Part II Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

For a given function, f(t) = f(-t). What type of symmetry does f(t) have?

a. odd symmetry
b. even symmetry
c. rotational symmetry
d. quarter-wave symmetry

A

b. even symmetry

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2
Q

The Taylor series expansion for cosx contains which powers of x?

a. 0, 2, 4, 6, 8,…
b. 1, 3, 5, 9,…
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,…
d. ½, 3/2, 5/2, 7/2,…

A

a. 0, 2, 4, 6, 8,…

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3
Q

What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors?

a. scalar
b. resultant
c. tensor
d. moment

A

b. resultant

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4
Q

What is the term that describes a possible outcome of an experiment?

a. sample space
b. a random point
c. an event
d. a finite set

A

c. an event

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5
Q

In probability theory, what is the term that
describes the set of all possible outcomes of an experiment?

a. a set of random events
b. a fuzzy set
c. a cumulative distribution
d. a sample space

A

d. a sample space

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6
Q

If two random variables are independently distributed, what is their relationship?

a. they are not identically distributed
b. they are uncorrelated
c. they are mutually exclusive
d. either option A or option B is true

A

b. they are uncorrelated

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7
Q

How is the capital recovery factor (A/P, i, n) related to the uniform series sinking fund factor (A/F, i, n)? i is the effective annual rate of return, and n is the number of periods.

a. (A/P, i, n) = (A/F, i, n) + i
b. (A/P, i, n) = (A/F, i, n) – i
c. (A/P, i, n) = (A/F, i, n)/i
d. (A/P, i, n) = [(A/F, i, n) + i]/n

A

a. (A/P, i, n) = (A/F, i, n) + i

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8
Q

What is an annuity?

a. the future worth of a present amount
b. an annual repayment of a loan
c. a series of uniform amounts over a
period of time
d. a lump sum at the end of the year

A

c. a series of uniform amounts over a
period of time

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9
Q

What is the formula for a straight line depreciation rate?

a. (100% - %net salvage value)/(estimated
service life)
b. %net salvage value/ estimated service
life
c. 100%net salvage value/estimated
service life
d. average net salvage value/estimated
service life

A

a. (100% - %net salvage value)/(estimated service life)

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10
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in judging proposed investments?

a. it is the same for every organization
b. it is larger than the interest rate used to
discount expected cash flow from
investments
c. it is frequently a policy decision made
by an organization’s management
d. it is not relevant in engineering
economy studies

A

c. it is frequently a policy decision made
by an organization’s management

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11
Q

Which of the following situations has a conventional cash flow so that an internal rate of return can be safely calculated and used?

a. you purchase a house and pay the bank
in monthly installments
b. you lease a car and pay by the month
c. your company undertakes a mining
project in which the land must be
reclaimed at the end of the project
d. you invest in a safe dividend stock and
receive dividends each year

A

d. you invest in a safe dividend stock and receive dividends each year

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12
Q

What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayment?

a. pay exactly the same amount of interest each payment
b. repay the loan over an agreed-upon amount of time
c. pay exactly the same amount of principal each payment
d. both options A and C

A

b. repay the loan over an agreed-upon
amount of time

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12
Q

What is “work in process” classified as?

a. an asset
b. a liability
c. an expense
d. a revenue

A

a. an asset

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13
Q

What is the acid test ratio?

a. the ratio of owner’s equity to total
current liabilities
b. the ratio of all assets to total liabilities
c. the ratio of current assets (exclusive of
inventory) to total current liabilities
d. the ratio of gross margin to operating,
sales and administrative expenses

A

c. the ratio of current assets (exclusive of
inventory) to total current liabilities

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13
Q

Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?

a. the atomic weight expressed in grams
per gram-atom
b. the electrons, particularly the
outermost ones
c. the magnitude of electrical charge of
the protons
d. the weight of the atoms

A

b. the electrons, particularly the
outermost ones

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13
Q

What are valence electrons?

a. the outer-shell electrons
b. electrons with positive charge
c. the electrons of complete quantum shells
d. the K-quantum shell electrons

A

a. the outer-shell electrons

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13
Q

What is the strong bond between hydrogen atoms called?

a. the ionic bond
b. the metallic bond
c. ionic and metallic bonds
d. the covalent bond

A

d. the covalent bond

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14
Q

What are Van der Waals forces?

a. weak secondary bonds between atoms
b. primary bonds between atoms
c. forces between electrons and protons
d. forces not present in liquids

A

a. weak secondary bonds between atoms

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15
Q

In molecules of the same composition, what are variations of atomic arrangements known as?
a. polymers
b. non-crystalline structures
c. monomers
d. isomers

16
Q

Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers and simple crystals?

I. crystalline polymers, unlike crystals, are
made of folded chains of atoms
II. Crystal size can be increased by raising
the crystallization temperature only in
polymers.
III. While a simple crystal may be totally
crystallized, a polymer can reach only
partial crystallization

a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and III

17
Q

What is the atomic packing factor (APF)
for a simple cubic crystal?

a. 0.48
b. 0.52
c. 1.0
d. 1.1

18
Q

How many atoms are in the unit cell of a body-centered cubic structure?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

19
Q

How many atoms are there per unit cell
for a face-centered cubic structure?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

20
Q

What is the 1st coordination number of a body centered cubic structure?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10

21
What is the 1st coordination number of a face centered cubic structure? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12
d. 12
22
Under which type of loading does fatigue occur? a. static load b. plane load c. high load d. repeated load
d. repeated load
23
A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed, the strain disappears. From this information, which of the following can be deduced about this material? a. it is elastic b. it is plastic c. it has a high modulus of elasticity d. it does not obey Hooke’s law
a. it is elastic
24
Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of a material? a. 0.35 b. 0.52 c. 0.55 d. 0.60
a. 0.35
25
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. the time range of changes of the angular momentum about a fixed point is equal to the total amount of the external forces acting on the system about the point b. the coefficient of restitution can be less than zero c. the frictional force always acts to resist motion d. momentum is conserved during elastic collisions
b. the coefficient of restitution can be less than zero
26
Which material type usually has a higher index of refraction? a. lighter materials b. heavier materials c. denser materials d. less-dense materials
c. denser materials
27
It states that the sum of the moments of all forces acting on an object is equal to the moment of the resultant force. a. Le’ Chatilier’s Principle b. Varignon’s theorem c. D’Alembert’s Principle d. Archimedes Principle
b. Varignon’s theorem
28
It states that the sum of the difference between forces acting and the derivatives of momenta are equal to zero. a. Le’ Chatilier’s Principle b. Varignon’s theorem c. D’Alembert’s Principle d. Archimedes Principle
c. D’Alembert’s Principle
29
It is a structure that can’t be analyzed using only equations of equilibrium or statics. a. statistically determinate b. statistically indeterminate c. statically determinate d. statically indeterminate
d. statically indeterminate
30
EDA in statistics stands for A. Exploratory Data Analysis B. Experimental Data Analysis C. Environmental Data Analysis D. Exquisite Data Analysis
A. Exploratory Data Analysis
31
CDA in statistics stands for A. Collected Data Analysis B. Computed Data Analysis C. Confirmatory Data Analysis D. Combined Data Analysis
C. Confirmatory Data Analysis
32
A type of statistics which assume that the data follow a specific distribution (usually normal) and rely on parameters like mean and standard deviation.
 A. Descriptive Statistics
 B. Inferential Statistics
 C. Parametric Statistics
 D. Non-parametric Statistics
C. Parametric Statistics
33
A type of statistics which focuses on analyzing and summarizing data for a single variable at a time, often using measures of central tendency and dispersion. A. Bivariate Statistics B. Multivariate Statistics C. Exploratory Data Analysis D. Univariate Statistics
D. Univariate Statistics
33
A type of statistics that does not assume a specific distribution for the data, making them useful for data that is ordinal, nominal, or not normally distributed. A. Descriptive Statistics
 B. Inferential Statistics
 C. Parametric Statistics
 D. Non-parametric Statistics
D. Non-parametric Statistics
34
A type of statistics that examines the relationship between two variables to identify any association or correlation. A. Bivariate Statistics B. Multivariate Statistics C. Exploratory Data Analysis D. Univariate Statistics
A. Bivariate Statistics
35
A type of statistics which involves analyzing data that includes more than two variables to understand complex relationships and interactions among them. A. Bivariate Statistics B. Multivariate Statistics C. Exploratory Data Analysis D. Univariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
36
It is an approach to analyzing data sets to summarize their main characteristics often with visual methods. It’s used to detect paterns, anomalies, and check assumptions. A. Bivariate Statistics B. Multivariate Statistics C. Exploratory Data Analysis D. Univariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
37
It is used to confirm hypotheses about data. It often involves inferential statistics methods to test hypotheses. A. Bayesian Statistics B. Confirmatory Data Analysis C. Time Series Analysis D. Spatial Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
38
A type of statistics which involves updating the probability of a hypothesis as more evidence or data becomes available, based on Bayes' Theorem. A. Bayesian Statistics B. Confirmatory Data Analysis C. Time Series Analysis D. Spatial Statistics
A. Bayesian Statistics
39
It focuses on analyzing data points collected or recorded at specific time intervals, typically to forecast future trends. A. Bayesian Statistics B. Confirmatory Data Analysis C. Time Series Analysis D. Spatial Statistics
C. Time Series Analysis
40
A type of statistics which analyze data that has a spatial or geographical aspect, identifying paterns, clusters, or variations across locations. A. Bayesian Statistics B. Confirmatory Data Analysis C. Time Series Analysis D. Spatial Stastistics
D. Spatial Statistics
41
Which of the following best describes the null hypothesis? A. The hypothesis that there is a significant effect B. The hypothesis that the results are due to chance. C. The hypothesis that there is no significant difference. D. The hypothesis that all sample means are equal.
C. The hypothesis that there is no significant difference.
42
. In a hypothesis test, if the p-value is less than the significance level (α), you should: A. Fail to reject the null hypothesis. B. Reject the null hypothesis. C. Increase the sample size. D. Change the significance level.
B. Reject the null hypothesis. | 7 8 9 10 30 31 32 36