Part 1

Question 1

DNA is one of the features common to all known forms of life;
a. it forms the protective outer membrane of cells.
b. it is produced expressly for reproduction and is found only in egg and sperm.
c. it is the blueprint that guides the growth, development, behavior, and reproduction
of all organisms.
d. its absence in viruses is the basis for classifying them as nonliving

Answer 1

c. it is the blueprint that guides the growth, development, behavior, and reproduction
of all organisms.

Question 2

A species of butterflies gradually becomes darker in color over many generations; this is an example of
which characteristic of living organisms?
a. They reproduce using DNA.
b. They obtain energy from the environment to support metabolism.
c. They can evolve as groups.
d. They sense the environment and respond to it.

Answer 2

c. They can evolve as groups.

Question 3

When scientists generate a single informed, logical, and plausible explanation for a question and
observations of the natural world, they are proposing a scientific
a. hypothesis. c. theory.
b. observation. d. correlation.

Answer 3

a. hypothesis.

Question 4

A scientific hypothesis must be constructed with which of the following characteristics?
a. It is always provable and clearly states what is already known to be fact.
b. It provides a reasonable explanation to a question and is consistent with current
observations; it must also be testable and falsifiable.
c. It provides an explanation consistent with accepted theological ideas and does not need to
be tested.
d. It does not require testing by experimentation or additional observations. It is not
falsifiable.

Answer 4

b. It provides a reasonable explanation to a question and is consistent with current
observations; it must also be testable and falsifiable.

Question 5

A scientific hypothesis must be ________; if not, science cannot evaluate it.
a. provable c. accepted
b. testable d. rejected

Answer 5

b. testable

Question 6

Experimental studies are an effective way of establishing a ________ relationship between two or more
aspects of the natural world because they provide a way of testing predicted interaction(s).
a. controlled c. correlative
b. cause-effect d. casual

Answer 6

b. cause-effect

Question 7

New medications undergo extensive human testing before receiving FDA approval. These tests represent
an experiment and variations in the dosage given to participants represents the
a. dependent variable. c. correlation coefficient.
b. independent variable. d. invariable.

Answer 7

b. independent variable.

Question 8

Experimentation is the primary, but not only, means used to verify or refute the ________ made by a
hypothesis.
a. variables c. predictions
b. theories d. laws

Answer 8

c. predictions

Question 9

Once supported by a predictable experimental outcome, a scientific hypothesis
a. is never reexamined.
b. still cannot be considered to have been proven true.
c. can be used to predict the outcome of all future similar events.
d. is elevated to the status of theory.

Answer 9

b. still cannot be considered to have been proven true

Question 10

Which of the following represents conducting an experiment?
a. dialing a telephone number
b. comparing prices of computers
c. checking your midterm grades online
d. predicting the outcome of a basketball game

Answer 10

a. dialing a telephone number

Question 11

In science, when a hypothesis or group of hypotheses supported by repeated experimental evidence holds
true through time, it can be developed into a ________. It is not a guess. It is not static. It is tentative and
dynamic and can be adjusted when new, compelling evidence is discovered. It is typically an overarching
explanation that best fits all of the available information or evidence.
a. law c. hypothesis
b. mathematical theorem d. theory

Answer 11

d. theory

Question 12

The human heart pumps blood throughout the blood vessels in the body. This is a scientific
a. theory. c. fact.
b. hypothesis. d. experiment.

Answer 12

c. fact

Question 13

You often experience numbness and pain in the thumb and first two fingers on your right hand. You go to the
doctor who suspects that carpal tunnel syndrome is the reason for the numbness and pain. The doctor then
orders a simple test to see how fast nerve impulses are moving up and down your arm. The doctor’s
preliminary diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome is a(n)
a. theory. c. experiment.
b. fact. d. hypothesis.

Answer 13

d. hypothesis

Question 14

Which of the following would be a theory?
a. Specific pathogens are directly responsible for specific diseases and conditions.
b. A fungal infection is responsible for the spread of white noses and associated higher
mortality across bat populations and species.
c. Bats with white noses have been observed in the wild.
d. A fungal infection causes bats to wake up repeatedly during the winter and use up their fat
reserves

Answer 14

a. Specific pathogens are directly responsible for specific diseases and conditions.

Question 15

In 1890, Robert Koch developed a hypothesis regarding the cause of communicable diseases. He designed
an experiment and collected data that supported his hypothesis. Later, his experiment was repeated by
many other scientists who used other pathogens and documented similar results that not only supported
their hypotheses but also supported Koch’s original hypothesis. These many experiments that supported
multiple hypotheses regarding the cause of communicable diseases contributed to the development of the
a. theory of evolution. c. theory of relativity.
b. germ theory of disease. d. law of gravity.

Answer 15

b. germ theory of disease

Question 16

Scientific understanding can always be challenged, and even changed, with new ways of observing and
with different interpretations. For example, new tools and techniques have resulted in new observations
and the discovery of additional information. This has resulted in revised ways of understanding how
molecules are moved across the plasma membrane of cells. Hence, there is no certainty in science, only
degrees of probability (likelihood) and potential for change. In light of this understanding, which of the
following statements is most meaningful?
a. Scientific knowledge is absolute knowledge.
b. Scientific knowledge is necessarily contingent knowledge.
c. Scientific knowledge is a static and unchanging collection of facts.
d. Scientific knowledge is rigid collection of invariable facts

Answer 16

b. Scientific knowledge is necessarily contingent knowledge.

Question 17

Which of the following would be a fact?
a. Specific pathogens are directly responsible for specific diseases and conditions.
b. A fungal infection is solely responsible for the spread of white noses and associated higher
mortality across bat populations and species.
c. Bats with white noses have been observed in the wild.
d. A fungal infection causes bats to wake up repeatedly during the winter and use up their fat
reserves

Answer 17

c. Bats with white noses have been observed in the wild.

Question 18

Which of the following sequences correctly represents the biological hierarchy of a multicellular
organism?
a. cells → tissues → organs → individual
b. tissues → organs → cells → individual
c. individual → cells → organ systems → tissues
d. organ systems → organs → tissues → individual

Answer 18

a. cells → tissues → organs → individual

Question 19

A tissue is defined as
a. a group of cells that performs a unique set of tasks in the body.
b. two or more atoms held together by strong chemical bonds.
c. the basic unit of life.
d. a network of organs which perform a wide range of functions

Answer 19

a. a group of cells that performs a unique set of tasks in the body.

Question 20

Bats use echolocation to orient themselves and locate objects. Doing this requires special adaptations in
their inner ear, midbrain, and auditory cortex of their cerebrum. The echolocation system of bats is an
example of
a. a cell. c. an organ.
b. a tissue. d. an organ system

Answer 20

d. an organ system

Question 21

The caves in upstate New York, where Alan Hicks’ team first noticed the deaths of thousands of bats,
represent the
a. biosphere where the bats lived. c. ecosystem where the bats lived.
b. biome where the bats lived. d. community where the bats lived

Answer 21

c. ecosystem where the bats lived.

Question 22

→ C6H12O6 + 6 O2. What are the reactants?
a. H2O and CO2 c. H2O and O2
b. C6H12O6 and CO2 d. C6H12O6 and CO2

Answer 22

a. H2O and CO2

Question 23

Which of the following is an organic compound?
a. water (H2O) c. ammonia (NH3)
b. methane (CH4) d. carbon dioxide (CO2)

Answer 23

b. methane (CH4)

Question 24

A group of astronauts returning from outer space studied samples taken from their lunar landing. They
found that one of their samples was coated with organic compounds. Which of the following statements
must be correct about their samples?
a. The compounds must be covered with ammonia (NH3) and water vapor.
b. The samples must lack water, but contain DNA.
c. The samples must contain carbon atoms.
d. The specimen must lack water, pesticides, and added hormones

Answer 24

c. The samples must contain carbon atoms.

Question 25

The central element found in organic molecules is a. calcium. c. silicon. b. carbon. d. sodium.

Answer 25

b. Carbon

Question 26

Which of the following is a monomer that can be commonly made from components in Earth’s atmosphere? a. nucleotides c. triglycerides b. amino acids d. monosaccharides

Answer 26

b. amino acids

Question 27

In the chemical reaction that forms hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), hydrogen and oxygen share electrons creating ________ bonds between the two atoms. a. covalent c. hydrogen b. peptide d. ionic

Answer 27

a. covalent

Question 28

Individual water molecules orient toward each other because of the ________ bonds that form between them. a. covalent c. hydrogen b. peptide d. ionic

Answer 28

c. hydrogen

Question 29

Which of the following distinguishes ionic bonds from covalent bonds? a. Ionic bonds form between the same two elements, whereas covalent bonds form between different elements. b. Ionic bonds hold together compounds that do not dissolve in water, whereas covalent bonds hold together molecules that dissolve in water. c. Ionic bonds hold together oppositely charged atoms, whereas covalent bonds hold together atoms that share electrons. d. Ionic bonds consist of atoms with partial charges, whereas covalent bonds consist of atoms with full positive and negative charges.

Answer 29

c. Ionic bonds hold together oppositely charged atoms, whereas covalent bonds hold together atoms that share electrons

Question 30

When calcium (Ca++) and chloride (Cl−) interact with one another they bond using ________ bonds. a. hydrogen c. covalent b. peptide d. ionic

Answer 30

d. ionic

Question 31

Which of the following types of bonds hold hydrogen and oxygen atoms together within an individual water molecule? a. hydrogen bond c. polar covalent bond b. peptide bond d. ionic bond

Answer 31

c. polar covalent bond

Question 32

Which of the following is likely to participate in ionic bonding? a. Li+ c. He b. H2O d. C6H12O6

Answer 32

a. Li+

Question 33

Which of the following is correct about hydrogen bonds? a. Individually, hydrogen bonds are very strong. b. They form between neighboring oxygen atoms. c. They do not involve binding with a hydrogen atom. d. They form due to partial positive and partial negative charges on atoms

Answer 33

d. They form due to partial positive and partial negative charges on atoms.

Question 34

Neighboring water molecules are held together with hydrogen bonds because a. partially negatively charged oxygen atoms and partially positively charged hydrogen atoms on separate water molecules are attracted to one another. b. the hydrogen and oxygen atoms within a single water molecule share electrons equally. c. the oxygen and hydrogen atoms that participate in hydrogen bonding are sharing electons within a single valence shell. d. ionic interactions repel water molecules from hydrophobic oils that may be present in a solution

Answer 34

a. partially negatively charged oxygen atoms and partially positively charged hydrogen atoms on separate water molecules are attracted to one another.

Question 35

Which of the following explains why ice floats on water? a. The crystal structure of ice is more regular than that seen in liquid water. b. The distance between water molecules in ice is greater than in liquid water. c. The cool temperature of ice reduces the extent of molecular motion relative to liquid water. d. When ice forms, the hydrogen bond in the water molecule becomes nonpolar; ice behaves like oil.

Answer 35

b. The distance between water molecules in ice is greater than in liquid water

Question 36

When sodium chloride (Na+Cl−) is dissolved in water, the sodium ion a. is attracted to the hydrogen atoms of water molecules. b. is repelled by the oxygen atoms of water molecules. c. is attracted to other sodium ions that are being dissolved. d. is attracted to the oxygen atoms of water molecules.

Answer 36

d. is attracted to the oxygen atoms of water molecules.

Question 37

Oil and water do not mix together well because a. water is polar and oil is nonpolar. b. only identical molecules of the same chemical can easily mix together. c. water has hydrogen bonds and oil is polar. d. water and oil are covalently bonded together

Answer 37

a. water is polar and oil is nonpolar.

Question 38

You are given an unknown substance and asked to determine whether it is polar or nonpolar. The easiest way to do this would be to a. determine whether the compound is held together by hydrogen bonds. b. determine the number of electrons in the compound’s outer shell. c. mix the compound with an ionic substance to see whether its bonds can withstand the pressure. d. determine whether the compound dissolves in water.

Answer 38

d. determine whether the compound dissolves in water.

Question 39

In making your morning tea, you drop a sugar cube into the hot water. You stir the mixture but no longer see the sugar cube at the bottom of your mug. In this scenario, the sugar is a. nonpolar. c. an acid. b. the solvent. d. a solute.

Answer 39

d. a solute.

Question 40

Nucleotides a. are the building blocks of proteins. b. are involved in every chemical reaction in the cell. c. form physical structures such as hair. d. are the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Answer 40

d. are the building blocks of nucleic acids

Question 41

The genetic material found in all living things is made of building blocks called a. nucleotides. c. phospholipids. b. monosaccharides. d. steroids

Answer 41

a. nucleotides

Question 42

Which of the following could be built solely from glucose molecules? a. fatty acids c. oils b. DNA d. starch

Answer 42

d. starch

Question 43

Which of the following is/are part of accepted cell theory? a. Every living organism is composed of one or more cells, and all living cells have membrane-enclosed organelles. b. All living cells arise from preexisting cells, and all living cells have membrane-enclosed organelles. c. All living cells have membrane-enclosed organelles. d. Every living organism is composed of one or more cells, and all living cells arise from preexisting cells.

Answer 43

d. Every living organism is composed of one or more cells, and all living cells arise from preexisting cells.

Question 44

Which of the following types of organisms are commonly single-celled (unicellular)? a. bacteria, some fungi (yeast), and many protozoans b. many fungi, some protozoans, and plants c. plants and animals d. many fungi, plants, and animals

Answer 44

a. bacteria, some fungi (yeast), and many protozoans

Question 45

Adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) are the ________ building blocks for DNA; they are organized in different combinations to code for all of the proteins needed to accomplish everything the cell does. a. carbohydrate c. protein b. nucleotide d. lipid

Answer 45

b. nucleotide

Question 46

Which of the following can be used to accurately describe viruses? a. They are small, cellular infectious agents that are only capable of reproducing when inside a living cell, and they can attack plants as well as animals. b. Each is typically a piece of genetic material encased in proteins, and they can reproduce on their own. c. They can attack plants, animals, and protozoans, and each is typically a piece of self- replicating genetic material encased in proteins. d. Typically just a piece of genetic material encased in proteins, viruses are small, non- cellular infectious agents that are only capable of reproducing when inside a living cell such as those of plants, animals, fungi, protozoans, or bacteria.

Answer 46

d. Typically just a piece of genetic material encased in proteins, viruses are small, non- cellular infectious agents that are only capable of reproducing when inside a living cell such as those of plants, animals, fungi, protozoans, or bacteria.

Question 47

Some antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections kill the bacteria by chemically punching holes in the cell wall of the bacteria, by preventing the bacteria from replicating their DNA, or by many other actions that ultimately cause cell death. Why do these antibiotics not work to kill viruses and cure people of viral infections? a. Antibiotics cannot kill a virus because viruses are not living cells with cell walls to puncture, nor do they have their own organelles to replicate DNA. b. Viruses are just too virulent to be killed by those antibiotics. c. Viruses are too quick for the antibiotics to work. d. Viruses mutate at a rate faster than the rate at which antibiotics can work to kill them.

Answer 47

a. Antibiotics cannot kill a virus because viruses are not living cells with cell walls to puncture, nor do they have their own organelles to replicate DNA.

Question 48

Why do scientists repeat their experiments over and over again? a. They never get it right the first time. b. They can never be sure what procedural steps they followed the first few times. c. They must make sure the results were not an accident and that they are repeatable. d. They simply have extra time and resources that must be used.

Answer 48

c. They must make sure the results were not an accident and that they are repeatable.

Question 49

Living cells have an intact phospholipid bilayer that separates the cell from its external environment; this structure is commonly referred to as the a. nucleus. c. endoplasmic reticulum. b. mitochondria. d. plasma membrane.

Answer 49

d. plasma membrane.

Question 50

From what substance do liposomes spontaneously form and why are they important? a. Liposomes spontaneously form from DNA and proteins and provide a rigid structure to support the cell. b. They are formed from phospholipid monolayers. These phospholipid monolayers provide a stable barrier between the internal and external environments. c. Liposomes were the first rigid cell walls providing support for the living cell and a barrier between the external and internal environments. d. Liposomes form from phospholipid bilayers and provide a barrier between an external environment and an internal environment; this creates an internal environment where specific chemical reactions needed to establish a living cell can occur separately from the external environment.

Answer 50

d. Liposomes form from phospholipid bilayers and provide a barrier between an external environment and an internal environment; this creates an internal environment where specific chemical reactions needed to establish a living cell can occur separately from the external environment.

Question 51

Which of the following would be likely to require facilitated diffusion to move across the plasma membrane? a. water (H2O) b. sodium ions (Na+), hydrogen ions (H+), sugars, and amino acids c. oxygen (O2) d. carbon dioxide (CO2)

Answer 51

b. sodium ions (Na+), hydrogen ions (H+), sugars, and amino acids

Question 52

Many important cellular functions in eukaryotic cells occur within membrane-enclosed organelles, such as cellular respiration occurring within the mitochondria. The membranes of the mitochondria provide a place for enzymes needed for cellular respiration to anchor and function. Prokaryotic cells must also carry out respiration but do not have mitochondria. Where is the most likely place that enzymes needed for cellular respiration are anchored and functioning? a. the cell wall c. the cytosol b. the chromosome d. the plasma membrane

Answer 52

d. the plasma membrane

Question 53

Ribosomes are very small nonmembranous organelles that can either exist freely in the cytoplasm or be embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum of a cell; they are associated with the synthesis of a. lipids. c. nucleic acids. b. proteins. d. carbohydrates.

Answer 53

b. proteins

Question 54

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum a. is the site where lipids destined for other cellular compartments are manufactured. b. produces the energy needed to run chemical reactions in the cell. c. converts sunlight into chemical energy. d. stores water, nutrients, and enzymes

Answer 54

a. is the site where lipids destined for other cellular compartments are manufactured.

Question 55

The Golgi apparatus a. is the place where a cell’s genetic material is stored. b. sorts proteins and lipids and sends them to their final destination. c. captures energy from sunlight and sends it to the mitochondria. d. creates energy by converting ribosomes to proteins

Answer 55

b. sorts proteins and lipids and sends them to their final destination.

Question 56

The boundary that surrounds the contents of the nucleus is the a. plasma membrane. c. nuclear pore. b. nuclear envelope. d. cytosol.

Answer 56

b. nuclear envelope

Question 57

Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts? a. They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell. b. They capture energy from sunlight. c. They give an animal cell its shape. d. They contain an entire copy of a cell’s genetic material

Answer 57

b. They capture energy from sunlight.

Question 58

Your muscle cells need large amounts of ATP to function in the movement of your body. Which of the following organelles would you expect to be especially abundant in muscle cells? a. mitochondria c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. ribosomes d. lysosomes

Answer 58

a. mitochondria

Question 59

The leaves of a plant typically have different tissue layers that function in different ways. The epidermis layer functions like a covering of skin to protect the leaf while vascular bundles carry water and nutrients through the leaf. The palisade mesophyll layer is responsible for most of the photosynthesis that occurs while the spongy mesophyll layer underneath it aids in the exchange of gases (CO2 and O2) and water vapor. In which leaf tissues would you expect to find the highest density of chloroplasts? a. epidermis c. spongy mesophyll b. vascular bundles d. palisade mesophyll

Answer 59

d. palisade mesophyll

Question 60

Which of the following would be the best analogy for the function of the Golgi apparatus? a. the machine that assembles a product b. a worker in a factory who places labels on products and then packs them into a shipping box c. the garbage truck that hauls away the wastes produced as a product is made d. the blueprints for making the product

Answer 60

b. a worker in a factory who places labels on products and then packs them into a shipping box

Question 61

The energy required for life processes must be extracted from an organism’s a. nucleus. c. predators. b. environment. d. biosynthesis.

Answer 61

b. environment.

Question 62

Enzymes can catalyze a reaction only if a. they encounter a molecule of ATP. b. their active site is sufficiently oxidized. c. they have both products in their active site at the same time. d. they encounter a substrate that fits their active site

Answer 62

d. they encounter a substrate that fits their active site

Question 63

A given enzyme a. can be used for many different kinds of chemical reactions. b. is permanently changed during a chemical reaction. c. has a special site where the products bind before the reaction begins. d. increases the rate of a particular reaction

Answer 63

d. increases the rate of a particular reaction

Question 64

The capture and use of energy by living organisms involves numerous chemical reactions. Collectively these processes are known as a. metabolism. c. anabolic reactions. b. respiration. d. catabolic reactions.

Answer 64

a. metabolism.

Question 65

Chemical reactions that break down lipids are a. catabolic. c. metabolic. b. anabolic. d. respiration.

Answer 65

a. catabolic.

Question 66

Some kinds of drain cleaners use enzymes rather than strong, more dangerous chemicals. These enzymes must be able to a. catalyze a catabolic reaction. b. raise the energy of the reaction that clears the clog. c. create energy that can be used to break up the clog. d. catalyze an anabolic reaction.

Answer 66

a. catalyze a catabolic reaction.

Question 67

Which of the following is either consumed or synthesized in virtually every cellular reaction? a. sugars c. DNA b. enzymes d. ATP

Answer 67

d. ATP

Question 68

When ATP breaks down into ADP and a phosphate group, a. energy is absorbed by ADP and transferred to enzymes. b. energy is released and can power cellular activities. c. ADP becomes the active site in an enzyme. d. the energy in the broken bond is transferred to the phosphate group.

Answer 68

b. energy is released and can power cellular activities.

Question 69

Cells contain the molecule GTP (guanosine triphosphate). Would this molecule be useful as an energy carrier (similar to ATP)? a. No, because it does not contain the adenosine necessary for storing energy. b. No, because it contains fewer phosphates than ATP. c. Yes, because it contains a nitrogenous base just like ATP. d. Yes, because it contains the same number of phosphates as does ATP

Answer 69

d. Yes, because it contains the same number of phosphates as does ATP

Question 70

As an energy carrier, ATP differs from NADPH in that a. ATP transfers energy through phosphorylation, whereas NADPH donates electrons and hydrogen ions. b. ATP transfers energy through redox reactions, whereas NADPH uses phosphorylation. c. NADPH is involved in a larger variety of chemical reactions than ATP. d. NADPH is made by Photosystem I, whereas ATP is made by Photosystem II.

Answer 70

a. ATP transfers energy through phosphorylation, whereas NADPH donates electrons and hydrogen ions.

Question 71

The enzyme rubisco is important to the process of a. catabolism. c. glycolysis. b. fermentation. d. carbon fixation.

Answer 71

d. carbon fixation.

Question 72

What best summarizes the events of the Calvin cycle? a. The cycle uses ATP and NADPH to produce sugars. b. The cycle moves electrons from Photosystem II to Photosystem I. c. The cycle moves light-energized electrons to Photosystem II. d. The cycle absorbs light from the light reactions.

Answer 72

a. The cycle uses ATP and NADPH to produce sugars.

Question 73

What is the role of water in photosynthesis? a. Water provides a phosphate group to ATP. b. Water captures light energy and transfers it to the electron transport chain. c. Water provides electrons to the chlorophyll. d. Water combines with carbon dioxide (CO2) to make glucose

Answer 73

c. Water provides electrons to the chlorophyll.

Question 74

Which of the following statements describe the function of the light reaction in photosynthesis? a. As electrons move through the light reaction, they release energy that is used to concentrate protons in the thylakoid. b. As electrons move through the light reaction, they catalyze the formation of ATP. c. The light reaction releases CO2 from glucose. d. The light reaction captures and stores the electrons given off by NADPH.

Answer 74

a. As electrons move through the light reaction, they release energy that is used to concentrate protons in the thylakoid.

Question 75

Each time you take a breath you are bringing in the oxygen you need to stay alive. The ultimate source of the oxygen used by all aerobic organisms comes from a reaction that breaks down a. carbon dioxide. c. water. b. ATP. d. NADPH.

Answer 75

c. water.

Question 76

Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis and cellular respiration is accurate? a. Photosynthesis is a catabolic pathway whereas cellular respiration is an anabolic pathway. b. Water is formed during photosynthesis but broken apart during cellular respiration. c. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration require electron transport chains. d. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration produce CO2 as metabolic end products.

Answer 76

c. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration require electron transport chains.

Question 77

Which of the following statements about cell division is correct? a. It is the process by which organisms grow and maintain their tissues. b. It is no longer necessary once an organism reaches maturity. c. It occurs in two sequential stages in all cells: mitosis and meiosis. d. It is the process by which fertilization occurs.

Answer 77

a. It is the process by which organisms grow and maintain their tissues.

Question 78

The goal of meiosis is to a. create genetically identical offspring. b. protect cells from getting cancer. c. produce eggs and sperm. d. regulate progression through the cell cycle.

Answer 78

c. produce eggs and sperm.

Question 79

Which of the following choices states a correct reason why the process of cell division is different for prokaryotic than for eukaryotic cells? a. Prokaryotes have a circular DNA molecule. b. Prokaryotic cells do not undergo cell division. c. Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells. d. Prokaryotic DNA contains different bases from those in eukaryotic DNA.

Answer 79

a. Prokaryotes have a circular DNA molecule.

Question 80

Which of the following accurately describes the similarities between mitosis, meiosis, and binary fission? a. All three of the processes generate haploid gametes. b. All three of the processes occur in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. c. All three of the processes are used to produce daughter cells. d. All three of the processes generate clones

Answer 80

c. All three of the processes are used to produce daughter cells.

Question 81

A researcher is recording the process of bacteria cell division using time-lapse microscopy. Which of the following processes would she be observing? a. meiosis b. mitosis c. binary fission d. She may be observing either A or B depending on the growth conditions

Answer 81

c. binary fission

Question 82

Which of the following is associated with mitosis? a. independent assortment c. crossing over b. maintenance of chromosome number d. reductional division

Answer 82

b. maintenance of chromosome number

Question 83

Some daughter cells are described as clones. For this description to be appropriate, the daughter cells must a. show the same differentiation characteristics as the parent cell. b. separate from one another and experience an independent existence. c. contain a set of DNA that is identical to that of the parent cell. d. have been produced by meiotic cell division.

Answer 83

c. contain a set of DNA that is identical to that of the parent cell.

Question 84

Which of the following differentiates meiosis from mitosis? a. Mitosis is used for the repair of cells, whereas meiosis creates cells for sexual reproduction. b. In mitosis four identical daughter cells are produced, whereas two genetically different cells are produced in meiosis. c. Meiosis is a form of asexual division, whereas mitosis is a form of sexual division. d. Mitosis occurs in prokaryotic cells, whereas meiosis occurs in eukaryotic cells

Answer 84

a. Mitosis is used for the repair of cells, whereas meiosis creates cells for sexual reproduction.

Question 85

Which of the following is a difference between binary fission and mitosis? a. replication of the genetic material c. cell growth and expansion b. breakdown of the nuclear envelope d. increase in cytoplasmic factors

Answer 85

b. breakdown of the nuclear envelope

Question 86

The process of mitosis is thought to have evolved from binary fission. What similarities exist between these processes? a. The DNA being separated is attached to a membrane during both processes. b. Both processes involve the separation of more than one piece of DNA. c. Both processes include DNA segregation. d. Both process occur in bacterial cells.

Answer 86

c. Both processes include DNA segregation.

Question 87

A duplicated chromosome consists of ________ sister chromatid(s). a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 6

Answer 87

b. 2

Question 88

Which of the following is true of the chromosomes in a homologous pair? a. They both came from the organism’s mother. b. They both came from the organism’s father. c. They do not join together during meiosis. d. They carry the same genes.

Answer 88

d. They carry the same genes.

Question 89

Which of the following best exemplifies homologous chromosomes? a. a pair of sister chromatids attached at the centromere b. unpackaged DNA c. a tetrad d. the mitotic spindle

Answer 89

c. a tetrad

Question 90

Homologous chromosomes a. are only found in bacterial cells. b. are only in the cell during S phase. c. consist of a maternal and paternal copy of each chromosome. d. consist of six sister chromatids that are held together at the centrosome.

Answer 90

c. consist of a maternal and paternal copy of each chromosome.

Question 91

Which of the following cell types is produced by meiosis? a. skin cells c. pancreatic cells b. muscle cells d. sperm cells

Answer 91

d. sperm cells

Question 92

The successful union of one male and one female gamete forms a new single cell known as a a. chromatid. c. zygote. b. spindle. d. gametocyte.

Answer 92

c. zygote

Question 93

Which of the following foods is most likely to contain haploid cells? a. a sirloin steak c. a stalk of celery b. an apple d. an egg

Answer 93

d. an egg

Question 94

If a plant has a total of 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be present in each of its gametes? a. 36 c. 9 b. 18 d. 6

Answer 94

c. 9

Question 95

Gametes are produced by meiosis rather than mitosis because a. mitosis would produce too many sister cells. b. meiosis reduces the chromosome number so that zygotes produced will have one full genome. c. meiosis doubles the chromosome number so that each gamete has twice the usual number of genes. d. meiosis ensures that the gametes are identical to the cell that produced them.

Answer 95

b. meiosis reduces the chromosome number so that zygotes produced will have one full genome.