Part II: Care of Neurosurgical Patient Flashcards

1
Q

An 84-year-old man has been brought into hospital because of self-neglect. He lives alone in a ground floor flat and has daily carer who have found him to be increasingly suspicious, accusing them of stealing and moving his property and becoming physically aggressive. In the past month he had been refusing to let them in. He also seemed to be experiencing auditory hallucinations and had lost weight. Examination was normal except for BMI 19 and MMSE 18/30. Bloods, CXR, urine, cultures normal. CT is shown. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Alcoholic hallucinosis
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Delirium
d. Paranoid schizophrenia
e. Pick’s disease

A

B

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2
Q

A 70-year-old gentleman attends outpatient clinic with his wife. She reports that her hus- band’s behavior has changed and that he has become increasingly forgetful over the past year. He has gained 10 kg of weight over the past 6 months. His wife reports that he has an uncontrollable appetite occasionally eating to the point of vomiting. She also states that he has a lack of interest when the grandchildren visit. Over the last 4 weeks she has noticed that her husband has become more unsteady on his feet having had a number of falls. On examining him in clinic he has impaired word comprehension, reduced safety awareness on mobilizing and a positive palmomental reflex. There is no tremor, rigidity or shuffling gait. MMSE is 22/30. CT head is shown. Which one of the following is most likely?
a. Depression
b. Hypomania
c. Pick’s disease
d. Lewy body dementia
e. CJD

A

C

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3
Q

A 64-year-old man presents with a 6 month history of abnormal behaviors which have been noticed by his wife. He has described seeing vivid visual hallucinations of clowns in his living room which sometimes talk to him and appear very real. He believes that he is the head of a circus and is about to go on a world tour although this is not true. At times he is lucid and is fully independent but at other times he is disorientated in time and place and is unable to perform simple tasks such as preparing food and going to the shops. His wife thinks that his mood is also lower since the onset of symptoms. He presented in A+E today because of having a second fall in 2 weeks. There is no history of infective symptoms. He went to see his GP two days ago who thought that he may have a UTI and prescribed trimethoprim. He has a history of stroke 10 years ago and hypertension and takes warfarin, amlodipine, and enalapril. Physical examination is unremarkable except for slightly increased tone on the left side compared to the right. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Semantic dementia
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Lewy body dementia
e. Schizophrenia

A

D

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4
Q

A 55-year-old man presents with cognitive decline over a 6-month period. He continues to progress and develops myoclonus and a left hemiparesis. On examination, he is alert and orientated to time and place but appears easily startled every time you start a sentence. There is bilateral finger-nose and heel-shin dysme- tria, mild postural tremor and mild speech slurring. Blood tests are normal including thy- roid and liver function. Lumbar puncture: WCC < 1, RBC 16, Protein 0.5 g/l, Glucose 3.4 mmol/l, gram stain negative, and no organisms cultured. An EEG demonstrated brief periodic spikes. A MRI head (FLAIR sequence) is shown. Which one of the follow- ing is most likely?

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning d. Huntington’s disease
e. Pick’s disease

A

B

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5
Q

A 81-year-old male experiences progressive cognitive decline over the past 10 years. His wife reports that every 6 months or so she will notice another significant decrease in his functioning. It is now at the point where he is aggressive and has little short-term mem- ory. Past medical history includes hyperten- sion and percutaneous coronary intervention after a myocardial infarction. Examination findings include poor attention and memory, mild left hemiparesis (face, arm, and leg), and brisk reflexes throughout with extensor plan- tar reflex bilaterally and a shuffling gait. Which one of the following is most appropriate?
a. Referral for subthalamic nucleus deep brain stimulation
b. Treat cardiovascular risk factors
c. Carotid endarterectomy
d. Commence carbidopa/levodopa
e. Commence memantine

A

B

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6
Q

A 55-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of weakness in his right arm. He has also noticed that his voice has become softer. He is finding it hard to use door handles and open jars. On two occasions his wife has noticed him stumbling whilst walking. On examination he has fasciculations over his right deltoid muscle and wasting of the inter- ossei muscles of the right hand. Power is 4/5 in right shoulder abduction with absent reflexes in the right arm but present elsewhere. Coordination and sensation are normal with a negative Romberg’s test. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Cervical myelopathy
b. Diabetic neuropathy
c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
d. Multiple sclerosis
e. Hereditary sensory motor neuropathy

A

C

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7
Q

An 18-month-old girl presents with leg weak- ness. Tremors, primarily of the hands, had been noted since 4 months of age. She was crawling by 9 months of age and cruising about the furniture by 12 months. Her lan- guage development was normal. Her 4-year- old sister was developing normally. Cranial nerve examination was normal, and specifically, fasciculations of the tongue were not noted. She was able to sit, crawl, and pull to a stand. She could walk holding onto furniture but could not walk independently. Deep tendon reflexes were absent throughout, and there were no Babinski signs. Sensory examination was normal. Which one of the following is the next appropriate test?

a. Serum ceruloplasmin
b. Electromyography
c. Nerve conduction studies
d. Survival motor neuron gene testing
e. MRI head

A

D

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8
Q

A 41-year-old man presents with confusion and headaches for the last few weeks. He was diagnosed with HIV 15 years ago and has been stable on highly active antiretroviral treatment. Other past medical history includes an episode of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia 1 year ago. His latest CD4 count is 29 cells/μl. An MRI (T1 C+) is shown. The enhancing lesions on MRI show increased uptake on Thallium-201 Chloride SPECT scan. Which one of the following is likely to be required?

a. Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
b. Dexamethasone
c. Methotrexate
d. Amphotericin B
e. Image guided aspiration and intravenous antibiotics.

A
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9
Q

A 31-year-old man was diagnosed with HIV 5 years ago and had been taking highly active antiretroviral therapy until 8 months ago when he decided to stop. He had been doing well on highly active antiretroviral therapy, but stopped taking his medications 8 months ago because he thought that he would be better off. Two months ago, he was successfully treated for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. He now presents with confusion and speech deficit. His CD4 count is 155/ul. MRI appearances are shown below. CSF PCR is positive for JC virus. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Adrenoleukodystrophy
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
d. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
e. AIDS dementia complex

A

D

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10
Q

A 43-year-old man has been having nightly, unilateral, throbbing headaches with the pain focused at the back of his left eye. They have been occurring daily for the past week. The patient recalls having had a similar headache 5 years ago that lasted for several weeks. The patient has noticed that the headache is asso- ciated with lacrimation and nasal congestion. Which one of the following would be appropriate next in acute management?
a. Dihydroergotamine
b. Glyceryl trinitrate
c. Indometacin
d. Inhaled 100% oxygen
e. Propanolol

A

D

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11
Q

A 18-year-old female presents with a severe right-sided throbbing headache associated with nausea, vomiting, and photophobia which failed to respond to ibuprofen. There are no other neurological features in the history. She has been having similar headaches 3-4 times per month for the past year. Her mother had a similar problem. Her examination is normal. Which one of the following would be appropriate next in acute management?

a. Amitriptyline
b. Propanolol
c. Sumatriptan
d. Topiramate
e. Verapamil

A

C

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12
Q

A 45-year-old man is referred urgently to hospital with a severe headache. The pain had started gradually three days before and was now severe. The patient reported the headache was exacerbated by an upright posture with relief obtained by lying flat. Since the headache started the patient had been unable to stand for more than a few minutes at a time but was reasonably comfortable when lying down. The patient denied any focal neurological symptoms and was consti- tutionally well. Clinical examination did not demonstrate any focal neurological signs or features of meningism. CT brain: no evidence of intraaxial or extraaxial bleeding; no space occupying lesion; no hydrocephalus. MRI brain with gadolinium: diffuse pachymeningeal enhancement without leptomeningeal enhancement; subtle downward displacement of brain on sagittal views. Which one of the following would be appropriate next in acute management?

a. Epidural blood patch
b. Flat bed rest
c. Laminectomy dural repair and sealant
d. Lumbar puncture
e. MRI whole spine with STIR

A

A

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13
Q

A 26-year-old female presents with difficulty walking and complains of problems with her vision in her right eye. She had an episode of diarrhea a week ago, but has no other relevant past medical history apart from problems with her left eye 3 months earlier which had resolved. On examination there is a right rela- tive afferent papillary defect. Visual acuity and color vision are 6/6 (20/20) with 17/17 Ishihara plates on the left, and 6/60 (20/200) with 0/17 Ishihara plates on the right. She reports no dip- lopia with a full range of eye movements, no facial weakness and normal facial sensation. Fundoscopy was unremarkable. Examination revealed 2/5 power on the left arm and leg in all movements; and 4/5 in all movements in right arm and leg, brisk reflexes bilaterally with extensor plantar responses. There is patchy loss of sensation to cotton wool on right lateral wrist and anterior aspect left lateral shin. Anal tone and saddle sensation are intact. MRI brain is normal and MRI spine (Sagittal T2 +T1 with gad) shown below. CSF shows WCC 12/mm3, RBC <1/mm3, Glucose 4.5 mmol/dl, Protein 0.9 g/l, and negative for oligoclonal bands. Which one of the following tests is likely to be positive?

a. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody
b. Anti-aquaporin 4 antibody
c. Anti-muscle specific kinase antibody
d. Anti-voltage gated calcium channel antibody
e. Anti-voltage gated potassium channel
antibody

A

B

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14
Q

A 10-year-old girl presents with subacute mental status change and left arm weakness. She had a viral illness 1 week ago. On examination she appears drowsy. She has a left sided hemiparesis with bilateral nystagmus. Fundoscopy reveals papilledema. There are no skin rashes. MRI head FLAIR sequence is shown. MRI spine showed a longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Acute disseminating encephalomyelitis
c. Neurosarcoidosis
d. Neuromyelitis optica
e. Systemic lupus erythematosis
f. Lyme disease

A

B

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15
Q

A 35-year-old female presents with three days of increasing weakness in the right arm and reduced visual acuity in the left eye. She has had a similar episode 2 years ago which she recovered from completely. On examination she has weakness in wrist extension and finger abduction in the left hand and visual acuity in the left eye was measured at 6/24 with an associated reduction in color saturation. Blood tests were unremarkable. Her MRI scan is shown (Axial T1 with contrast and FLAIR). Which one of the following options should be used in acute management?

a. Commence high dose oral prednisone and wean over a month
b. IV methylprednisolone
c. Natalizumab infusion
d. Interferon beta
e. Biopsy

A

B

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16
Q

A 43-year-old female presents with a second episode of loss of sensation in her left anterior thigh and right foot. This is her second episode within the past 4 months. She had recently reported an episode of left anterior shin numbness 1 year ago, when an MRI with gadolinium demonstrated “spots in her spinal cord” and she was diagnosed with transverse myelitis. Her past medical history also includes ulcera- tive colitis, diagnosed aged 27 years old and pri- mary sclerosing cholangitis. Routine bloods are normal except for mild derangement of liver function tests. Which one of the following is most appropriate?

a. Interferon beta
b. Glatiramer acetate
c. Fingolimod
d. Natalizumab
e. Mitoxanthrone

A

B

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17
Q

A 43-year-old female presents with a 2 week history of mild left arm weakness and head- ache. MRI was done at presentation (shown). She was discharged on dexamethasone 2 mg twice daily due to her focal neurology with a plan for awake craniotomy and resection. An image guidance scan is repeated one week later but there is no longer any ring-enhancement. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Cerebral abscess
b. High grade tumor
c. Metastasis
d. Primary CNS lymphoma
e. Demyelination

A

E

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18
Q

A 31-year-old female suffered multiple cuts and burns to both arms. On examination there is marked wasting of brachioradialis and the small muscles in both hands, with reduced biceps and brachioradialis reflex. She is weak in both arms, distally more than proximally. Her lower limb and cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. On testing upper limb sensation, vibration and proprio- ception are intact but there appears to be reduced pain and temperature sensation over the C3/C4/C5 dermatomes. Which one of the following is most likely?
a. Chiari malformation
b. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating
polyneuropathy
c. Guillain-Barré syndrome
d. Miller Fisher syndrome
e. Multiple sclerosis

A

A

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19
Q

A 64 Years old man present with sudden onset severe headache while watching televi- sion, followed by confusion and a tonic- clonic seizure. Past medical history included a 20 pack year smoking history, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and myocardial infarction two years ago requiring stenting. On examination, GCS M5V4E3 but was protecting his own airway. Pupils were equal and reactive. The patient was spontaneously moving all his limbs and had downgoing plantar reflexes. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination was unremark- able. Initial observations were blood pressure 220/115 mmHg, heart rate 89 beat/min, O2 sats (15 l O2) 100%, Respiratory rate 19/ min, temperature 37.1°C. CT brain is nor- mal and lumbar puncture shows WCC 3/ mm3, RBC 3, protein 0.6 g/l, glucose 5.4 mmol/l, and no xanthochromia. MRI is shown (FLAIR). Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
b. Herpes simplex virus encephalitis
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Posterior circulation stroke
e. Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome

A

E

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20
Q
  1. A 12-year-old boy with Lyme disease and bilateral facial weakness is being treated with a cephalosporin. The child’s facial strength improves, but he notices twitching of the left corner of his mouth whenever he blinks his eye. This involuntary movement disorder is probably an indication of which one of the following?
    a. Horner’s syndrome
    b. Marcus Gunn phenomenon c. Mononeuritis multiplex
    d. Parinaud syndrome
    e. Recurrent meningitis
A

B

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21
Q

A 25-year-old woman has progressive gait disorder. The initial physical examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly and left sided ataxia and abnormal finger-nose test. Urinalysis reveals proteinuria and microscopic hematuria. Which one of the following findings is most likely?
a. Neurofibromas
b. Ash leaf spots
c. Retinal telangiectasia
d. Kayser-Fleisher rings
e. Facial angiofibromas

A

C

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22
Q

A 62-year-old female has discomfort in her limbs and trouble getting off the toilet. She is unable to climb stairs and has noticed a rash on her face. On examination, she is found to have weakness about the hip and shoulder girdle. She has purplish-red discoloration of the skin around her eyes, erythematous dis- coloration over the finger joints and purplish nodules over the elbows and knees. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Becker muscular dystrophy b. Dermatomyositis
c. Inclusion body myositis
d. Myotonic dystrophy
e. Polymyositis

A

B

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23
Q

A 67-year-old male is investigated for chest pain and painful swallowing progressing over the last few months with no response to proton pump inhibitors. There is no history of weight loss or anorexia or smoking. On examination you note a left-sided partial ptosis, and he reports diplopia on testing extrocular muscle movements. Sustained upward gaze exacerbates his ptosis. There is no limb muscle weakness or sensory disturbance. CXR is shown. Which one of the following tests is likely to be helpful?

a. Anti-acteylcholine receptor antibodies
b. Anti-GM1 antibody
c. Anti-GQ1b antibody
d. Anti-muscle specific kinase antibody
e. Anti-voltage gated calcium channel
antibody

A

A

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24
Q

A 65-year-old presents with a 3 month his- tory of progressive weakness. She had ini- tially noticed difficulty opening jars, but now also has difficulty walking up stairs. She denied any pain or sensory symptoms. Past medical history included osteoporosis, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.On neurological examination there were no fasciculations, tone was normal and sensation was intact. Power was reduced in finger flex- ion (3/5), wrist flexion (4/5), knee extension (3/5), and hip flexion (4/5) bilaterally. Upper limb reflexes were present but diminished, but the knee jerk was absent and there were flexor plantar responses bilaterally. There was no tenderness over any muscle groups. Cranial nerve examination was unremark- able. Blood results were normal except for CRP 10 mg/l, ESR 41 mm/h, CK 290 u/l. Which one of the following is most likely?
a. Diabetic amyotrophy
b. Inclusion body myositis
c. Polymyalgia rheumatica
d. Polymyositis
e. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating
polyneuropathy

A

B

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25
Q

A 77-year-old male presents with a 2-day his- tory of right temporal throbbing headache. He has had migraines previously but never this severe and usually occipital. There was no other past medical history of note. On examination, his right scalp is tender and a prominent right temporal artery is noted. He is apyrexic with no skin rashes. His blood tests are as follows: Hb 13.1 g/dl, Plt 450 10- 9/l, WCC 11.5, ESR 85, Na 142, K 4.0., Urea 10, Cr 118 umol/l, CRP 23 mg/l. Which one of the following would you do next?
a. CT angiogram
b. Biopsy
c. Start prednisolone
d. Start azothiaprine
e. Carotid duplex ultrasound

A

C

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26
Q

A 65-year-old male has been diagnosed with small cell lung cancer and is currently undergo- ing chemotherapy. Over the last few months he has noticed his vision deteriorating and complains of diplopia. He also feels weaker in his upper limbs although his symptoms do fluctu- ate. On examination he has mild ptosis of the eyelids bilaterally and a complex ophthalmoparesis affecting both eyes. He also has reduced power proximally in the upper limbs. Which one of the following may be associated with this clinical picture?
a. Anti-Ro antibody
b. Anti-voltage gated potassium channel
antibody
c. Anti-voltage gated calcium channel
antibody
d. Anti-Hu antibody
e. Anti-GQ1b antibody

A

C

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27
Q

A 17-year-old girl presents with a second episode on waking earlier in the morning where she could not move at all for 2 h. She reports no loss of consciousness and was aware throughout the episode. There is no other sig- nificant past medical history or epilepsy. Rou- tine systemic and neurological examination is normal. A 12 lead ECG demonstrated a jerky baseline with flat T waves. What one of the fol- lowing is most likely?
a. Andersen-Tawil syndrome
b. Cataplexy
c. Hyperkalemia periodic paralysis
d. Hypokalemic period paralysis
e. Night terror

A

C

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28
Q

A 10-year-old presents to your neurology clinic reporting 9 months of subtle and gradual onset, progressive lower limb weakness. For the past 18 months, he has noticed a difficulty in keeping up with his peers in PE lessons, which he initially put down to “not being very sporty.” However, he feels weak whenever he walks and has particular difficulty getting up from a chair. His appearance is shown below. Formal examination of power is 4/5 bilaterally in shoulder abduction, adduction and normal 5/5 distally. 4/5 is also noted in hip flexion and extension, 4+/5 in knee flexion and extension, 5/5 in ankle plantar and dorsiflexion. The weaknesses demonstrated are not fatiguable and are persistent. Reflexes are present in all areas, plantars are downgoing. He has no other past medical history. What is the likely diagnosis?

a. Becker muscular dystrophy
b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c. Emery-Dreifuss syndrome
d. Facial-scapulo humeral syndrome
e. Limb-girdle dystrophy

A

B

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29
Q

The horizontal gaze center is formed by which one of the following:
a. Pontine paramedian reticular formation
b. Reticular medial longitudinal fasciculus
c. Preganglionic Erdinger-Westphal nucleus
d. Brodman Area 6
e. Superior colliculus

A

A

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30
Q

A 25-year-old woman presents with a several week history of diplopia, with an 8 month his- tory of generalized headache which has been particularly bad over the last 2 months. On examination she is obese, has a normal pupillary light reflex and no RAPD. Appearance of fundi are shown. Which one of the following is most likely cause of her complaint?

a. Non-organic disorder
b. Optic nerve drusen
c. Optic neuritis
d. Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
e. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy

A

D

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31
Q

A 50-year-old man complains of 2 days’ dou- ble vision. Has abducting nystagmus in the right eye and vertical gaze is preserved bilat- erally. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Left internuclear ophthalmoplegia
b. Orbital apex syndrome
c. Left incomplete oculomotor palsy
d. Superior orbital fissure syndrome
e. Left one-and-a-half syndrome

A

A

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32
Q

A 53-year-old woman reports drooping of her eyelids for the last 6 months. She experiences diplopia when driving for any extended period of time. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Oculomotor nerve palsy
d. Pituitary apoplexy
e. Thyroid ophthalmopathy

A

B

33
Q

Forty minutes after bilateral instillation of 10% cocaine eyedrops, the left pupil dilates, but the right does not.

a. Horner’s syndrome
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Oculomotor palsy
d. Trochlear palsy
e. Thyroid ophthalmopathy

A

A

34
Q

A 22-year-old female complains of reduced vision and pain in the left eye starting 3 days ago. On examination vision is normal in the right eye but 6/12 (20/40) in the left eye, Left relative afferent pupillary defect, pain when looks to right or left, no redness or photophobia.

a. Arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
b. Central retinal artery occlusion
c. Iritis
d. Optic neuritis
e. Orbital cellulitis

A

D

35
Q

A 34-year-old man present with intermittent diplopia, worse when looking to the left. Exa- mination findings are shown below. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Left abducens nerve palsy
b. Left conjugate gaze paresis
c. Left internuclear ophthalmoplegia
d. Left hypotropia
e. Right trochlear palsy

A

A

36
Q

On examination, this 15-year-old boy was found to have upgaze paresis, ocular tilt reaction (right superior rectus skew devia- tion and head tilt), papilledema, and aniso- coria. The pupils were moderate in size and poorly reactive to light, but reactive to near stimuli.

a. Adie’s tonic pupil
b. Argyll Robertson pupil
c. Horner syndrome
d. Parinaud syndrome
e. Wallenberg syndrome

A

D

37
Q

Which urine test would aid diagnosis in this child?

a. Urinary Bence-Jones protein
b. Urinary catecholamines
c. Urinary ketones
d. Urinary casts
e. Urinary protein/creatinine ratio

A

B

38
Q

An 82-year-old man had sudden, profound vision loss in his right eye. This was preceded by 2 days of brief episodes of transient vision loss in the affected eye lasting seconds. He also complained of “tender cords” on his scalp, jaw claudication, and weight loss. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was normal and fundoscopy showed a dif- fusely swollen right optic disc.
a. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
b. Iritis
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Central retinal vein occlusion
e. Optic neuritis

A

A

39
Q

Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s Horner’s syndrome?
a. Carotid dissection
b. Congenital
c. Neuroblastoma
d. Hypothalamic tumor
e. Cervical cord ependymoma

A

B

40
Q

A 54-year-old male presented after being told he had unequal pupils by a colleague. Examination findings are shown to light, accommodation and 30 min after administration of 0.1% pilocarpine to both eyes. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Left Argyll Robertson pupil
b. Left Horner’s syndrome
c. Right Adie’s tonic pupil
d. Right oculomotor palsy
e. Right relative afferent pupillary defect

A

C

41
Q

A 69-year-old presented with recurrent falls and unsteadiness. Visual acuity is normal. Examination findings are shown to at rest, to light and to accommodation. Which one of the following is demonstrated?
a. Adie’s tonic pupil
b. Argyll Robertson pupils
c. Parinaud syndrome
d. Marcus-Gunn pupil
e. Marcus-Gunn phenomenon

A

B

42
Q

A 5-year-old child presents with diplopia and numbness over right forehead. Examination findings shown in primary gaze, down gaze, left gaze and right gaze. Which one of the following are most likely?

a. Gradenigo’s syndrome
b. One-and-a-half syndrome
c. Orbital apex syndrome
d. Parinaud’s syndrome
e. Third nerve palsy

A

C

43
Q

A 17-year-old presents after a head injury with diplopia, particularly worse when walk- ing down stairs and two images are oblique to each other. Examination findings are shown in right gaze, primary gaze, left gaze, right head tilt, left head tilt and at rest. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Left abducens palsy
b. Left fourth nerve palsy
c. Left hypotropia
d. Right exotropia
e. Right fourth nerve palsy

A

B

44
Q

Which one of the following is most likely in the images below?

a. Cavernous sinus syndrome
b. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
c. Left oculomotor nerve palsy
d. Left trochlear nerve palsy
e. Right Horner’s syndrome

A

C

45
Q

A 45-year-old man presents with bilateral adduction deficit during attempted gaze (with nystagmus of contralateral abducting eye). Adduction is intact during converging (and accommodating) during viewing of a near target. Which one of the following is most likely?

a. Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
b. Superior orbital fissure syndrome
c. Light-near dissociation
d. Oculomotor neuropathy
e. Myasthenia gravis

A

A

46
Q

Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
b. Left internuclear ophthalmoplegia
c. Light-near dissociation
d. Left one-and-a-half syndrome
e. Tabes dorsalis

A

D

47
Q

Which of the right ear pure tone audiograms shown below most resemble the pattern expected with Meniere’s disease?

A

C

48
Q

Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma) most commonly affects which one of the fol- lowing nerves?
a. Cochlear nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Inferior vestibular nerve
d. Superior vestibular nerve
e. Trigeminal nerve

A

D

49
Q

Vestibular-ocular reflex elicited during a right head turn is best described by which one of the following?
a. Relative motion between membranous
labyrinth and endolymph causes right horizontal canal cupula to deflect towards the utricle with reflex movement of eyes to left with saccades to right
b. Relative motion between membranous labyrinth and endolymph causes left hor- izontal canal cupula to deflect towards the utricle with reflex movement of eyes to left with saccades to right
c. Relative motion between membranous labyrinth and endolymph causes right horizontal canal cupula to deflect towards the utricle with reflex movement of eyes to left with saccades to left
d. Relative motion between membranous labyrinth and perilymph causes right hor- izontal canal cupula to deflect towards the utricle with reflex movement of eyes to left with saccades to right
e. Relative motion between membranous labyrinth and perilymph causes right hor- izontal canal cupula to deflect away from the utricle with reflex movement of eyes to right with saccades to right

A

A

50
Q

In the brainstem auditory evoked response, which one of the following structures gives rise to wave V?
a. Cochlear nerve
b. Inferior colliculus
c. Lateral lemniscus
d. Superior olivary complex
e. Ventral cochlear nucleus

A

B

51
Q

A 25-year-old male had occasional difficulty in understanding speech over the telephone with his left ear. Brainstem auditory evoked response is shown for both ears. Which one of the following is most likely?
a. Aminoglycoside toxicity
b. Gentamicin ototoxicity
c. Left acoustic neuroma
d. Right cochlear ischemia
e. Right glomus jugulare tumor

A

C

52
Q

In which one of the following situations is it NOT appropriate to use intraoperative brainstem auditory evoked response monitoring?
a. Basilar artery aneurysm surgery
b. Microvascular decompression of CN V
c. Posterior fossa surgery
d. Resection of acoustic neuroma in a deaf patient
e. Vestibular neurectomy for intractable tinnitus

A

D

53
Q

Damage to hair cells in the basal turn of the cochlea is likely to result in which one of the following?
a. High frequency hearing loss
b. High-intensity hearing loss
c. Low-frequency hearing loss
d. Low-intensity hearing loss
e. Mid-frequency hearing loss

A

A

54
Q

Which one of the following sites in the inner ear does gentamicin exert its ototoxic effect?
a. Apical turn of cochlea
b. Cochlear nerve
c. Hair cells
d. Macula densa
e. Striavascularis

A

C

55
Q

A 34-year-old female presents with a House- Brackmann grade IV facial palsy. Which one of the following best describes the clinical findings?
a. Complete facial paralysis
b. Obvious asymmetry (not disfiguring);
noticeable synkinesis, contracture, or hemifacial spasm; complete eye closure with effort.
c. Obvious weakness or disfiguring asymme- try; normal symmetry and tone at rest; incomplete eye closure.
d. Only barely perceptible motion with asymmetry at rest
e. Slight weakness noticeable on close inspection; slight synkinesis

A

C

56
Q

Which one of the following best describes the target region for an auditory brainstem implant?
a. Cochlear nucleus
b. Inferior colliculus
c. Inferior olivary nucleus
d. Superior olivary nucleus
e. Vestibular nucleus

A

A

57
Q

A 35-year-old NF-2 patient has sensorineural hearing loss and paresthesia of the posterior aspect of his right ear canal. MRI shows a large cerebellopontine angle tumor. Compression of which one of the following best explains the altered sensation?
a. Facial nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Inferior vestibular nerve
d. Superior vestibular nerve
e. Vagus nerve

A

A

58
Q

Which of the labels below refers to the
modiolus?

A
59
Q

Which one of the following is most accurate regarding caloric testing in the right ear?
a. Coldwaterirrigationcausesendolymphin
lateral portion to become dense and fall pulling the right horizontal canal cupula away from the utricle, reducing the firing rate and causes a nystagmus with fast phase to the left.
b. Cold water irrigation causes endolymph in lateral portion to become dense and fall pulling the right horizontal canal cupula away from the utricle, reducing the firing rate and causes a nystagmus with fast phase to the right.
c. Cold water irrigation causes perilymph in lateral portion to become dense and fall pushing the right horizontal canal cupula towards the utricle, reducing the firing rate and causes a nystagmus with fast phase away from the stimulus.
d. Warm water irrigation causes endolymph in lateral portion to become less dense and fall pulling the horizontal canal cupula away from the utricle, reducing the firing rate and causes a nystagmus with fast phase away from the stimulus.
e. Warm water irrigation causes perilymph in lateral portion to become dense and fall pulling the horizontal canal cupula away from the utricle, reducing the firing rate and causes a nystagmus with fast phase away from the stimulus.

A

A

60
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding cerebral blood flow is LEAST accurate?
a. Cerebral blood flow to white matter is
approximately 25 ml/100 g/min
b. Total cerebral blood flow is approxi-
mately 750 ml/min in adults
c. Regional cerebral blood flow tends to
track cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption rather than cerebral meta- bolic rate of glucose consumption
d. Cerebral blood flow to gray matter is approximately 80 ml/100 g/min
e. Brain tissue accounts for 20% of basal oxygen consumption and 25% of basal glucose consumption

A

C

61
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding intracranial compliance is LEAST accurate?
a. Increase in the volume of one intracranial
compartment will lead to a rise in ICP unless it is matched by an equal reduction in the volume of another compartment
b. Cerebral compliance is equal to intracra- nial volume displaced divided by the resul- tant change in intracranial pressure
c. CSF and CBV compartments normally represent a volume of approximately 1400 ml
d. Additional intracranial volume is initially accommodated with little or no change in ICP
e. Once craniospinal buffering capacity is exhausted further small increases in intra- cranial volume lead to substantial rises in ICP

A

C

62
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the intracranial pressure pulse waveform is most accurate?
a. Percussion wave, which reflects the ejection of blood from the heart transmitted through the choroid plexus in the
ventricles
b. Third arterial wave is the percussion wave c. First wave is the tidal wave which reflects
brain compliance
d. Second wave is the dicrotic wave that
reflects aortic valve closure
e. Intracranial hypertension increase in the
peak of the tidal and dicrotic waves

A

E

63
Q

Regarding cerebral autoregulation in adults, which one of the following statements is LEAST accurate?
a. Increasing hypoxia results in increasing
cerebral blood flow
b. Cerebral blood flow is relatively constant
over a range of cerebral perfusion pres-
sures from 50 to 150 mmHg
c. Cerebral blood flow is directly propor-
tional to cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) when CPP is greater than 150 mmHg or less than 50 mmHg
d. A pCO2 of 4.0 kPa (30 mmHg) is associ- ated with an average cerebral blood flow of approximately 50 ml/100 g/min
e. Cerebral blood flow 1⁄4 cerebral perfusion pressure/cerebral vascular resistance

A

D

64
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding control of cerebral vascular tone is LEAST accurate?
a. CO2 causes vasoconstriction at low ten-
sions in the blood, and vasodilatation at
higher tensions
b. Alpha2 and beta-1 adrenergic stimulation
cause vasodilatation
c. Prostaglandins PGE2 and PGI2 are
vasodilators
d. Increase in perivascular K + causes
vasodilatation
e. Thromboxane A2 is a potent
vasoconstrictor

A

B

65
Q

Maintenance of which one of the following requires the highest proportion of energy expenditure in the brain?
a. Transmembrane electrical and ionic
gradients
b. Membrane structure and integrity
c. Synthesis and release of neurotransmitters
d. Neurogenesis
e. Axonal transport

A

A

66
Q

Immediately below which one of the follow- ing regional cerebral blood flow values does the onset of infarction occur if sustained for more than 2-3 h?
a. Less than 50 ml/100 g/min
b. Less than 23 ml/100 g/min
c. Less than 17 ml/100 g/min
d. Less than 10 ml/100 g/min
e. Less than 5 ml/100 g/min

A

C

67
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding neuroprotection during anesthesia is LEAST accurate?
a. Burst suppression must be achieved
before any neuroprotective effects are
seen with barbiturates
b. Hyperglycemia exacerbates ischemic
injury
c. Mild hypothermia for low-grade aneu-
rysm clipping and for head injury may
not be of benefit
d. Hyperthermia should be treated
e. Volatile anesthetics reduce the vulnerability of the brain to ischemic injury

A

A

68
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding successful strategies for cerebral protection during cerebrovascular surgery is LEAST accurate?
a. For a given total vessel occlusion time, brief-repetitive occlusions rather than a longer-single occlusion where possible should be the goal
b. Collateral blood flow can be increased by inducing hypertension (e.g. target MAP 150 mmHg)
c. Preoperative perfusion imaging to help identify patients who have low cerebro- vascular reserve and may be at higher risk for iatrogenic ischemia
d. Intraoperatively, vessel or graft patency can be confirmed by
e. IHAST2 trial showed improvement in outcome for clipped ruptured aneurysms (WFNS1 and 2) given mild hypothermia compared to normothermia

A

E

69
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the role of hypothermia in the management of traumatic brain injury is LEAST accurate?

a. Eurotherm trial showed a significant increase in odds of unfavorable outcome but not death at 6 months in the mild hypothermia group
b. Two trials of hypothermia therapy in chil- dren with TBI have shown no improve- ment in neurologic or other outcomes one pediatric trial showed a nonsignificant increase in mortality
c. Eurotherm trial RCT included patients with TBI last 10 days and hypothermia was induced if the ICP climbed above 20 mmHg for 5 min refractory to tier 1 management
d. Statistically significant increase in the odds of an unfavorable outcome in the group allocated to therapeutic hypothermia
e. Statistically significant increase in the odds of death at 6 months (HR 1.45 (1.01-2.10)) hence discontinued due to futility

A

A

70
Q

A patient in the emergency department has been intubated and ventilated. CT head has shown a right EDH with significant mass effect. His right pupil is larger than the left and the anesthetist is concerned about hemodynamic instability. What ASA grade is this patient?
a. 1
b.2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6

A

E

71
Q

A 27-year-old man undergoes general anes- thesia for a hernia repair. As the anesthesia begins, his jaw muscles tense and he becomes generally rigid. He becomes febrile, tachy- cardic, and tachypneic. Which one of the fol- lowing treatments is most appropriate?
a. Atropine
b. Procyclidine
c. Succinylcholine
d. Dantrolene
e. Thiopental

A

D

72
Q

Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with massive blood transfusion?
a. Iron overload
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypothermia
e. Coagulopathy

A

A

73
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding intraoperative blood loss manage- ment techniques applied in patients refusing blood product transfusion is LEAST accurate?

a. Meticulous attention to hemostasis and technical blood losses during surgery are not usually important
b. Phlebotomy should be rationalized
c. Jehovah’s witnesses generally accept pro-
thrombin complex concentrate
d. Intraoperative cell saver use should be
considered if appropriate
e. DDAVP (vasopressin) can be used as a
procoagulant

A

C

74
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the oxygen-dissociation curve is LEAST accurate?
a. It is sigmoidal due to cooperative binding
of oxygen to hemoglobin
b. The Bohr effect is a shift of the dissocia-
tion curve to the left
c. Reducing pH shifts the oxygen-
dissociation curve to the left
d. The fetal oxygen-dissociation curve is
shifted to the left reflecting the increased oxygen affinity of fetal hemoglobin caused by the presence of the gamma subunit of hemoglobin
e. Increased temperature shifts the oxygen- dissociation curve to the left

A

B

75
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding mechanical ventilation is LEAST accurate?
a. PEEP and CPAP aim to keep alveoli open
during inspiration
b. Delivery of machine breaths may be trig-
gered by time or start of a patients spon-
taneous breath
c. SIMV allows patients to breath spontane-
ously between machine breaths
d. Patients with sufficient spontaneous respiratory drive can be managed with
pressure support ventilation alone
e. Tidal volume is usually calculated as
6-8 ml/kg of ideal body weight

A

A

76
Q

A 70 kg man has lost 1.7 l of blood from a stab wound. Which one of the following is the LEAST likely to be showing?
a. Respiratory rate 20-30
b. Narrow pulse pressure
c. Urine output 5-15 ml/h
d. Confusion
e. Pulse rate 120-140 bpm

A

A

77
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding shock is LEAST accurate?
a. Cardiac tamponade is a cause of
obstructive shock
b. Sepsis can cause a distributive shock
c. Spinal shock can cause bradycardia and
hypotension
d. Hypovolemic shock is managed with res-
toration of the circulating volume
e. Neurogenic shock is due to peripheral
vasoconstriction

A

E

78
Q

Which one of the following is the most appropriate approximate blood volume for a term neonate?
a. 90-105 ml/kg
b. 80-90 ml/kg
c. 70-80 ml/kg
d. 70 ml/kg
e. 65 ml/kg

A

B

79
Q

A 44-year-old male sustains a major trauma and is found with vomitus in his airway at scene with a GCS on E2V2M4. Primary sur- vey suggests isolated head injury and is admit- ted to intensive care for medical management
of intracranial pressure. ICP is 19 mmHg therefore he is kept sedated and ventilated. On day 2 he starts to desaturate and CXR is performed. PaO2/FiO2 ratio is 113 mmHg (15 kPa). TTE is normal and there is no evi- dence of peripheral edema. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Lower respiratory tract infection
b. ARDS
c. ALI
d. Congestive cardiac failure
e. Hemopneumothorax

A

B