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Opthalmology > Past 2020 > Flashcards

Past 2020 Flashcards

If you know the answer on the (?-qs) let me know

1
Q

In case of synechia posterior:

A. The pupil is maximally dilated

B. The pupil can only have a regular shape

C. There is an adhesion between iris and the cornea

D. There is an adhesion between iris and anterior lens capsule

A

There is an adhesion between iris and anterior lens capsule

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2
Q

If the indirect PLR (pupil light reflex) is present in the right eye (OD), this means:

A. The intraocular pressure is increased in OD
B. OU are sighted
C. The retina is functional in OD
D. The retina is functional in OS

A

A. The intraocular pressure is increased in OD

????

Think: D. The retina is functional in OS
Direct: same eye
Consensual: One eye indirect response to light entering the other eye, contralateral function

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3
Q

It is characteristic of the posterior chamber that:

A. It can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope

B. It is bounded by the posterior part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule

C. It does not communicate with the anterior chamber

D. Aqueous humour is drained here.

A

B. It is bounded by the posterior part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule

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4
Q

It is a fact that the posterior chamber:

A. Can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope

B. Is filled by the vitreous body

C. Is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule

D. Is the location where the aqueous humour is drained

A

C. Is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule

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5
Q

Which is not an acute sign of uveitis:

A. Blepharospasms
B. Mydriasis
C. Epiphora
D. Blood – aqueous barrier breakdown

A

B. Mydriasis
= dilation of the pupil

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6
Q

If a descemetocele is stained by fluorescein:

A. The Descemet`s membrane remains permanently stained

B. The stroma has stain uptake, but the Descemet’s membrane hasn’t

C. Superficial epithelial loss can be detected

D.The stroma has no stain uptake, but the Descemet`s membrane has

A

The stroma has stain uptake, but the Descemet’s membrane hasn’t

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7
Q

Using a direct ophthalmoscope…

A. A virtual magnified image of the fundus can be obtained

B. Entire fundus can be examined if the pupil is miotic

C. Fundus cannot be examined if the investigator is emmetrope

D. Iris can be examined

A

A. A virtual magnified image of the fundus can be obtained

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8
Q

Aphacic crescent is visible:

A. In case of synechia posterior
B. In case of maximal mydriasis
C. In case of retinal detachment
D. In case of lens subluxation

A

D. In case of lens subluxation

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9
Q

What kind of mydriatics would you use to dilate the pupil at the ophthalmic examination?

A: 1% tropicamide
B: 2% atropine
C: 2% lidocaine
D: 1% pilocarpine

A

A: 1% tropicamide

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10
Q

Which statement is true regarding atropine?

A. Effectivity gives information about the severity of the uveitis

B. Induces constricted pupil for a couple of days in a healthy eye dilated

C. Can be used for pupil dilation at the eye exam

D. It has a stronger effect on eyes with blue iris

A

A. Effectivity gives information about the severity of the uveitis

Æ trur det e c:
C. Can be used for pupil dilation at the eye exam??

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11
Q

Iris bombè means:

a. Brownish iris

b. Adhesion between the iris and cornea

c. Iris protrudes toward the cornea due to synechia posterior

d. Iris pushed forward against the cornea due to anterior lens luxation.

A

c. Iris protrudes toward the cornea due to synechia posterio

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12
Q

What is not type of cataract?

A: Cataracta intumestentia
B: Cataracta immatura
C: Cataracta hypermatura
D: Cataracta Desmares

A

D: Cataracta Desmares

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13
Q

Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when:

A. The pupil is miotic
B. Hyphema is present
C. Intraocular pressure is reduced
D. The cornea has fluoresceine stain uptake

A

D. The cornea has fluoresceine stain uptake

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14
Q

Buphthalmus (increased globe size) can be feature of:

A: Iridodenesis
B: Descemetocele
C: Glaucoma
D: Blepharitis

A

C: Glaucoma

Buphthalmos = bigger globe due to aquatic humour and damaged outflow

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15
Q

What is a subpalpebral lavage kit (SPL) used for?

A. To anesthetize the ocular surface

B. To provide long term frequent topical treatment

C. To check intraocular pressure

D. To check nasolacrimal drainage patency

A

B. To provide long term frequent topical treatment

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16
Q

The wide field of view and small (4-5x) magnification is feature of the…

A: Clearview fundus camera
B: Direct ophthalmoscope
C: Sciascope
D: Indirect ophthalmoscope

A

D: Indirect ophthalmoscope

17
Q

Which can be correlate with a lenticular disease:

A: Aphacic crescentin
B: Descemetocele
C: Asteroid hyalosis
D: Coloboma

A

A: Aphacic crescentin

18
Q

Which answer is correct?
The shape of a mid-wide pupil is…

A. round in dog and cat
B. vertical elliptic in horse and swine
C. Round in cats
D. horizontal elliptic in horse cattle

A

D. horizontal elliptic in horse cattle

Horse, cow and pig: Horizontal elliptical
Dog: Rounded
Cat: Perpendicular rhomboid

19
Q

Which can not result in disturbance In the flow of the aqueous?

A: Posterior synechia
B: Posterior lens luxation
C: Anterior lens luxation
D: Anterior synechia

A

Posterior lens luxation

20
Q

What is a subpalpebral lavage kit (SPL) used for? (horse)

A. To anesthetize the ocular surface

B. To provide long term frequent topical treatment

C. To check intraocular pressure

D. To check nasolacrimal drainage patency

A

B. To provide long term frequent topical treatment

21
Q

The purpose of auriculopalpebral nerveblock is:

A: To abolish ptosis

B: To induce topical anaesthesia of the corna

C: To relax orbicular occuli muscle

D: To provide anesthesia of the inferior eyelid

A

C: To relax orbicular occuli muscle

22
Q

Dazzle reflex is a..

A: Cortical reflex
B: Subcortical reflex
C: Cerebellar reflex
D: Spinal reflex

A

B: Subcortical reflex

23
Q

It is characteristic of the fundus that;

A. The vasculature of the retina originates from the middle of the optic nerve head in the horse

B. The tapetum is usually brownish

C. Neurons of the retina can be easily detected with a direct ophthalmoscope

D. Light reflective layer is missing in swine

A

D. Light reflective layer is missing in swine

24
Q

With a direct ophthalmoscope:

A. We can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus

B. We can examine the entire surface of the fundus

C. The fundus can be examined sharply with + 20 D lens if the examiner is emmetrope

D. The image is magnified upside down

A

A. We can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus

25
Q

Retinal detachment can be diagnosed:

A: With ophthalmoscope or ultrasound examination

B: With slit lamp biomicroscope

C: With inspection

D: In no way if corneal opacity is present

A

With ophthalmoscope or ultrasound examination

26
Q

Which answer is NOT true?

A. Production of the aqueous is dependent on the thermo convention

B. Production of the aqueous is dependent on the blood pressure

C. Production of the aqueous is dependent on the inflammation

D. Production of the aqueous is dependent on the drugs

A

A. Production of the aqueous is dependent on the thermoconvention

27
Q

Which answer is false regarding the slit lamp biomicroscopy?

A. Aqueous humour transparency or turbidity can be distinguished

B. In a normal eye light beam is not visible crossing the anterior chamber

C. Tyndall – effect can be noticed in acute uveitis

D. Width of the anterior chamber cannot be estimated

A

B. In a normal eye light beam is not visible crossing the anterior chamber

28
Q

What kind of surgical procedure can be used to treat a deep stromal corneal abscess in a horse?

A. Grid keratotomy
B. Enucleation
C. Pars plana vitrectomy
D. Penetrating or lamellar keratoplasty

A

D. Penetrating or lamellar keratoplasty

29
Q

A supraorbital nerve block is recommended for a horse, when

A: A lacerated wound of the superior eyelid needs to be sutured

B: Sub palpebral drain must be inserted in standing position

C: None of the above listed

D: Both above listed

A

D: Both above listed

30
Q

What kind of surgical procedure can be used to treat an indolent chronic superficial corneal ulcer in a horse:

A: Trans palpebral enucleation

B: Subscleral cyclosporine implantation

C: Third eyelid flap

D: Superficial keratectomy or keratotomy

A

D: Superficial keratectomy or keratotomy

31
Q

Which nerve block is used most commonly at ocular examination in the horse?

A: Frontal nerve
B: Auriculopalpebral nerve
C: Supraorbital nerve
D: Infraorbital nerve

A

B: Auriculopalpebral nerve

32
Q

What is the most important step of the eye examination in animals?

A: Slit lamp biomicroscopy
B: Ophthalmoscopy
C: Tonometry
D: Fluorescein staining

A

A: Slit lamp biomicroscopy

33
Q

Which statement is true?

A: General Anaesthesia is required to insert a subpalpebral drain (SPL) in a horse

B: A subpalpebral drain must not remain in the superior eyelid longer than 10 days

C: Frequent topical treatment can be performed with a subpalpebral drain

D: The main aim of SPL is to drain the tear

A

C: Frequent topical treatment can be performed with a subpalpebral drain

34
Q

The chorioretinal scarring in ERU is a possible consequence of:

A: A previous damage of the photoreceptors and retina pigment epithelium (RPE)

B: Aqueous flare

C: Poterior synechia

D: Bacterial invasion to the eye

A

D: Bacterial invasion to the eye
or
A: A previous damage of the photoreceptors and retina pigment epithelium (RPE)

35
Q

It is a fact that the posterior chamber:

A: Can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope

B: Is filled by the vitreous body

C: Is bordered by the caudal part of
the iris and the anterior lens capsule

D: Is the location where the aqueous humour is drained

A

C: Is bordered by the caudal part of
the iris and the anterior lens capsule

36
Q

To give a subconjunctival injection in an alert horse:

A: Maximum 3ml (cc) can be injected

B: Infraorbital nerve bock should be used

C: Retrobulbar anaesthesia should be used

D: Topical anaesthesia should be used

A

D: Topical anaesthesia should be used

37
Q

Which treatment can be successful in the long term management of ERU in a sighted eye?

A: Low dose gentamicin intravitreal injection

B: Subscleral Cyclosporine – A implantation

C: Pars plana vitrectomy

D: All listed above

A

All listed above

ERU = Equine Recurrent Uveitis

Opthalmology (6 decks)

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