has no prospectus delivery requirement insurance product that has no prospectus requirement
Variable annuities differ from other products sold by insurance companies in that the purchaser bears the investment risk; as opposed to the insurance company bearing the investment risk. For example, if an insurance company achieves poor investment results, this does not affect the amount of death benefit that one gets from a traditional insurance policy; if the separate investment account funding a variable annuity achieves poor investment results, the annuity payment will drop.
154
A money market fund would invest in all of the following EXCEPT: Commercial Paper Treasury Bills **American Depositary Receipts** Banker's Acceptances
Money market funds invest in short term maturity money market instruments. These include Treasury Bills issued by the U.S. Government, commercial paper issued by corporations and banker's acceptances issued by banks. American Depositary Receipts are not a money market instrument - they are an equity security that is the vehicle for foreign stocks to trade in the United States.
155
Which statement is TRUE regarding the preliminary prospectus? **The preliminary prospectus may be sent to a potential customer prior to that customer expressing an indication of interest** The preliminary prospectus cannot be distributed at a road show for the offering The preliminary prospectus constitutes an offer to sell the issue The preliminary prospectus contains the public offering price
A "red herring" preliminary prospectus may be sent to any prospective purchaser of that new issue once the issue has entered into the "20-day cooling off" period that commences upon filing of the registration statement with the SEC. It would not contain the POP since at this early juncture, the issue would not yet be priced.
156
Preferred stock has all of the following features EXCEPT: Fixed rate of return Priority claim to assets upon dissolution compared to common stock Priority claim to dividends declared compared to common stock **Fixed maturity**
Preferred stock has a fixed rate of return (the dividend rate), has priority claim to assets upon dissolution, and has priority claim to dividends if declared by the Board of Directors. Preferred stock does not have a fixed maturity date - it has an indefinite life.
157
The breakeven point for the holder of a call is: the premium paid unlimited strike price minus premium paid **strike price plus premium paid**
The maximum gain for the holder of a call is unlimited, since the holder can exercise and buy the stock at a fixed price - no matter how high the market price of the stock rises. If the market price falls below the strike price, then the call expires "out the money" and the maximum loss is the premium. To breakeven, the premium paid must be recovered in a rising market. This occurs if the market price rises to the strike price plus the premium paid. To summarize, the formula for breakeven on a long call is:
158
Which statement is TRUE about taxation of capital gains? **Short term capital gains are taxed at higher rates than long term capital gains** Short term capital gains are taxed at lower rates than long term capital gains Short term capital gains are taxed at the same rate as long term capital gains Short term capital gains are taxed at ordinary income rates; long term capital gains are tax deferred
The maximum tax rate on short term capital gains is 37% (the same as for ear (ordinary) income). For assets held over 12 months, the maximum tax rate drops to 15%. (Note that rate is raised to 20% for individuals in the highest tax bracket.)
159
The Official Statement published for a new municipal issue: solicits bids from interested underwriters **is a disclosure document for use by potential investors** is an advertisement for the issue by the municipality establishes the procedures for calculating reoffering scales
The Official Statement provides disclosure about a new municipal issue to investors. It is requested by underwriters in order to perform due diligence on the issue, and to help sell the issue by having a disclosure document available for potential customers. It is not required under the Securities Act of 1933 since municipals are exempt.