Pass med onc Flashcards

(107 cards)

1
Q

Most common tumours causing bone mets

A

prostate (most)
breast
lung

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2
Q

most common sites of mets

A

spine (most)
pelvis
ribs
skull
long bones

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3
Q

clinical fx of bone mets

A

bone pain
pathological fracturesb

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4
Q

blood tests of bone mets

A

raised ALP
hypercalcaemia

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5
Q

most common causes of cancer in UK

A
  1. Breast
  2. Lung
  3. Colorectal
  4. Prostate
  5. Bladder
  6. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  7. Melanoma
  8. Stomach
  9. Oesophagus
  10. Pancreas
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6
Q

most common causes of deaths from cancer in uk

A
  1. Lung
  2. Colorectal
  3. Breast
  4. Prostate
  5. Pancreas
  6. Oesophagus
  7. Stomach
  8. Bladder
  9. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  10. Ovarian
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7
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma carcinogen

A

aflatoxin (produced by aspergillus)

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8
Q

transitional cell carcinoma carcinogen

A

aniline dyes

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9
Q

mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma carcinogen

A

asbestos

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10
Q

oesophageal and gastric cancer carcinogen

A

nitrosamines

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11
Q

hepatic angiosarcoma carcinogen

A

vinyl chloride

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12
Q

cervical cancer most important risk fx

A

Human papilloma virus

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13
Q

subtypes carcinogenic cervical cancer

A

16, 18, 33

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14
Q

subtypes non cancerous cervical cancer

A

6 and 11

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15
Q

non cancerous condition associated for cervical cancer

A

genital warts

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16
Q

histological fx of cervical cancer

A

endocervical cells undergo changes resulting in koilocytes, which appear like:
- enlarged nucleus
- irregular nuclear membrane contour
- nucleus stained darker
- perinuclear halo

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17
Q

common s/e of chemo

A

N+V

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18
Q

risk factors for development of N+V from chemo

A

anxiety
age less than 50 years old
concurrent use of opioids
the type of chemotherapy used

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19
Q

N+V from chemo tx

A

low risk of sx - metoclopramide
high risk - ondansetron (esp if combined with dexamethasone)

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20
Q

cyclophosphamide indication

A

mx of cancer and autoimmune condition

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21
Q

cyclophosphamide s/e

A

haemorrhagic cystitis
myelosuppression
transitional cell carcinoma

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22
Q

cyclophosphamide mechanism

A

alkylating agent works by cross linking DNA

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23
Q

how reduce incidence of haemorrhagic cystitis in use of cyclophosphamide

A

Mesna:
2-mercaptoethane sulfonate Na binds to a metabolite of cyclophosphamide called acrolein which is toxic to urothelium…inactivating metabolite

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24
Q

bleomycin mechanism

A

degrades preformed DNA

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25
bleomycin s/e
lung fibrosis
26
athracyclines (doxorubicin) mechanism
Stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis
27
doxorubicin s/e
cardiomyopathy
28
methotrexate mechanism
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis
29
methotrexate s/e
Myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, lung fibrosis
30
flurouracil mechanism
Pyrimidine analogue inducing cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase (works during S phase)
31
fluorouracil s/e
Myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis
32
6-mercaptopurine mechanism
Purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, decreasing purine synthesis
33
6-mercaptopurine s/e
myelosuppression
34
cytarabine mechanism
Pyrimidine antagonist. Interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase
35
cytarabine s/e
myelosuppression, ataxia
36
vincristine mechanisms
inhibits formation of microtubules
37
vicristibine s/e
Vincristine: Peripheral neuropathy (reversible) , paralytic ileus Vinblastine: myelosuppression
38
docetaxel mechanism
Prevents microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, decreasing free tubulin
39
docetaxel s/e
neutropenia
40
irinotecan mechanism
inhibits topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA
41
irinotecan s/e
myelosuppression
42
cisplatin mechanism
crosslinking of dna
43
cisplatin s/e
Ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia
44
hydroxyrurea (hydroxycarbamide) mechanism
Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis
45
hydroxyurea s/e
myelosuppresion
46
li fraumeni syndrome genetics
aut dom germline mutations to p53 tumour supressor gene
47
li fraumeni syndrome high incidence
sarcomas and leukaemias
48
brca 1 and 2 gene which chromosome
brca 1 - chromosome 17 brca 2 - 13
49
brca 1 and 2 associated risk
breast cancer ovarian cancer just brca 2 - prostate cancer
50
lynch syndrome inheritance
aut dom
51
lynch syndrome associated risk
colon cancer and endometrial cancer at young age
52
lynch syndrome risk criteria
high risk individuals identified using amsterdam criteria
53
amsterdam criteriab
Three or more family members with a confirmed diagnosis of colorectal cancer, one of whom is a first degree (parent, child, sibling) relative of the other two. Two successive affected generations. One or more colon cancers diagnosed under age 50 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) has been excluded
54
gardners syndrome genetics
aut dom familial colorectal polyposis Mutation of APC gene located on chromosome 5 considered a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis coli
55
clinical fx gardners syndrome
Multiple colonic polyps Extra colonic diseases include: skull osteoma, thyroid cancer and epidermoid cysts Desmoid tumours are seen in 15%
56
gardeners syndrome mx
most undergo colectomy as risk of colorectal cancer
57
all pts investigations mets disease of unknown primary
FBC, U&E, LFT, calcium, urinalysis, LDH Chest X-ray CT of chest, abdomen and pelvis AFP and hCG
58
lytic bone lesions extra Inv
myeloma screen
59
men extra inv mets
PSA testicular US in men with germ cell tumour
60
GI sx mets extra inv
endoscopy
61
breast cancer mets extra inv
mammography
62
3 main subtypes of non small cell lung cancer
squamous cell adenocarcinoma large cell
63
squamous cell lung cancer fx
typically central hypercalcaemia (PTHrP secretion) finger clubbing cavitating lesions hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
64
adenocarcinoma lung cancer fx
typically peripheral most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers, although the majority of patients who develop lung adenocarcinoma are smokers
65
large cell lung cancer fx
typically peripheral anaplastic, poorly differentiated tumours with a poor prognosis may secrete β-hCG
66
spinal cord compression neoplastic how bad
oncological emergency
67
majority cause of spinal cord compression
extradural compression from vertebral body mets
68
most common primary cancer spinal cord compression
lung breast prostate
69
clinical fx neoplastic spinal cord compression
back pain the earliest and most common symptom may be worse on lying down and coughing lower limb weakness sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion. Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion
70
investigations neoplastic spinal cord compression
urgent whole MRI scan within 24 hours
71
neoplastic spinal cord compression mx
high dose oral dexamethasone urgent oncological assesment for consideration f radiotherapy or sugrery
72
PET scan how work
a form of nuclear imaging which uses fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) as the radiotracer. This allows a 3D image of metabolic activity to be generated using glucose uptake as a proxy marker. The images obtained are then combined with a conventional imaging technique such as CT to decide whether lesions are metabolically active.
73
uses PET scan
evaluating primary and possible metastatic disease cardiac PET: not used mainstream currently
74
sx of spinal mets (before compression)
Unrelenting lumbar back pain Any thoracic or cervical back pain Worse with sneezing, coughing or straining Nocturnal Associated with tenderness
75
SVC obstruction how urgent
oncological emergency
76
most common associated SVC obstruction
lung cancerc
77
clinical fx SVC obstruction
dyspnoea is the most common symptom swelling of the face, neck and arms - conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen headache: often worse in the mornings visual disturbance pulseless jugular venous distension
78
causes SVC obstruction
common malignancies: small cell lung cancer, lymphoma other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi's sarcoma, breast cancer aortic aneurysm mediastinal fibrosis goitre SVC thrombosis
79
options for tx of SVC obstruction
endovascular stenting is often the treatment of choice to provide symptom relief certain malignancies such as lymphoma, small cell lung cancer may benefit from radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy rather than stenting the evidence base supporting the use of glucocorticoids is weak but they are often given
80
tumour markers specificity
low generally
81
CA-125
ovarian cancer
82
CA 19-9
pancreatic cancer
83
CA 15-3
breast cancer
84
PSA
prostatic carcinoma
85
AFP
hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
86
CEA
colorectal cancer
87
S-100
melanoma, schwannomas
88
bombesin
small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, neuroblastoma
89
breast cancer ddx
fibrocystic, lipoma, fibroadenoma
90
poor prog breast cancer
size grade BRCA 1/2 positive and er negaticvebr
91
brca 1/2 genetic testing
<50 yrs and close relative, two or more close relatives with breast cancer
92
colorectal genetics
sporadic (95%) hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC, 5%) familial adenomatous polyposis
93
colorectal genetic referral meets crieteria
The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis: at least 3 family members with colon cancer the cases span at least two generations at least one case diagnosed before the age of 50 years
94
colorectal screening
the NHS now has a national screening programme offering screening every 2 years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England, 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening
95
pancreatic cancer associations
increasing age smoking diabetes chronic pancreatitis (alcohol does not appear an independent risk factor though) hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma multiple endocrine neoplasia BRCA2 gene KRAS gene mutation
96
pancreatic cancer ix
high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice if the diagnosis is suspected imaging may demonstrate the 'double duct' sign - the presence of simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts
97
pancreatic cancer mx
a Whipple's resection - rare (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is performed for resectable lesions in the head of pancreas. Side-effects of a Whipple's include dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery ERCP with stenting is often used for palliation
98
renal cell carcinoma associations
more common in middle-aged men smoking von Hippel-Lindau syndrome tuberous sclerosis incidence of renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
99
renal cell carcinoma mx
for confined disease a partial or total nephrectomy depending on the tumour size patients with a T1 tumour (i.e. < 7cm in size) are typically offered a partial nephrectomy alpha-interferon and interleukin-2 have been used to reduce tumour size and also treat patients with metatases receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors (e.g. sorafenib, sunitinib)
100
prostate cancer mx
radical prostatectomy (erectile dysfunction) radiotherapy: external beam and brachytherapy (patients may develop proctitis and are also at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer) GnRH agonists: e.g. Goserelin (Zoladex) b/l orchidectomy bicalutamide non-steroidal anti-androgen blocks the androgen receptor cyproterone acetate steroidal anti-androgen
101
risk fx of testicular cancer
infertility (increases risk by a factor of 3) cryptorchidism family history Klinefelter's syndrome mumps orchitis
102
testicular cancer presentation
a painless lump is the most common presenting symptom pain may also be present in a minority of men hydrocele gynaecomastia this occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio germ-cell tumours → hCG → Leydig cell dysfunction → increases in both oestradiol and testosterone production, but rise in oestradiol is relatively greater than testosterone leydig cell tumours → directly secrete more oestradiol and convert additional androgen precursors to oestrogens
103
testicular cancer mx
orchidectomy radio or chemo
104
hepatocellular carcinoma risk fx
hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include: alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency hereditary tyrosinosis glycogen storage disease aflatoxin drugs: oral contraceptive pill, anabolic steroids porphyria cutanea tarda male sex diabetes mellitus, metabolic syndrome
105
hepatocellular carcinoma xi
ultrasound (+/- alpha-fetoprotein)
106
hepatocellular carcinoma mx
early disease: surgical resection liver transplantation radiofrequency ablation transarterial chemoembolisation sorafenib: a multikinase inhibitor
107