Part 7 Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

What are Calcium Channel Blockers?

A

Medications that prevent calcium from entering cells of the heart and blood vessel walls

They help lower blood pressure and reduce heart workload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Calcium Gluconate used for?

A

Treatment for hypocalcemia and certain types of hyperkalemia

It is also used in cases of hydrofluoric acid exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Carbon Monoxide (CO)?

A

A colorless, odorless gas produced by burning carbon-containing fuels

It can cause asphyxiation and poisoning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of a Hyperbaric Chamber?

A

To provide high-pressure oxygen therapy

It is beneficial in treating carbon monoxide poisoning and decompression sickness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are Benzodiazepines?

A

A class of medications that act as central nervous system depressants

They are commonly used for anxiety, seizures, and insomnia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Coumadin (Warfarin)?

A

An anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots

It works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What role does Vitamin K play in the body?

A

Essential for the synthesis of proteins required for blood coagulation

It is crucial in preventing excessive bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Crotalinae (Pit Vipers)?

A

A subfamily of venomous snakes known for their heat-sensing pits

Their bites can cause significant tissue damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is CroFab?

A

A specific antivenom for pit viper bites

It is derived from ovine (sheep) antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the treatment for Cyanide poisoning?

A

Amyl Nitrate, Sodium Thiosulfate, and Sodium Nitrite

These agents help detoxify cyanide and facilitate its excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of Sodium Thiosulfate?

A

It acts as a cyanide antidote

It converts cyanide to thiocyanate, which is less toxic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Digitalis used for?

A

To treat heart conditions, particularly atrial fibrillation and heart failure

It increases the force of heart contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Digibind?

A

An antidote for digoxin toxicity

It binds to digoxin and helps remove it from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Dilantin?

A

A medication used to control seizures

Its active ingredient is phenytoin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does supportive care involve?

A

Management of symptoms and comfort without specific treatment

It is often crucial in emergency and critical care settings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Ethylene Glycol?

A

A toxic alcohol commonly found in antifreeze

Its ingestion can lead to metabolic acidosis and renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are IV Ethanol and Fomepizole used for?

A

Antidotes for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning

They inhibit the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Heparin?

A

An anticoagulant that prevents blood clots

It is often used during and after surgeries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Protamine Sulfate?

A

An antidote for heparin overdose

It neutralizes the anticoagulant effects of heparin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are Hydrocarbons?

A

Compounds consisting entirely of hydrogen and carbon

They can be toxic when ingested or inhaled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Hydrofluoric Acid?

A

A highly corrosive acid that can cause severe burns

It requires immediate treatment with calcium gluconate.

22
Q

What is Isoniazid (INH)?

A

An antibiotic used primarily to treat tuberculosis

Overdose can lead to seizures and metabolic acidosis.

23
Q

What is Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) used for in toxicology?

A

To treat isoniazid overdose

It helps reverse the effects of the drug.

24
Q

What is Iron toxicity treated with?

A

Deferoxamine (Desferal)

It chelates excess iron to remove it from the body.

25
What is Methanol?
A toxic alcohol that can cause metabolic acidosis and blindness ## Footnote Its ingestion requires immediate medical attention.
26
What are Opioids?
A class of drugs used to treat pain ## Footnote They can cause respiratory depression and overdose.
27
What is Naloxone (Narcan)?
An opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose ## Footnote It rapidly restores normal breathing.
28
What are Organophosphates?
A group of chemicals used in pesticides ## Footnote They can cause cholinergic toxicity.
29
What does Atropine do?
It blocks the effects of acetylcholine ## Footnote It is used to treat organophosphate poisoning.
30
What are Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)?
A class of antidepressants that can be toxic in overdose ## Footnote Symptoms include anticholinergic effects and cardiac arrhythmias.
31
What is Bicarbonate (Bicarb) used for?
To correct metabolic acidosis ## Footnote It can also be used in certain drug overdoses.
32
What defines a 1st Degree burn?
Red skin, no blisters ## Footnote Commonly caused by sunburns or short exposure to flames.
33
What characterizes a 2nd Degree burn?
"Partial thickness" with blisters ## Footnote Often caused by hot water.
34
What is a 3rd Degree burn?
"Full thickness" burn with charred, leathery tissue ## Footnote It destroys all layers of skin.
35
What is a 4th Degree burn?
Extends through all layers of skin down to the bone ## Footnote Often requires amputation.
36
What is the Brooke formula for burn fluid resuscitation?
2cc x kg x BSA over 24hrs ## Footnote First half given in the first 8 hours from the time of burn.
37
What is the Parkland formula for burn fluid resuscitation?
4cc x kg x BSA over 24hrs ## Footnote First half given in the first 8 hours from the time of burn.
38
What is the goal urine output (UOP) for burn patients?
30-50ml/hr ## Footnote This is essential for kidney perfusion.
39
What is the primary treatment for electrical injuries?
Maintain a urine output of 100ml/hr ## Footnote This helps prevent renal failure.
40
What should be done for chemical burn patients before transport?
Flush with copious water ## Footnote Irrigation takes priority over transport.
41
What is the treatment for acid burns?
Dilute with copious amounts of water ## Footnote Neutralize hydrofluoric acid with calcium gluconate.
42
What are the signs of inhalational burns?
Facial burns, carbonaceous sputum, stridor ## Footnote These indicate potential airway injury.
43
What is the treatment for Carbon Monoxide (CO) intoxication?
100% oxygen therapy ## Footnote Patients may require treatment for 12-24 hours.
44
What predicts the severity of electrical injuries?
Voltage and amperage ## Footnote Amperage is a better predictor of injury.
45
What is Newton's 1st Law of Motion?
A body at rest stays at rest, and a body in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by a force ## Footnote This is known as the law of inertia.
46
What does Newton's 2nd Law of Motion state?
Force equals mass times acceleration ## Footnote It describes how an object accelerates in response to applied force.
47
What is Beck's Triad?
Muffled heart tones, hypotension, and jugular venous distention ## Footnote It is a classic presentation of cardiac tamponade.
48
What is the initial treatment for pneumothorax?
Occlusive dressing over the wound ## Footnote Followed by needle decompression if symptomatic.
49
What is the most commonly damaged organ in trauma?
The skin ## Footnote It is often the first point of injury in blunt trauma.
50
What is the most definitive assessment of shock?
Lactic acidosis (lactate >4 Mmol/L) ## Footnote It indicates tissue hypoperfusion.
51
What characterizes a tension pneumothorax?
Accumulation of air in the pleural space leading to respiratory distress ## Footnote It is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention.
52
What is a rib fracture commonly associated with?
Head, neck, and spinal cord injuries ## Footnote Especially when the 1st, 2nd, or 3rd ribs are involved.