PAST PAPERS Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

most important test for ob cholestasis

A

bile acids

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2
Q

citalopram side effect

A

qt prolongation

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3
Q

what is area affected first in dementia

A

hippocampus

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4
Q

delusion where they are convinced their partner is cheating on them

A

othello

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5
Q

what electrolyte abnormality is associated with antidepressants

A

hyponatraemia

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6
Q

whats the probability of being paralysed from an epidural

A

1 in 50,000

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7
Q

what risk of normal delivery is increased in a water birth

A

PPH

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8
Q

at what GA does parity count

A

24 weeks

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9
Q

what strains of HPV are targeted by the quadrivalent vaccine

A

6
11
16
18

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10
Q

whats the most effective form of emergency contraception

A

copper IUD

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11
Q

paeds fracture fall on outstreched hand

A

suprachondylar

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12
Q

toxic left shift

A

lymphadenitis

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13
Q

what type of haemophilia is more common

A

a

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14
Q

definitive test for cystic fibrosis

A

geentic testing

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15
Q

what causes toxic left shift in paeds

A

lymphadenitis
due to bacterial infection lots of WCs are produced

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16
Q

when were mental health act vs mental capacity act made

A

MHA= 1983
MCA= 2005

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17
Q

who does the MCA apply to

A

those over 16 yrs

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18
Q

what class of medication is mirtazipine

A

noradrenaline and serotoninergic antidepressant

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19
Q

less severe vs more severe depression

A

less: PHq 9 <15 or 15
more: phq 9 >15 ie 16 or more

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20
Q

what medication is preferred in rapid tanquilisation

A

IM lorazepam
use this if not sure what one to give or patient not been on antisychotics before

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21
Q

what 2 medications can be used for rapid tranquilisation

A

IM lorazepam
IM haloperidol with promethazine

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22
Q

differences between pseudodementia and dementia

A

present similarly but no cognitive impairement in pseudodemetia

identify it as having:
more rapid onset, low mood, pt exaggerating sx, identifiable trigger, have insight, psych hx, responsive to questions

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23
Q

under what age is it mandatory to report fgm

A

under 18
must be done within a month

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24
Q

what to do if a child is at risk of fgm

A

make a referral to childrens social care
if at immediate risk call 999

24
hep b surface antigen
first antigen to be detected if present for more than 6 months= chronic infection
24
law on re infibulation
it is illegal and cannot be done under any circumstance
25
what is anti hep b core antibody used for
this is the one where you get IgM and IgG therefore you can see if someone has acute or chronic/cleared infection
26
what antibody do people vaccinate against hep b have
anti hep b surface antibody
27
what is hep b e antigen and anti hep b e antibody used for
hep b e is an indicator of how active the infection is it can therefore be used to see if a chronic infection is active or inactive (its active if e antigen is present) presence of anti hep b e antibody therefore indicates an inactive status
28
first line for menorrhagia due to fibroids (and when can it be considered)
LNG IUS <3cm no distortion of uterine cavity no other pathology adenomyosis
29
what size uterus may you consider referral
>3cm
30
what GA do foetal movements plateau
32 weeks
31
reduced foetal movement order of ix
1= doppler to identify heartbeat 2= ultrasound if not identified, CTG if identified and over 28 weeks GA 3= if there is still perception of reduced foetal movements after a reassuring CTG or if any risk factors for stillbirth etc, also do an US within 24hrs
32
when to feel for IUD threads
4-6 weeks after insertion then monthly or after menses
33
how long after CIN is a test of cure smear done
6 months
34
if the test of cure after CIN mx is HPV positive whats done
immediate colposcopy
35
what antibiotics are given for pprom?
erythromycin 250mg Qd for 10 days or until labour established
36
indications for emergency cervical cerclage
16-28 weeks GA dilated cervix and unruptured membranes
37
indications for tocolysis
24-25+6 weeks GA
38
how is breast abscess managed
urgent referral to general surgeon for aspiration and drainage
39
in a foetus with transverse lie where there is SROM and CTG distress what has likely happened
cord prolapse
40
when q is asking for heavy period mx and picking between tranexamic and mefanamic acid pick what
tranexamic
41
what BMI is weight loss recommended in incontinence
>30
42
what do you measure at booking for hep B
surface antigen
43
most likely cause of azoospermia
varicocele
44
what does a lambda sign on US indicate
DCDA twin pregnancy
45
when should you aim to dleiver DCDA twins
37 weeks
46
if someone comes in for sterilisation but has had protected sex what do you do
continue with surgery as long as sex was protected
47
when are serial growth scans offered to women who smoke during pregnancy
if they smoke more than 10/day
48
whats first line for candida
topical clotrimazole or pessary
49
what antibodies are seen when someone has sacroilitis
none
50
what first line for ESBL
carbapenam
51
what covers vancomycin resistant enterococcus
linezolid
52
Which agent is an Interleukin 6 (IL-6) inhibitor, indicated for treatment of severe COVID-19 infection with hypoxia? Anakinra Nafamostat Palivizumab Ruxalitinib Tocilizumab
tocilizumab
53
Streptococcus pneumoniae is resistant to penicillin, by which mechanism? Alteration of the target that binds the antimicrobial Bypass of the antimicrobial susceptible step in metabolism Enhanced efflux of the antimicrobial Enzymatic inactivation of the antimicrobial Impaired uptake of the antimicrobial into the bacterial cell
Alteration of the target that binds the antimicrobial
54
Which antiviral agent is used for the treatment of Influenza A? Cidofovir Foscarnet Ribavirin Tenofovir Zanamivir
zanamivir
55
zanamivir moa
neuraminidase inhibitor
56
what is haemorrhagic cystitis associated with
BK virus cyclophosphamide
57