Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Question bank questions > Passmed Questions 3.0 > Flashcards

Passmed Questions 3.0 Flashcards

(71 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

simple measures for acne rosacea

A

daily suncream
camouflage cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

first line treatment for acne rosacea with predominant flushing and minimal telangiectasia

A

topical brimonidine (alpha agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

treatment for mild/moderate/severe acne rosacea with papules/pustules

A

mild - topical ivermectin
moderate/2nd line - topical metronidazole or topical azelaic acid
severe - topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what drugs can trigger psoriasis

A

lithium
betablockers
antimalarials
NSAIDS
ACE inhibitors
inflixamab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for diabetic otitis externa

A

ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

patient has angina, is on gtn spray but still experiences symptoms. What medication would you add next?

A

betablocker or CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what type of CCB should be used if used as monotherapy for angina

A

monotherapy = rate limiting i.e. verapamil or diltiazem

if in conjunction with betablocker as 2nd line then use dihydropyradine i.e. nifedpine or amlodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

treatment for MSRA

A

nasal mupirocin + topical chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what age would a child require the ability to crawl

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what age would a child respond to their name

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what age would a child sit unsupported

A

7-8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

diagnosis ? –> chronic unilateral conjunctivitis resistant to treatment

A

orbital lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

breastfeeding at how many weeks post partum s a UKMEC 4 for contraindication for OCP

A

< 6 weeks post partum and breast feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

treatment for bacterial vaginosus if metronidazole allergy

A

topical clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

treatment bacterial vaginosus if pregnancy

A

oral metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment for fibroid in a patient who is wanting to concieve

A

refer for myomectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

side effects of herceptin (tratzumab) for HER2 positive breast cancer

A

flu like symptoms
cardiac toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

partial seizures at night in children

A

benign rolandic epilepsy
EEG = centrotemporal spikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

imipramine drug class and side effects

A

TCA
anti cholinergic side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

treatment for galactorhoea

A

bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1st line treatment for osteoporosis post hip fracture

A

IV zolendronate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment for osteoporosis if renal failure

A

desonumab (bisphosphonates are contraindicated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

at what dose of daily prednisolone would a patient also require bone protection

A

if they are on 7.5mg or more daily for the next 3 months would require bone protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

main indication for cryoprecipitate

A

low fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the constitutes ofcryoprecipitate
contains factor VIII:C, VonWillebrand factor, fibrinogen, factor XIII, and fibrinonectin
26
section 2 of MHA
admission for assessment for up to 28 days (not renewable)
27
section 3 of MHA
admission for treatment for up to 6 months
28
section 4 of MHA
72 hour assessment order
29
first line treatment for all patients with peripheral vascular disease
atorvastatin + clopidogrel
30
Causes of massive splenomegaly
Can My Massive SPLEEN be Very Great chronic myeloid leukaemia myelofibrosis malaria visceral leishamniasis gauchers
31
section 135 of MHA
a court order can be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety
32
section 136 of MHA
someone found in a public space who appears to have a mentlal health disorder and take them to a place of safety
33
section 5(2) of MHA
someone who is voluntarily in hospital can be detained for 72 hours
34
section 5(4) of MHA
allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient in the hospital
35
can pregnant women have the pertusis vaccine
yes between 16-32 weeks
36
what is the feverPAIN score
fever purulent tonsils attend rapidly inflammed tonsils no cough or coryza 0-1 safety net 2-4 = delayed abx score of 4-5 = immediate abx
37
what investigation is useful for IgE mediated allergy i.e. bee venom, food allergy, inhaled allergen (pollen)
RAST
38
what investigation is useful for contact dermatitis
skin patch
39
what investigation is useful for food allergy (non-anaphylactic reaction)
skin prick test
40
what is fouchers sign
describes Bakers cyst which becomes tense on extension of the leg
41
2nd line investigation for NAFLD if enhanced liver fibrosis blood test (ELF) not available
FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score scores may be used in combination with fibroscan (liver stiffness measurement assessed with transient elastography)
42
presentation of vitreous haemorrhage
large haemorrhage - sudden loss of vision (painless) moderate - large black spots small - floaters
43
features of central retinal artery occlusion vs vein occlusion on fundoscopy
renal artery - afferent pupillary defect, cherry red spot retinal vein - multiple severe haemorrhages
44
first line investigation for suspected lyme disease if erythema migrans not present
ELISA
45
features of disseminated lyme disease
cardiac - heart block, myo/pericarditis neuro - facial nerve palsy, meningitis, radicular pain
46
patient develops fever, rash, tachycardia after starting abx for lyme disease or syphilis
Jarisch Herxheimer reaction
47
cardiac complications associated with polycystic kidney disease
long QT mitral regurgitation
48
main mechanism of nexplanon
inhibits ovulation
49
when can you drive after first unproved seizure
6 months
50
can you drive with epilepsy diagnosis
can qualify for drivers liscence if seizure free for 12 months
51
when can you drive after TIA/stroke
1 month
52
when can you drive after multiple TIA's over short period of time
3 months
53
treatment for scarlet fever if penicillin allergic
azithromycin
54
when can a child with scarlet fever return to school
24 hours after starting antibiotics
55
causative organism of scarlet fever
group A strep (usually strep pyogenes)
56
complications associated with scarlet fever
otitis media (most common) acute glomerulonephritis rheumatic fever other i.e. meningitis, nec fasc, sepsis
57
janeway lesions and osler nodes, - what are they are which are painful/painless
janeway lesions are painless caused by septic emboli osler nodes are painful - caused by immune complex deposition
58
are antiepileptics safe in breastfeeding
yes except from barbiturates
59
increased risks in elderly taking antipsychotic medication
stroke + VTE
60
genital wart treatment
single - cryotherapy multiple - topical podophyllum
61
incubation period of campylobacter, salmonella, e.coli and shigella
shigella, salmonella and e.coli - 12-72 hours campylobacter - 2-5 days
62
what anti rheumatic drug can cause exacerbation of myaesthenia gravis
penicillamine
63
acute tretament for cluster headache
100% 02 subcutaneous triptan
64
risk factors for cluster headaches
smoking male alcohol may trigger
65
treatment for malignant otitis externa
severe otitis externa found in immunocmpromised individuals usually pseudomonas worsening and not responding to tretament should be referred urgently to ENT IV ciprofloxacin
66
missed pill rule for 'traiditional' POP and desogestrel
all POP have a 3 hour window so if missed > 3 hours then take pill + protection for 48 hours desogestrel is the only POP that has 12 hour window.
67
monitoring required for amiodarone
TFT and LFT every 6 months
68
monitoring required for ACE inhibitors
u&e prior to treatment, after dose change and at least annually
69
monitoring required for methotrexate
FBC, U&E, LFT every 2 weeks until treatment established then every 2-3 months
70
monitoring required for lithium
lithium level every 3 months U&E + TFT every 6 months
71
tear drop poikoilocytes on blood film
myelofibrosis

Question bank questions (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions