Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PSA > Passmed PSA Revision > Flashcards

Passmed PSA Revision Flashcards

(122 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Drugs that cause impaired glucose tolerance

A
  • Thiazides, furosemide (less common)
  • Steroids
  • Tacrolimus, ciclosporin
  • Interferon-alpha
  • Nicotinic acid
  • Antipsychotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drugs causing urinary retention

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressants e.g. amitriptyline
  • Anticholinergics e.g. antipsychotics, antihistamines
  • Opioids
  • NSAIDs
  • Disopyramide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Drugs causing lung fibrosis

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Cytotoxic agents: busulphan, bleomycin
  • Anti-rheumatoid drugs: methotrexate, sulfasalazine
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Side-effects of Rifampicin

A
  • Hepatitis
  • Orange secretions
  • Flu like symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Side-effects of Isoniazid

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Hepatitis
  • Agranulocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Side-effects of pyrazinamide

A
  • Hyperuricaemia causing gout
  • Arthralgia
  • Myalgia
  • Hepatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Side-effects of ethambutol

A
  • Optic neuritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which tuberculosis medications do you stop if the patient develops hepatitis?

A
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Rifampicin
  • Isoniazid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How much paracetamol should a child have?

A

20mg/kg, every 6-8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the initial dose of allopurinol and what should the uric acid levels aim to be?

A
  • Initial dose of 100 mg od
  • Aim for serum uric acid of <300 umol/l
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Side effects of allopurinol?

A
  • Severe cutaneous adverse reaction
  • Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Drug interactions with allopurinol?

A
  • Azathiprine
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Theophylline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why shouldn’t children under 16 take aspirin?

A

Reye’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If digoxin toxicity is suspected when do you measure concentration levels?

A

8-12 hours after last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Features of digoxin toxicity/

A
  • Generally unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision
  • Arrhythmias e.g. AV block, bradycardia
  • Gynaecomastia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drugs causing digoxin toxicity?

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Quinidine
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
  • Spironolactone
  • Ciclosporin
  • Thiazide and loop diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment of digoxin toxicity?

A
  • Digibind
  • Correct arrhythmias
  • Monitor potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gentamicin adverse effects?

A
  • Ototoxicity
    -Nephrotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contraindications of gentamicin?

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should you measure gentamicin levels?
What should you do if trough (pre-dose) level is high?
What should you do if peak (post dose) level is high?

A
  • Measure peak (1 hour after administration) and trough (just before next dose)
  • If trough (pre-dose) is high the intervals between the doses should be increased
  • If peak (post-dose) is high the dose should be increased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adverse effects of heparins?

A
  • Bleeding
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Hyperkalaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How to reverse heparin overdose?

A

Protamine sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adverse effects of octreotide?

A

Gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Uses of octreotide?

A
  • Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage
  • Acromegaly
  • Carcinoid syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What causes lithium toxicity?
- Dehydration - Renal failure - Drugs- diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor blockers, NSAIDs and metronidazole
26
Features of lithium toxicity?
- Coarse tremor - Hyperreflexia - Acute confusion - Polyuria - Seizure - Coma
27
Management of lithium toxicity?
- Volume resuscitation with normal saline - Haemodialysis - Sodium bicarbonate
28
Adverse effects of macrolides?
- Prolonged QT interval - GI side effects - Cholestatic jaundice - Azithromycin is associated with hearing loss and tinnitus
29
Interactions of macrolides?
- Statins should be stopped whilst taking a course of macrolides - increases risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolsis
30
Does metformin cause hypoglycaemia?
No
31
Do sulphonylureas cause hypoglycaemia?
Yes
32
Adverse effects of metformin?
- GI upset- nausea, anorexia, diarrhoea - Reduced vitamin B12 absorption - Lactic acidosis
33
Contraindications of metformin?
- Chronic kidney disease - Periods of tissue hypoxia - Iodine containing X-ray contrast media - Alcohol abuse
34
Management of paracetamol overdose?
- Activated charcoal if ingested <1 hour - N-acetylcysteine - Liver transplant
35
Opioid overdose treatment?
- Naloxone
36
Tricyclic antidepressant overdose management?
- IV bicarbonate
37
Warfarin overdose management?
- Vitamin K - Prothrombin complex
38
Heparin overdose treatment?
- Protamine sulphate
39
Contraindications of phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors e.g. sildenafil
- Patients taking nitrates - Hypotension - Recent stroke or MI
40
Side effects of sildenafil?
- Visual disturbances- blue discolouration - Nasal congestion - Flushing - GI Side effects - Headache - Priapism
41
Drugs used with caution in patients with asthma?
- NSAIDs - Beta blockers - Adenosine- verapamil is used as an alternative
42
Drugs worsening seizure control in patients with epilepsy?
- Alcohol, cocaine, amphetamines - Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin - Aminophylline, theophylline - Bupropion - Methylphenidate - Mefenamic acid
43
Drugs exacerbating heart failure?
- Thiazolidinediones - Verapamil - NSAIDs/ glucocorticoids - Class 1 antiarrhythmics
44
Which drugs should be used with caution in patients with ischaemic heart disease?
- NSAIDs - Oestrogens - Varenicline
45
Drugs to avoid in renal failure?
- Antibiotics - tetracycline, nitrofurantoin - NSAIDs - Lithium - Metformin
46
Antibiotics harmful in pregnancy?
- Tetracyclines - Aminoglycosides - Sulphonamides and trimethoprim - Quinolones
47
Drugs (excluding antibiotics) that are harmful during pregnancy?
- ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists - Statins - Warfarin - Sulfonylureas - Retinoids - Cytotoxic agents
48
Adverse effects of quinolones?
- Lower seizure threshold - Tendon damage - Cartilage damage - Lengthens QT
49
Contraindications of quinolones?
- Pregnancy and breastfeeding - G6PD
50
Adverse effects of tamoxifen?
- Menstrual disturbance- vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea - Hot flushes - Venous thromboembolism - Endometrial cancer
51
How long is tamoxifen taken after removal of tumour?
5 years
52
Adverse effects of trastuzumab?
- Flu like symptoms and diarrhoea - Cardiotoxicity
53
Examples of 5-HT3 antagonists and adverse effects?
- Ondansetron - Polonosetron - Prolonged qt - Constipation
54
Side effects of ACE Inhibitors?
- Cough - Angioedema - Hyperkalaemia - First dose hypotension
55
What is adenosine used for?
Terminate supraventricular tachycardias
56
Adverse effects of adenosine?
- Chest pain - Bronchospasm - Transient flushing - Increased ventricular rate e.g. WPW syndrome
57
Adverse effects of aminosalicylate and adverse effects specifically with mesalazine?
- Agranulocytosis - Pancreatitis is 7 times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine
58
What is amiodarone used for and what is the mechanism of action?
- Atrial, nodal and ventricular tachycardias - Blocking potassium channels
59
Why should amiodarone be given into central veins?
- Thrombophlebitis
60
Monitoring of amiodarone prior to treatment and every 6 months?
- TFT, LFT U&E, CXR prior to treatment - TFT, LFT every 6 months
61
Community acquired pneumonia treatment?
Amoxicillin, add flucloxacillin if staphylococci is suspected
62
Atypical pneumonia treatment?
Clarithromycin
63
Hospital acquired pneumonia treatment
Co-amoxiclav
64
Drugs for rate control of AF?
- Beta clocker - Rate limiting calcium channel blocker e.g. diltiazem
65
Adverse effects of azathioprine?
- Bone marrow depression - Nausea/ vomiting - Pancreatitis - Increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer
66
Contraindications of beta-blockers?
- Uncontrolled heart failure - Asthma - Sick sinus syndrome - Concurrent verapamil
67
Side effects of beta-blockers?
- Bronchospasm - Cold peripheries - Fatigue - Sleep disturbances, including nightmares - Erectile dysfunction
68
Adverse effects of bisphosphonates?
- Oesophageal reactions- oesophagitis - Osteonecrosis of jaw - Increased risk of atypical stress fracture - Acute phase response- fever, myalgia - Hypocalcaemia
69
What is carbimazole used for and what are some adverse effects?
- Agranulocytosis - Crosses placenta
70
First line treatment for heart failure?
- ACE inhibitor - Beta blocker
71
What organism is Clostridioides difficile?
- Gram positive rod
72
Treatment for C. Diff?
- Oral vancomycin for 10 days - Second line oral fidaxomicin - Third line oral vancomycin +/- metronidazole
73
Adverse effects of cyclophosphamide?
- Haemorrhagic cystitis - Myelosuppression - Transitional cell carcinoma
74
Drugs which decrease serum potassium?
- Thiazide diuretics - Loop diuretics - Acetazolamide
75
Drugs which increase serum potassium?
- ACE inhibitors - Angiotensin-2 receptor blockers - Spironolactone - Potassium sparing diuretics - Potassium supplements
76
Drugs causing peripheral neuropathy?
- Amiodarone - Isoniazid - Vincristine - Nitrofurantoin - Metronidazole
77
Side effects of thyroxine therapy?
- Hyperthyroidism - Reduced bone mineral density - Worsening of angina - AF
78
Bacterial meningitis prophylaxis?
ciprofloxacin
79
Methotrexate adverse effects?
- Mucositis - Myelosuppression - Pneumonitis - Pulmonary fibrosis - Liver fibrosis
80
STEMI acute management?
- Aspirin - Ticagrelor - Unfractionated heparin if having a PCI
81
Side effects of nitrates?
- Hypotension - Tachycardia - Headaches - Flushing
82
What pain drug is used in palliative care for patients with mild/ moderate renal impairment?
Oxycodone
83
Levodopa common adverse effects?
- Dry mouth - Anorexia - Palpitations - Postural hypotension - Psychosis
84
Why is phenytoin teratogenic?
- Cleft palate and congenital heart disease
85
PPI adverse effects?
- Hyponatraemia - Hypomagnasaemia - Osteoporosis - Microscopic colitis - Increased risk of C. diff
86
Why is sodium valproate teratogenic?
- Neural tube defects - Neurodevelopmental delay
87
Adverse effects of spironolactone?
- Hyperkalaemia - Gynaecomastia
88
Adverse effects of statins?
- Myopathy - Liver impairment
89
How do sulfonylureas work?
Increasing pancreatic insulin secretion and are only effective if functional B cells are present
90
Adverse effects of sulfonyureas?
- Hypoglycaemia - Weight gain - Hyponatraemia - Bone marrow suppression - Hepatotoxicity - Peripheral neuropathy
91
Management of svt?
- Vagal manoeuvres - IV adenosine - Electrical cardioversion
92
Prevention of SVT?
- Beta blockers - Radio frequency ablation
93
How do thiazide diuretics work?
- Inhibiting reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule by blocking the thiazide sensitive NA CL symporter
94
Side effects of thiazide diuretics?
- Dehydration - Postural hypotension - Hypokalaemia - Hyponatraemia - Hypercalcaemia - Gout - Impaired glucose tolerance - Impotence - Thrombocytopenia - Agranulocytosis - Photosensitivity rash - Pancreatitis
95
Contraindications to thrombolysis?
- Active internal bleeding - Recent haemorrhage, trauma, surgery - Coagulation and bleeding disorders - Intracranial neoplasm - Stroke <3 months - Aortic dissection - Recent head injury - Severe hypertension
96
Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia?
- Carbamazepine
97
Treatment of variceal haemorrhage?
- Terlipressin - Prophylactic antibiotics
98
Prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage?
- Propanolol
99
Side effects of warfarin?
- Haemorrhage - Skin necrosis - Purple toes
100
Drugs that decrease INR?
- Phenytoin - Carbamazepine - Rifampicin - St Johns Wort - Chronic alcohol intake - Smoking - Barbiturates
101
102
When should you measure lithium dose?
12 hours post dose
103
When should you measure ciclosporin levels?
Trough levels immediately before dose
104
When should you take digoxin levels?
At least 6 hours post dose
105
First line treatment for acne?
Topical adapalene with topical benzoyl peroxide
106
First step of pain ladder?
- Paracetamol - NSAIDs, aspirin
107
Step 2 pain ladder?
- Codeine - Dihydrocodeine
108
Step 3 pain ladder?
- Morphine
109
Adverse effects of tamoxifen?
- Menstrual disturbance - Hot flushes - VTE - Endometrial cancer
110
Adverse effects of anastrozole?
- Osteoporosis - Hot flushes - Arthralgia, myalgia - Insomnia
111
Extrapyramidal side effects of typical psychotics?
- Parkinsonism - Acute dystonia - Akathisia - Tardive dyskinesia
112
How long is levonorgestrel licensed for emergency contraception?
72 hours
113
How long is ulipristal licensed for emergency contraception?
120 hours
114
How long is intrauterine device licensed for emergency contraception?
5 days
115
Fungal nail infection treatment?
- Amorolfine 5% nail lacquer
116
ECG changed of lithium?
T wave flattening/ inversion
117
Psoriasis exacerbating factors?
- Trauma - Alcohol - Drugs- beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, infliximab - Withdrawal of systemic steroids
118
Adverse effects of retinoids?
- Teratogenicity - Dry skin, eyes and lips - Low mood - Raised triglycerides - Hair thinning - Nose bleeds - Intracranial hypertension - Photosensitivity
119
Treatment for predominant erythema/ flushing in rosacea?
Topical brimonidine gel
120
Treatment for papules/ pustules in rosacea?
Topical ivermectin
121
How is vasospasm treated in subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Oal nimodipine
122
Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also allergic to...
Cephalosporins

PSA (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions