Part 11 - Pulmonology Flashcards
(129 cards)
1
Q
True or false: Asthma can present at any age
A
True
p. 1669
2
Q
_____ variant in the beta2-receptor has been associated with reduced response to beta 2 agonists in asthma
A
Arg-Gly-16
p. 1670
3
Q
Genetic predisposition to asthma: the most consistent findings have been associations with polymorphism of genes on what chromosome?
A
5q
p. 1670
4
Q
What is the “hygiene hypothesis” in asthma?
A
Lack of infections in early childhood preserves the T helper 2 (TH2) cell bias at birth, while exposure to infections and endotoxins result in a shift towards a predominant protective TH1 immune response
(p. 1670)
5
Q
True or false: The presence of intestinal parasite infection may be associated with a reduced risk for asthma
A
True
p. 1670
6
Q
Diets low in what substances/vitamins are associated with an increased risk for asthma?
A
Vitamins A, C, D Magnesium Selenium Omega-3 polyunsaturated fats (p. 1670)
7
Q
Diets high in what substances/vitamins are associated with increased risk for asthma?
A
Sodium
Omega-6 polyunsaturated fats
(p. 1670)
8
Q
True or false: Obesity is an independent risk factor for asthma
A
True
p. 1670
9
Q
When is occupational asthma suspected?
A
When symptoms improve during weekends and holidays
p. 1670
10
Q
Endogenous risk factors for asthma
A
Genetic predisposition Autopsy Airway hyperresponsiveness Gender Ethnicity Obesity Early viral infections (p. 1670)
11
Q
Environmental risk factors for asthma
A
Allergens (Indoor and outdoor) Occupational sensitizers Passive smoking Respiratory infections Diet Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) (p. 1670)
12
Q
Asthma triggers
A
Allergens Upper respiratory tract viral infections Exercise and hyperventilation Cold air Sulfur dioxide and irritant gases Drugs (beta blockers, aspirin) Stress Irritants (household sprays, paint fumes) (p. 1670)
13
Q
True or false: Patients with nonatopic or intrinsic asthma usually show later onset of disease and have more severe, persistent asthma
A
True
p. 1671
14
Q
What is the most common allergen to trigger asthma?
A
Dermatophagoides species
p. 1671
15
Q
What is thunderstorm asthma?
A
When pollen grains are disrupted in thunderstorms and particles that may be released can trigger severe asthma exacerbations
(p. 1671)
16
Q
True or false: The use of beta blockers in asthma is dangerous, including topical medications
A
True
p. 1671
17
Q
Mechanism for worsening asthma with the use of beta blockers
A
Cholinergic bronchoconstriction (p. 1671)
18
Q
When does exercise-induced asthma typically begin and when does it resolve?
A
Begins after exercise has ended and resolves spontaneously within about 30 minutes
(p. 1671)
19
Q
How can exercise-induced asthma be prevented?
A
Prior administration of beta 2 agonists and anti-leukotrienes
Regular treatment with ICS (best)
(p. 1671)
20
Q
True or false: Laughter may be an asthma trigger
A
True
p. 1671
21
Q
Food preservative that may trigger asthma through the release of sulfur dioxide gas in the stomach
A
Metabisulfite
p. 1671
22
Q
In occupational asthma, there is usually complete recovery if removed from exposure within the first ____ months of symptoms
A
6
p. 1671
23
Q
True or false: Very severe stress (eg. bereavement) may improve asthma symptoms
A
True
p. 1671
24
Q
Inflammation in asthma is found in what anatomical structures?
A
Respiratory mucosa from the trachea to the terminal bronchioles, with predominance in the bronchi (cartilaginous airways)
(p. 1672)
25
Mast cells are activated by allergens through what mechanism?
IgE-mediated
| p. 1672
26
Bronchoconstrictor mediators released by mast cells
Histamine
Prostaglandin D2
Cysteine-leukotrienes
(p. 1672)
27
What cytokine is released from epithelial cells in asthmatic patients and instructs dendritic cells to release chemokines that attract T helper 2 cells?
Thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP)
| p. 1672
28
What cytokine/s released from T helper 2 cells is/are associated with eosinophilic inflammation?
IL-5
| p. 1673
29
What cytokine/s released from T helper 2 cells is/are associated with increased IgE formation?
IL-4
IL-13
(p. 1673)
30
What is the action of inflammatory mediators (eg. histamine, prostaglandin D2, cysteinyl-leukotrienes) in asthma?
1) Contract airway smooth muscle
2) Increase microvascular leakage
3) Increase airway mucus secretion
4) Attract other inflammatory cells
(p. 1673)
31
What are the pathophysiologic mechanisms in asthma?
1) Hypertrophy/hyperplasia of airway smooth muscle cells
2) Mucus hyperplasia
3) Angiogenesis
4) Subepithelial fibrosis
(p. 1673)
32
Anti-inflammatory cytokine/s that may be deficient in asthma
IL-10
IL-12
(p. 1674)
33
Evidence for increased oxidative stress in asthma
Increased concentrations of 8-isoprostane and increased ethane
(p. 1674)
34
What proinflammatory transcription factors are activated in asthmatic airways and orchestrate the expression of multiple inflammatory genes?
Nuclear factor-KB
Activator protein-1
GATA-3
(p. 1674)
35
Subepithelial fibrosis in asthma is due to deposition of what type/s of collagen?
Type III and V
| p. 1674
36
What cytokine induces mucus hypersecretion in asthma?
IL-13
| p. 1674
37
What is the characteristic physiologic abnormality of asthma?
Airway hyperresponsiveness
| p. 1675
38
What are examples of direct bronchoconstrictors (in asthma)?
Histamine
Metacholine
(p. 1675)
39
Spirometry findings in asthma
Reduced FEV1, FEV1/FVC, PEF
| p. 1675
40
Spirometry: Reversibility in asthma is demonstrated by?
1) >12% and 200 ml increase in FEV1 15 minutes after an inhaled SABA OR
2) 2-4 week trial of oral corticosteroids (prednisone or prednisolone 30-40 mg daily)
(p. 1675)
41
What test can be used for differential diagnosis of chronic cough or when suspecting asthma but with normal pulmonary function tests?
Metacholine or histamine challenge
| p. 1675
42
CXR finding/s in asthma
Usually normal
Hyperinflated lungs (in more severe patients)
Possible pneumothorax (in exacerbations)
(p. 1675)
43
Non-invasive test to measure airway inflammation
Exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO)
| p. 1676
44
Pharmacologic therapy for rapid relief of symptoms of asthma but has little or no effect on the underlying inflammatory process
Bronchodilators
| p. 1676
45
Three classes of bronchodilators in current use for asthma
Beta 2 adrenergic agonists
Anti-cholinergic
Theophylline
(p. 1676)
46
Mode of action of beta 2 agonists for treatment of asthma
1) Relax airway smooth muscle cells of ALL airways
2) Inhibition of mast cell mediator release
3) Reduction in plasma exudation
4) Inhibition of sensory nerve activation
(p. 1676)
47
What is the duration of action of SABAs?
3-6 hours
| p. 1676
48
What is the duration of action of LABAs?
Over 12 hours
| p. 1676
49
For asthma treatment, how many times is Indacaterol given per day?
Once daily
| p. 1676
50
Common side effects of beta 2 agonists
Muscle tremor
Palpitations
(p. 1676)
51
What can be used as an additional bronchodilator in patients with asthma that is not controlled by ICS and LABA combinations?
Anticholinergics
| p. 1676
52
Most common side effect of anticholinergics (used in asthma)?
Dry mouth
| p. 1677
53
Side effects of anticholinergics (seen in asthma treatment)?
Dry mouth
Urinary retention
Glaucoma
(p. 1677)
54
What is the mechanism of action of theophylline in asthma treatment?
Inhibition of phosphodiesterases in airway smooth muscle cells
Activates the key nuclear enzyme histone deacetylase-2 (HDAC2)
(p. 1677)
55
IV medication that may be used in patients with severe asthma exacerbations that are refractory to SABA
IV aminophylline
| p. 1677
56
What is/are the most effective controller medication/s for asthma?
Inhaled corticosteroids
| p. 1677
57
Local side effects of use of inhaled corticosteroids in asthma
Hoarseness (dysphasia)
Oral candidiasis
(p. 1677)
58
How can local side effects of inhaled corticosteroids be reduced?
Use of a large-volume spacer device
| p. 1677
59
Course of oral corticosteroids used to treat exacerbations of asthma with no tapering of the dose needed (according to Harrison's)
Prednisone or prednisolone 30-45 mg once daily for 5-10 days
| p. 1677
60
Asthma controller drugs that inhibit mast cell and sensory nerve activation
Cromones (Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil sodium)
| p. 1678
61
Asthma medication used to neutralize circulating IgE and thus inhibits IgE-mediated reactions
Omalizumab
| p. 1678
62
Asthma medication usually given as a subcutaneous injection every 2-4 weeks
Omalizumab
| p. 1678
63
Arterial blood gas finding/s indicating impending respiratory failure in asthma
Normal or rising PCO2
| p. 1679
64
What is the most common reason for poor control of asthma?
Non-compliance with medications
| p. 1679
65
What is type 1 brittle asthma?
Persistent pattern of variability that may require oral corticosteroids or continuous infusion of beta 2 agonists
(p. 1680)
66
What is type 2 brittle asthma?
1) Generally normal or near normal lung function but precipitous unpredictable falls in lung function that may result in death
2) Do not respond well to corticosteroids
3) Worsening of asthma does not reverse well with inhaled bronchodilators
(p. 1680)
67
What is the most effective therapy for type 2 brittle asthma?
Subcutaneous epinephrine
| p. 1680
68
True or false: Anti-TNF therapy is effective in severe asthma
False
| p. 1680
69
Aspirin-sensitive asthma responds to usual therapy with what medication?
Inhaled corticosteroids
| p. 1680
70
Which drugs used in asthma therapy for pregnant patients have been shown to be safe and without teratogenic potential?
SABA
ICS
Theophylline
(p. 1680)
71
What oral corticosteroid can be used safely in treatment for asthma in pregnant patients?
Prednisone (rather than prednisolone)
| p. 1680
72
What treatment is beneficial in preventing exacerbations of bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?
Oral itraconazole
| p. 1681
73
What are the leading causes of transudative pleural effusion?
Left ventricular failure
Cirrhosis
(p. 1716)
74
What are the leading causes of exudative pleural effusion?
```
Bacterial pneumonia
Malignancy
Viral infection
Pulmonary embolism
(p. 1716)
```
75
What is the Light's criteria? (Components)
1) Pleural fluid protein/serum protein > 0.5
2) Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH > 0.6
3) Pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 the normal upper limit for serum
(p. 1716)
76
What is the most common cause of pleural effusion?
Left ventricular failure
| p. 1716
77
What test is diagnostic that a pleural effusion is secondary to congestive heart failure?
Pleural fluid N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP)
(p. 1717)
78
A pleural fluid NT-proBNP level of ______ is diagnostic that effusion is secondary to congestive heart failure.
>1500 pg/ml
| p. 1717
79
What is the most common cause of exudative pleural effusion?
Parapneumonic effusion
| p. 1717
80
In parapneumonic effusion, a therapeutic thoracentesis should be performed if the free fluid separates the lung from the chest wall by ____ mm.
>10
| p. 1717
81
In parapneumonic effusion, what factors indicate the likely need for an invasive procedure (rather than thoracentesis)?
1) Loculated pleural fluid
2) Pleural fluid pH <7.2
3) Pleural fluid glucose < 3.3 mmol/L (<60 mg/dl)
4) Positive gram stain or culture of the pleural fluid
5) Presence of gross pus in the pleural space
(p. 1717)
82
What is the second most common cause of exudative pleural effusion?
Malignancy
| p. 1717
83
What are the three common malignant etiologies of exudative pleural effusion?
Lung carcinoma
Breast carcinoma
Lymphoma
(p. 1717)
84
What procedures should be considered in a patient with malignant pleural effusion and dyspnea, relieved by thoracentesis?
1) insertion of a small indwelling catheter
2) tube thoracostomy with the instillation of a sclerosing agent such as doxycycline (500 mg)
(p. 1717)
85
Most mesotheliomas are related to exposure to?
Asbestos
| p. 1717
86
CXR findings in mesothelioma
Pleural effusion
Generalized pleural thickening
Shrunken hemithorax
(p. 1717)
87
Pleural effusion secondary to pulmonary embolism is almost always ______ (transudative/exudative)?
Exudative
| p. 1717
88
The diagnosis of pleural effusion secondary to pulmonary embolism is established by what test/imaging study?
Spiral CT scan or pulmonary arteriography
| p. 1717
89
Pleural effusion secondary to TB is due to what mechanism?
Hypersensitivity reaction to tuberculous protein in the pleural space
(p. 1718)
90
The diagnosis of pleural effusion secondary to tuberculosis is established by what test/imaging study?
Adenosine deaminase >40 IU/L OR
Interferon gamma >140 pg/ml
(p. 1718)
91
What is the most common cause of chylothorax?
Trauma
| p. 1718
92
Pleural fluid findings in chylothorax
Milky fluid with triglyceride level >1.2 mmol/L (110 mg/dl)
| p. 1718
93
What is the treatment of choice for most chylothoraxes?
Insertion of chest tube plus administration of octreotide
| p. 1718
94
Why shouldn't patients with chylothorax undergo prolonged tube thoracostomy with chest tube drainage?
Because this will lead to malnutrition and immunologic incompetence
(Pp. 1718)
95
When a diagnostic thoracentesis reveals bloody pleural fluid, what test should be obtained?
Pleural fluid hematocrit
| p. 1718
96
How is a hemothorax diagnosed through pleural fluid findings?
If pleural fluid hematocrit is more than 1/2 of that in the peripheral blood
(p. 1718)
97
When should thoracoscopy or thoracotomy be considered in the setting of hemothorax/pulmonary hemorrhage?
If pulmonary hemorrhage exceeds 200 ml/hr
| p. 1718
98
What should be considered if pleural fluid amylase level is elevated?
Esophageal rupture
Pancreatic disease
(p. 1718)
99
What is Meigs' syndrome?
Benign ovarian tumor + ascites + pleural effusion
| p. 1718
100
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is usually due to what?
Rupture of apical pleural blebs
| p. 1719
101
What is the initial recommended treatment for primary spontaneous pneumothorax?
Simple aspiration
| p. 1719
102
What is the usual cause of secondary pneumothorax?
COPD
| p. 1719
103
Tension pneumothorax usually occurs during what conditions?
Mechanical ventilation
Resuscitative efforts
(p. 1719)
104
Why is there reduced cardiac output in tension pneumothorax?
The positive pressure is transmitted to the mediastinum resulting in decreased venous return to the heart
(p. 1719)
105
In OSAHS, the airway may collapse at various anatomical levels, which are?
1) Soft palate (most common)
2) Tongue base
3) Lateral pharyngeal walls
4) Epiglottis
(p. 1723)
106
OSAHS is most severe during what phase of sleep?
REM
| p. 1724
107
What are the major risk factors of OSAHS?
Obesity
Male sex
(p. 1724)
108
A 10% weight gain is associated with how many % increase in apnea-hypopnea index (AHI)?
30%
| p. 1724
109
What are the risk factors for OSAHS?
1) Obesity
2) Male sex
3) Mandibular retrognathia and micrognathia
4) Positive family history of OSAHS
5) Genetic syndromes that reduce upper airway patency
6) Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
7) Menopause
8) Various endocrine syndromes
(p. 1724)
110
What is the most common complaint in OSAHS?
Snoring
| p. 1724
111
What is the most common daytime symptom of OSAHS?
Sleepiness
| p. 1724
112
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of OSAHS?
```
Overnight polysomnogram (PSG)
(p. 1725)
```
113
What are key physiologic information collected during a sleep study for OSAHS assessment?
1) Measurement of breathing
2) Oxygenation
3) Body position
4) Cardiac rhythm
(p. 1725)
114
In a polysomnogram, apnea is defined as what?
Cessation of airflow for > or = to 10 seconds during sleep, accompanied by persistence/absence of respiratory effort
(p. 1725, Table 319-1)
115
In a polysomnogram, hypopnea is defined as what?
A > or = to 30% reduction in airflow for at least 10 seconds during sleep accompanied by a > or = to 3% desaturation or an arousal
(p. 1725, Table 319-1)
116
In a polysomnogram, how is respiratory effort-related arousal (RERA) defined?
Partially obstructed breath that does not meet the criteria for hypopnea but with evidence of increasing inspiratory effort punctuated by an arousal
(p. 1725, Table 319-1)
117
In a polysomnogram, flow-limited breath is defined as what?
Partially obstructed breath, typically within a hypopnea or RERA, identified by a flattened or "scooped out" inspiratory flow shape
(p. 1725, Table 319-1)
118
Definition of mild OSAHS by number of AHI
5-14 events/hr
| p. 1725, Table 319-2
119
Definition of moderate OSAHS by number of AHI
15-29 events/hr
| p. 1725, Table 319-2
120
Definition of severe OSAHS by number of AHI
> or = to 30 events/hr
| p. 1725, Table 319-2
121
True or false: OSAHS can raise blood pressure to prehypertensive and hypertensive ranges
True
| p. 1725
122
True or false: Depression is commonly reported in OSAHS
True
| p. 1726
123
What is the standard medical therapy with the highest level of evidence for efficacy in OSAHS?
CPAP
| p. 1727
124
Oral appliances can also be used to treat OSAHS however its side effects include what?
Temporomandibular joint pain
Tooth movement
(p. 1727)
125
True or false: Bariatric surgery is an option for obese patients with OSAHS
True
| p. 1727
126
Central sleep apnea is often caused by what?
1) Increased sensitivity to pCO2 --> hyperventilation alternating with apnea
2) Prolonged circulation delay between the pulmonary capillaries and carotid chemoreceptors
(p. 1727)
127
What do you call the condition wherein central apnea is induced by the use of CPAP?
Complex sleep apnea
| p. 1727
128
What is a form of ventilatory support used for treatment of central sleep apnea that dynamically changes inspiratory support levels across periods of apnea and hypopnea?
Adaptive seroventilation
| p. 1727
129
Elevations in blood pressure in OSAHS is due to what mechanism/s?
1) Augmented sympathetic nervous system activation
2) Alterations in RAAS and fluid balance
(p. 1725)
