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Part 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a computer environment connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single authority and security policy

A

Enclave

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2
Q

What do enclaves provide?

A

Cybersecurity capabilities such as boundary defense, key management, incident response, and delivery of common applications such as automation and email.

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3
Q

What is a networking backbone of an enclave responsible for connecting system devices and hosts by providing data transport capabilities such as operational or wide area and backbone networks that provides for the application of cybersecurity controls?

A

Network Environment

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4
Q

What are local area networks, servers, hosts, operating systems, peripherals, and applications apart of?

A

Computing Environment

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5
Q

What are the requirments for Cyber Secuity Work Force personnel?

A

Approved military training
Academic Degrees
Commercial Cyber Security Certificates
Approved Training and credentials

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6
Q

What is an object or person or entity that is a danger to an information system?

A

Threat

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7
Q

What are Insider Threats?

A

Junior and non trained personnel
Disgruntled personnel
System Administrators

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8
Q

What are outsider threats?

A 
Nation states
Hackers
Terrorists
Organized crime
Industrial competitors 
Other criminal elements
International press
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9
Q

Why do Administrators pose an increased threat?

A

Access to systems
Administrative passwords
Extensive knowledge of seucrity settings
Extensive training in attack methodologies

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10
Q

Why is it important to disable group accounts?

A

Group accounts remove non repudiation

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11
Q

What is a weakness that can be exploited in an information system or its components?

A

Vulnerability

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12
Q

What is the likelihood that a vulnerability can be exploited?

A

Risk

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13
Q

How to we classify a network’s vulnerabilities?

A 
DISA severity codes 
I - immediately
II - within 90 days 
III - within 180 days 
IV - within a year
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14
Q

What does IAVA stand for and what is the priority associated with it?

A

Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert

High priority

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15
Q

What does IAVB stand for and what is the priority associated with it?

A

Information Assurance Vulnerability Bulletin

Medium Priority

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16
Q

What does IAVT stand for and what is the priority associated with it?

A

Information Assurance Vulnerability Technical Advisory

Low priority

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17
Q

What is self propagating and does not require user action?

A

Worm

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18
Q

What is self replicating and can corrupt or delete data and requires user interaction?

A

Virus

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19
Q

What is malware that is disguised as a legitimate program, does not replicate, and requires interaction with the hacker?

A

Trojan

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20
Q

What is a piece of code designed to execute when conditions are met?

A

Logic bomb

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21
Q

What aquires information by social means?

A

Social Engineering

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22
Q

What is phishing that appears to be from within the organization?

A

Spear phishing

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23
Q

What is unsolicitated electronic messages that can be malware?

A

Spam

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24
Q

What are three types of password attacks

A

Dictionary attacks- uses all the words in a dictionary or txt file
Hybrid- dictionary using alpha numberic symbols and numbers
Brute force- takes the most time, most powerful cracking method, random generation of passwords and associated hashes

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25
What are the risks asscoiates with Portable Electronic Devices?
Loss/ Theft Cellular cloning Bluetooth hacking attempts Data leaks
26
What are the risks associated with Embarkables?
Malware | Data leaks / spillage
27
What is a statement of actions to be taken before, during, and after a disaster or emergency?
Contingency Plan
28
What are the 4 types of Accreditation decisions?
Authority to Operate (ATO) Interim Authority to Operate (IATO) Interim Authorization to Test (IATT) Denial of Authroization to Operate (DATO)
29
What is an analysis of threats and vulnerabilities?
Risk assessment
30
What is an analysis of trade offs?
Risk mitigation
31
What is reactive or responsive risk management process that facilitates an investigation of and response to an incident?
Evaluation
32
What is the goal of continual assessment?
To identify and assess risk and bring it to an acceptable level
33
What SF is used to mark Unclassified material?
SF 710
34
What SF is used to mark Secret classified material?
SF 707
35
What SF form is used to mark TS classified material?
SF 706
36
What is the process of removing information to prevent data loss (discontinued use)?
Sanitizing
37
What is the process of wiping a hard drive through magnetic means to prevent any means of data extraction using NSA guidlines?
Degausing
38
What type of data is not retained after removal of an electronical power source?
Volitale
39
What type of data is retained even when loss of electrical power sources are removed
Non- volitile
40
What is provides rapid response to threats and minimizes losses and potential spilling and outlines
Emergency Action Plan
41
What mamanges the effects or changes or differences in the configuration of an Information System?
Configuration Management
42
Where can the 7 configuation management codes be found?
NIST 800-53
43
What are the 5 steps in the Configuration Management process?
1. Identify Change 2. Evaluate Change Request 3. Implementation Decision 4. Implement Approved Change Request 5. Continuous Monitoring
44
All naval systems have associated documentation to assist in operations, administration, backup, configuration, troubleshooting, and recovery
``` Operation Guides and Procedures Administrator Guides Back Up Guides Configuration Guides Troubleshooting Guides Recovery Guides ```
45
What are the 4 types of CASREPs?
Initial Update Cancel Correction
46
What are the 6 steps in the 6 step troubleshooting process?
1. Symptom Identification 2. Symptom elaboration 3. Listing probable Faulty Functions (power, security, communications, name resolution) 4. Localizing the Probable Faulty Function 5. Localizing the Probable Faulty Component 6. Failure Analysis
47
What is a remediation decision?
Permanent fix, altercation to the start up configuration
48
What is an alleviation decision
Temporary fix, changes made to the running configuration
49
What assists in non repudiation?
Logging by providing hard evidence of user or system access and modification
50
Where are LINUX/ UNIX logs stored? | Where are windos logs stored?
/var/logs | Event viewer
51
How to you change access to logs in linux? What code will give you RWX?
CHMOD | 777
52
What is the biggest threat to physical security?
Sailors
53
What form has the information about a security container to include model, location, and a list of contacts to notify in the event of a comprimise or unauthorized access?
SF 700
54
What form is used to annotate the opening and closing of a security container?
SF 702
55
What form is used for end of day checks?
SF 701
56
What is the only approved shipping for TS
DCS
57
What is EMCON
Emissions security
58
What CTO annotates how often you scan with ACAS?
CTO 11-16 | Monthly
59
What are 4 causes of non compliance?
1. Asset not in inventory 2. Not restarted so didnt apply 3. Installed but did not eliminate vulnerability 4. Installed, fixed, now new vulnerability exists
60
What is a governement standard for benchmark files that group security settings based on OS family, type, system purpose?
STIG
61
What is included process for SCAN PATCH SCAN?
``` Scan Upload Investigate Patch Reboot Scan ```
62
What kind of access does RETINA need?
Administrative / root level access
63
What types of discovery scans do SCCVI use?
ICMP Discovery TCP Discovery UDP Discovery
64
What are the types of threat databases?
NVD - national vulnerability database - gov | OVSDB - Open source vulnerability database - commercial
65
What is ACAS comprised of?
Security Center - dashboard displays results of compliance scans Nessus scans - data at rest Blue notifications are unread
66
What kind of crediatials does ACAS use?
SSH, SMB, SNMP, KERBEROS
67
What are the 3 types of scans in ACAS?
IAVA STIG Discovery
68
What is used to fill in fields like unit name, region, AOR on Reports?
Add Atrribute Set
69
Where do you list IP addresses for switch interfaces?
"Do Not Scan" List
70
What are the three output types of ACAS Security Center Reports?
.CSV - useful for uploading to a databse .PDF - useful for adding a coversheet .RDT - looks like a word document
71
Which report should you use for the weekly cyber security report?
Monthly Executive Report - high level overview, progress made with mitigation efforts, how long vulnerabilities have remained on network
72
Where do you upload scan results?
Vulnerability Remediation Asset Manager | VRAM
73
Who has to assign newly added assets not previously seen by VRAM?
System admin needs to make sure they are uploaded to the correct system / asset so the correct baseline can be used to determine vulnerability and ownership
74
What is VRAM used for
Asset compliance
75
What are 4 types of results for asset complaince in VRAM?
Site owned, POR owned, False positive, investigation required
76
What are 4 communication errors?
Scans stuck in queue Scans report zero assets Failure errors Results not refreshing
77
If you have communication errors what can you do?
Reboot | 6 step troubleshooting procesz
78
Disa best practice guide recooments scanning the what interface of routers?
Management
79
Where is the pluggin repository?
Disa website
80
What are the 4 layers of the TCP/IP model.
Application Transport Internet Network interface
81
What layer provides the application layer eith session and datagram communication services such as TCP / UDP operation and segmentation of data?
Transport layer
82
What layer is reponsible for routing ip addresses and packaging and allows devices to connect to path via routing protocols?
Internet layer
83
What are the 5 http responses?
1. Informational - request recieved 2. Success 3. Redirection 4. Client error 5. Server error
84
What determines MAC if IP is known?
Address Resolution Protocol ARP
85
What distributes IP addresses to destination hosts
Dynamic Host Configuation Protocol | DHCP
86
What is the messenger service for IPs?
ICMP
87
What is a LAN standard that can run at speeds of 200mbps and uses token passing media access on fiber optic cable?
FDDI
88
What does the scope incoperate?
Services, applications, internal / perimeter devices, valuable data
89
What are the 5 phases of penetration testing?
``` Planning Reconnaissance Vulnerability identification Exploit Clean up ```
90
What goes into the assessment phase?
Information gathering- internet searches, social media, job searches Network mapping- OS fingerprinting, ip addresses, running services
91
What is the type of penetration testing where all information is known about the system? Usually inside the perimiter?
White box
92
What type of penetration testing is where no information of the system is known? Usually outside the boundary?
Black box
93
What type of penetration testing has some knowledge known but not all?
Grey box
94
What is information gathering, ip blocking info, employee info, financial history, business partnerships?
Passive
95
What type of penetration testing makes contact with employees, uses social engineering?
Active
96
What adds a layer of security to switches?
VLANs
97
What controls the bundling of several physical ports together to form a single logical channel?
Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
98
What eliminates loops and broadcast storms?
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
99
What transitions a port from a blocking state directly to forwarding by passing the listening and learning states?
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

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