Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Internal Medicine III > Past Q's mixed 2 > Flashcards

Past Q's mixed 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting:

a) Negative acute phase proteins like albumin fibrinogen
b) Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen
c) Positive acute phase proteins like albumin, fibrinogen
d) Negative acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen

A

b) Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

128.Fungal rhinitis

a) Characterized by bilateral serous nasal discharge
b) Acute, mild disease
c) Aspergillus or Cryptococcus in the origin
d) Nocardia or Mycoplasma in the origin

A

c) Aspergillus or Cryptococcus in the origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Polydipsia/definition/dog:
    a) Water consumption >50-60ml/bwkg/day
    b) Water consumption >80-100ml/bwkg/day
    c) Water consumption >150-180ml/bwkg/day
    d) Water consumption > 180-200ml/bwkg/day
A

b) Water consumption >80-100ml/bwkg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Caused by what disease and what kind of sound produced by these cattle?

a) Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies), lion-like roaring
b) Laryngeal paralysis, laryngeal stridor
c) Rabies, donkey-like roaring
d) Full laryngeal paralysis: no sound formation

A

c) Rabies, donkey-like roaring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true?

a) In hepatic encephalopathy the blood level of ammonia is elevated
b) The lactulose and diet with high biologic values protein are an important part of the treatment of
the hepatic encephalopathy
c) Precipitating factors in hepatic encephalopathy are the obstipation, alkalosis, hypokalaemia and
GI bleeding
d) In microvascular dysplasia the abnormal blood vessels can be detected by colour doppler
ultrasound

A

d) In microvascular dysplasia the abnormal blood vessels can be detected by colour doppler
ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Equine laryngeal hemiplegia/ Diagnosis

a) Auscultation, “slap” test
b) Occlusion of the nostrils; US exam of the larynx; radiographic examination of the larynx
c) Endoscopy, palpation, “slap” test
d) Computed tomography, endoscopy

A

c) Endoscopy, palpation, “slap” test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Decompensated congestive heart failure/drugs?

a) ACE-inhibitors, furosemide, pimobendane
b) Furosemide, oxygen, clenbuterol
c) Enalapril iv., furosemide iv., digoxin iv
d) Spironolactone, aminophylline, digoxin

A

a) ACE-inhibitors, furosemide, pimobendane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Definitive diagnosis of equine leukoencephalomalacia?

a) Elevated liver and kidney parameters
b) Feed analysis and histopathology (brain, liver)
c) Clinical signs are definitive
d) Elevated liver parameters and glucosuria

A

b) Feed analysis and histopathology (brain, liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which drug is not a anti-fungal agent?

a) Marbocyl
b) Intraconazole
c) Terbinafine
d) Local konazole

A

a) Marbocyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME)/prognosis and treatment:

a) Sulphonamides, antibiotics might help in early stage
b) Always fatal outcome, affected animals should be slaughtered
c) Only symptomatic treatment is possible, sometimes improvement might occur
d) Only symptomatic treatment is possible, with poor prognosis

A

a) Sulphonamides, antibiotics might help in early stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Physiological values of serum sodium in horses?

a) 55-100 mmol/l
b) 100-135 mmol/l
c) 135-155 mmol/l
d) 155-175 mmol/l

A

c) 135-155 mmol/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Severe thrombocytopenia: causes?

a) AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour
b) AITP, babesiosis, EPO, Leydig-cell tumour
c) Ehrlichiosis, Addison’s disease, DDIC, Sertoli-cell tumour
d) Ehrlichiosis, Addison’s disease, DIC, FeLV

A

a) AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Prevention of epileptic seizures/medication/dog?

a) Diazepam, dexamethasone, phenytoin
b) Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide
c) Nitrazepam, progabide, phenobarbital

A

b) Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is this ECG characteristic for? (picture in notes)

a) Ventricular fibrillation
b) Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
c) Sustained ventricular tachycardia
d) Ventricular flutter

A

c) Sustained ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Ectopic ureters. Which answer is wrong?

a) Are causing constant urine dripping
b) Are occurring only in females
c) Can be diagnosed by X-ray or CT-exam

A

b) Are occurring only in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. In which endocrine disorder there is NO polydipsia/polyuria?

a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Cushing’s syndrome
e) Hyperthyroidism

A

c) Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Botulism Aetiology Horse

a) Cl. botulinum + botulinum toxin contaminated carrion remnant in the feed e.g. rotten
silage, exceptionally Cl. botulinum infected wounds or gastrointestinal tract
b) Cl. botulinum -> per os uptake of bacterium contaminated carrion in the feed or rotten silage -> Cl.
botulinum septicaemia
c) Spreading of Cl. botulinum in anaerobe wounds; exceptionally per os uptake of botulinum toxin
contaminated carrion remnants with the feed
d) Spreading of Cl. botulisnum in the gut, bacteraemia

A

a) Cl. botulinum + botulinum toxin contaminated carrion remnant in the feed e.g. rotten
silage, exceptionally Cl. botulinum infected wounds or gastrointestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

144.Most important sign of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs?

a) Fever, alopecia, inappetence
b) Blood dripping from urethra between urinations
c) Macroscopic haematuria
d) Clear urine at the beginning of urination, blood in urine at the end of urination

A

b) Blood dripping from urethra between urinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Renal cysts are…

a) Always congenital
b) Always bilateral
c) Are mainly incidental findings
d) Generally causing renal failure

A

c) Are mainly incidental findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Symptoms of rabies in cattle

a) Donkey-like roaring…….2-3 weeks
b) Donkey-like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cranial nerve paralysis, ascending
paralysis of the limbs, colic like symptoms
c) Lion-like roaring, mostly calm behaviour, sometimes convulsions, oestrus-like symptoms, coma

A

b) Donkey-like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cranial nerve paralysis, ascending
paralysis of the limbs, colic like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Oliguria in the dog/aetiology?

a) Chronic renal insufficiency, nephrosis/nephritis, pyometra
b) Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis
c) Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease
d) Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies

A

b) Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy clinical signs/horse

a) Epileptiform convulsions, cranial nerve paralysis, then severe resp. signs within 6-8 days
b) Pneumonia, followed by facial and trigeminal paralysis within 3-4 weeks, unconscious
c) Asymmetric gluteal muscle atrophy
d) Resp. signs, followed by paraparesis, ataxia, dog sitting position, recumbency

A

d) Resp. signs, followed by paraparesis, ataxia, dog sitting position, recumbency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Cervicalstenotic myelopathy/ diagnostics

a) Measuring vitamin E and selenium
b) CSF sampling
c) Cervical CT examination
d) Myelography

A

d) Myelography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Rabies vs. Aujeszky’s disease/differences in symptoms/dog and cat?

a) Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky’s disease, attacking behaviour is
common in rabies
b) Strabismus and ascending limb paralysis are common in Aujeszky’s diseases, paresthesia is
common in rabies
c) Dysphagia do not occur in Aujeszky’s diseases, only in rabies, Lung oedema is characteristic in
Aujesky’s disease
d) Rabies does not occur in cats, only Aujeszky occurs in cats

A

a) Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky’s disease, attacking behaviour is
common in rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. This radiographic image is characteristic for the following respiratory disorder? (x-ray of thorax with general radio-opacity all over, cannot see the heart, radioluscent trachea)

a) Lung lobe torsion
b) Lung neoplasm
c) Pleural effusion
d) Pneumothorax

A

c) Pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. General therapy in equine hepatitis diseases?

a) Diet low in carbohydrates, vitamin B, folic acid, lactulose
b) Diet restricted in protein, glucose iv., insulin, B-vitamins, antioxidants
c) Diet low in lipids, insulin, heparin
d) Diet high in lipids, vitamin E

A

b) Diet restricted in protein, glucose iv., insulin, B-vitamins, antioxidants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Subjective body condition scoring, BCS-system. Most often applied scale:

a) 1-5 or 1-9
b) 1-6 or 1-10
c) 1-5 or 1-10
d) 1-6 or 1-9

A

a) 1-5 or 1-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. This disease is caused by Haemophilus somnus. The name of the disease is…

a) Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
b) Brainstem abscess
c) Shipping fever
d) Aujeszky’s disease

A

a) Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. A common sequel of vesicoureteral reflux?

a) Pyelonephritis
b) Urocystitis
c) Endometritis
d) Tubulonephrosis

A

a) Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. When does ketosis occur in ewes?

a) In young ewes, before first breeding, in the third trimester of pregnancy
b) Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, after parturition, during winter
c) Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in the third trimester of pregnancy
d) In adult, cachectic ewes, after several parturitions

A

c) Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in the third trimester of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Aetiology of acute gastric dilation in horses?

a) Poorly digestible feed + lack of water
b) Highly fermentable feed + hard work after feeding
c) Overfeeding with hay + weather front changes
d) Sand-containing food + weather front changes

A

b) Highly fermentable feed + hard work after feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Lymphangiectasia/characteristics/dog, cat?

a) Severe disorder of colon
b) Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case
c) Specific diagnosis established with measurement of serum concentration of folate & cobalamine
d) High fat diet is suggested because of severe malnutrition

A

b) Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Causes of anaemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is NOT correct?

a) Lack of erythropoietin
b) Gastrointestinal bleeding/ulcers
c) Deceased survival of red blood cells
d) Haemolysis

A

d) Haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Symptoms of tetanus in cattle?

a) Flag-tail position, facial paralysis, secondary ruminal bloat
b) Hyperreflexia, trismus, risus sardonicus, saw-horse position
c) Hyperreflexia, distorted face, rigidity of the neck, unconsciousness
d) Leg paralysis, regurgitation, secondary ruminal bloat

A

a) Flag-tail position, facial paralysis, secondary ruminal bloat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. For which disease is this picture characteristic?

a) Pityriasis rosea
b) Exsudative epidermitis
c) Porcine dermatitis nephropathy syndrome (PDNS)
d) Chronic erysipelas

A

c) Porcine dermatitis nephropathy syndrome (PDNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Acute primary gastric dilation/treatment/horse?

a) Gastric lavage by tubing, spamolytics, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement, flunixin
meglumine (analgesia)
b) Analgesics, mobilisers, sucralfate, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement
c) Mineral oil, activated charcoal, sennoside, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement
d) Diet coke, lidocaine, acepromazine

A

a) Gastric lavage by tubing, spamolytics, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement, flunixin
meglumine (analgesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Large colon torsion/outcome?

a) Can’t be solved by surgery, always fatal outcome within one day
b) Operation rarely successful, physostigmine inj. otherwise death within 2-3 days
c) Operation can be successful within 8 hours, without surgery: death
d) Specific body rotation in general anaesthesia can be solution

A

c) Operation can be successful within 8 hours, without surgery: death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia is?

a) <1.5
b) >1.5
c) <2.5
d) >2.5
e) >3.5

A

d) >2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. The progression of renal diseases caused by: which answer is NOT correct?

a) Proteinuria
b) Isostenuria
c) Hyperparathyroidism
d) Glomerular hypertension

A

c) Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Nasal tumours?

a) Usually benign diseases
b) Often complete remission can be achieved with treatment
c) They can occur in any age, but mainly over 5 years
d) Neither early recognition, radiotherapy, chemotherapy nor surgery can significantly prolong the
survival time

A

c) They can occur in any age, but mainly over 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Normal values of GGT activity is the blood serum of cattle?

a) < 30 IU/litre
b) < 60 IU/litre
c) < 10 IU/litre
d) < 80 IU/litre

A

b) < 60 IU/litre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Which dermatological additional examination are they true for: it is quick, can be done in situ, it can be
    evaluated in 10 minutes, it may be helpful to distinguish the inflammatory from the neoplastic procedure?

a) Histopathology
b) Intradermal skin test
c) Blood count
d) Cytology

A

d) Cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Polyneuritis/aetiology/horse?

a) EHV-2, adenovirus, Rhodococcus equi
b) EHV-1 adenovirus, Streptococcus
c) EHV-1, fumonizin, Actinobacillus equuli
d) Clostritidium botulinum C

A

b) EHV-1 adenovirus, Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. II degree atrio-ventricular block/characteristics?

a) P-wave present, ventricular complex absent
b) Runs of paroxysmal extrasystoles
c) Prolonged atrio-ventricular conduction time, wide QRS complex
d) Variable atrio-ventricular conduction time, narrow QRS complex

A

a) P-wave present, ventricular complex absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true/PSS/dog?

a) The symptoms of portosystemic shunt can worsen after feeding of protein rich food
b) The postprandial bile acid level of blood is higher than normal in portosystemic shunts
c) The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs
d) In congenital portosystemic shunt the nervous symptoms are episodic

A

c) The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Bacterial rhinitis is almost always a secondary disease, usually with viral infection in the background:

a) 1st statement is true, 2nd false
b) Both statements are true
c) 1st statement fales, 2nd true
d) Both statements are false

A

b) Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. What are the causes of pyrrolizidine-toxicosis in horses?

a) Senecio, Crotalaria-sp.
b) Insecticides with organophosphates
c) Anti-parasitic agents containing pyrrolizidine
d) Accumulation of toxic metabolites in hepatic fibrosis

A

a) Senecio, Crotalaria-sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Acute pancreatitis/symptoms/dog?

a) Vomiting abdominal pain, anorexia
b) Unproductive retching, distended abdomen, shock
c) Polyphagia, diarrhoea, losing weight
d) Vomiting, palpable intestinal intussusception, lack of faeces

A

a) Vomiting abdominal pain, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Normal values of blood serum creatinine in cattle?

a) 50-150 mikromol/liter
b) 5-10 mikromol/liter
c) 50-70 mikromol/liter
d) 160-180 mikromol/liter

A

a) 50-150 mikromol/liter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Definitions of the grade 6/6 cardiac murmur?

a) Moderate-intensity murmur with good audibility
b) Very strong murmur without precordial thrill
c) This murmur is even audible with stethoscope lifted from the chest wall
d) Can be heard only in congenital heart diseases

A

c) This murmur is even audible with stethoscope lifted from the chest wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Which disease is accompanied by ascites in cat?

a) Hepatic lipidosis
b) Lymphocytic cholangitis
c) Neutrophilic cholangitis
d) Congenital portosystemic shunt

A

b) Lymphocytic cholangitis

52
Q
  1. Which disease is abbreviated with ELE(M) and what is its cause?

a) Equine leukoencephalomyelitis, togavirus
b) Equine leukoencephalomalacia, fumonisin-B1 toxin
c) Equine lekoencepahlomacia and myelosis, satratoxin
d) Equine lymphocytic encephalitis viral infection

A

b) Equine leukoencephalomalacia, fumonisin-B1 toxin

53
Q
  1. Classification of forestomach disorders as to their pathogenesis?

a) Primary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders
b) Secondary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders
c) Forestomach diseases of metabolic and infectious origin
d) Forestomach diseases of infectious and non-infectious origin

A

a) Primary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders

54
Q
  1. Left-sided abomasal displacement/auscultation above displaced abomasum:

a) Diagnostic accuracy of 100%
b) Diagnostic accuracy of 50-60%
c) Diagnostic accuracy of 30-40%
d) Diagnostic accuracy of 90-95%

A

c) Diagnostic accuracy of 30-40%

55
Q
  1. Congenital heart disease of dogs. Which statement is NOT true?

a) One of the most common diseases in Europe is subvalvalular aortic stenosis
b) Tricuspid dysplasia mainly occurs in small breeds
c) Positive inotropic drugs should not be given in pulmonic stenosis
d) Congenital heart diseases are more common in dogs than in cats

A

b) Tricuspid dysplasia mainly occurs in small breeds

56
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true for the ruminants hepatic diseases?

a. The laboratory changes always reflect the severity of the clinical signs
b. Liver disease in ruminants are often secondary
c. Clinical signs like the icterus are not characteristics
d. The laboratory changes never reflect the severity of the clinical signs

A

a. The laboratory changes always reflect the severity of the clinical signs

57
Q
  1. Symptoms of rabies in cattle/order (course) or paralysis?

a) Cranial nerves paralysis, spreading backwards from the forelegs to the hindlegs
b) Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs
c) Ascending paralysis of the limbs followed by cranial nerve paralysis

A

b) Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs

58
Q
  1. Which disease can be seen in this endoscopic image?

a) Ethmoid haematoma
b) Guttural pouch mycosis
c) Nasal aspergillosis
d) Melanoma

A

b) Guttural pouch mycosis

59
Q
  1. Tetralogy of Fallot consist from

a) ventricular septal defect, aorta-transposition, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy
b) ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral valvular insufficiency, right ventricular hypertrophy
c) ventricular septal defect, aortic transpositions, pulmonary insufficiency, atrial septal defect
d) atrial septal defect, aortic insufficiency…etc.

A

a) ventricular septal defect, aorta-transposition, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy

60
Q
  1. Suggested examinations in abdominal distension of small animals

a) Ballotment probe, CT, laparotomy, blood examination
b) Undulation test, abdominal US, X-ray, Abdominocentesis
c) Sedimentation test, urethral catheterisation, scintigraphy
d) Percussion with auscultation, cystocentesis, APTT, PTT
e) Ballotment probe, abdominal US, X-ray, cystocentesis

A

b) Undulation test, abdominal US, X-ray, Abdominocentesis

61
Q
  1. Cerebral commotion in horses/treatment?

a) General anaesthesia
b) DMSO infusion
c) 0.45% NaCl solution
d) Pentoxiphylline

A

b) DMSO infusion

62
Q
  1. For which disease is this Cavalier King Charles Spaniel predisposed?

a) Idiopathic hemopericardium
b) Dilated cardiomyopathy
c) Chronic endocardiosis
d) Tetralogy of Fallot189

A

c) Chronic endocardiosis

63
Q
  1. Which disease can be seen on the picture?
    (picture of cat with splotchy hairloss on neck, crusty lesions)

a) Food allergy
b) Atopic dermatitis
c) Generalised demodicosis
d) Mange (scabies)

A

d) Mange (scabies)

64
Q
  1. What is the most common type of leukaemia in dogs?

a) Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
b) Chronic small lymphocytic leukaemia
c) Acute myelogenous leukaemia
d) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia

A

a) Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

65
Q
  1. What kind of gum disease can be seen on this picture? (picture of dog with round, smooth tumour-like growth on gingiva)

a) Periodontitis
b) FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Epulis

A

d) Epulis

66
Q
  1. Intracardiac shunt detection horse?

a) Doppler echocardiography
b) Scintigraphy, X-ray examination
c) Measurement of the intracardiac blood pressure
d) Contrast angiocardiography

A

a) Doppler echocardiography

67
Q
  1. Vegetative endocarditis/swine/aetiology?

a) Clostridium oedematicum
b) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c) Haemophilus somni
d) Bartonella henselae

A

b) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

68
Q
  1. Shipping fever/cattle/etiology:

a) Rs-virus
b) Adenovirus
c) Herpesvirus
d) Haemophilus somnus
e) Mannheimia (pasteurella) haemolytica

A

e) Mannheimia (pasteurella) haemolytica

69
Q
  1. Urolithiasis of feedlot bulls/pathogenesis?

a) Struvite in the bladder -> obstruction of the urethra -> rupture of the urethra
b) Struvite formation -> cystitis, pyelitis -> nephritis -> renal failure
c) Calcium-oxalate stones in renal pelvis and bladder -> nephritis, cystitis, obturation of the urethra
d) Ca-oxalate formation -> cystitis, pyelitis -> nephritis -> renal failure

A

a) Struvite in the bladder -> obstruction of the urethra -> rupture of the urethra

70
Q
  1. Malignant catarrhal fever/cattle/transmission from which species?

a) Sheep, goat, and swine
b) Only goat
c) Only sheep
d) Sheep and goat

A

d) Sheep and goat

71
Q
  1. Pathogenesis of acute rumen overload and dilatation:

a) Overfeeding with rough fodder - distension of rumen - compression of diaphragm and
caudal V. cava - shock, suffocation
b) Overfeeding with grain - distension of rumen - lactacidemia - metabolic acidosis - acidotic coma
c) Overfeeding with leguminosae - bloat - distention of the rumen - compression of the diaphragm
and caudal V.cava - chock, suffocation

A

a) Overfeeding with rough fodder - distension of rumen - compression of diaphragm and
caudal V. cava - shock, suffocation

72
Q
  1. Praerenal azotaemia… Which is the wrong answer?

a) Could be due to dehydration
b) May cause kidney damage without treatment
c) Can be corrected with fluid therapy
d) May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs

A

d) May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs

73
Q
  1. Gastric torsion/common cardiological complication?

a) Ventricular arrhythmias (premature ventricular beats, ventricular tachycardia)
b) Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter
c) 2nd and 3rd degree atrioventricular blocks
d) Asystole

A

a) Ventricular arrhythmias (premature ventricular beats, ventricular tachycardia)

74
Q
  1. What is the cause of dermatitis-nephropathy syndrome (PDNS)?

a) PRRSV
b) Actinobaculum suis
c) PCV-2
d) Corynebacterium renale

A

c) PCV-2

75
Q
  1. For what disease are these two illustrations characteristic? (several tumour-like growths on abdomen(?))

a) Cushing-disease
b) Addison-disease
c) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
d) Sertoli’s cell tumour

A

d) Sertoli’s cell tumour

76
Q
  1. How would you classify the next drugs? Clorhexidin, povidone-iodine, iridrogen-peroxide, etil-laktat, benzoyl-peroxide, piroctone-olamine

a) Keratoplastic
b) Antiseptic
c) Hypoallergenic
d) Keratolytic

A

b) Antiseptic

77
Q
  1. What is on the image? Which is not true?

a) 1. Stylohyoideus
b) 2. a. carotis externa
c) 3. a. maxillaris
d) 4. n. glossopharyngeus

A

c) 3. a. maxillaris

78
Q
  1. Which drug is NOT antihistamine?

a) Chlorpiramine
b) Flumetazon
c) Hydroxyzine
d) Dymetinden-malcate

A

b) Flumetazon

79
Q
  1. Causative agent of greasy pig disease?

a) Staphylococcus hyicus
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus viridos
d) Streptococcus suis

A

a) Staphylococcus hyicus

80
Q
  1. What is this contrast radiographic image characteristic for? (x-ray of wavy/zig-zag contrast fluid in abdomen)

a) Cloudy-like pattern due to peritonitis
b) Large colon constipation due to accumulation of bones
c) Typical radiographic image of intestinal invagination
d) Characteristic X-ray image of intestinal loops in bunches, subileus caused by linear
foreign body

A

d) Characteristic X-ray image of intestinal loops in bunches, subileus caused by linear
foreign body

81
Q
  1. Which sentence is true?

a) Hungarian Vizsla, poodle, akita and Samoyed are predisposed to black hair follicular dysplasia
b) Dobermann and Irish Setter are predisposed to tyrosinase-deficiency
c) Collie and Shetland Sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomyositis
d) Malamute and husky are predisposed to Ca-responsive dermatosis

A

c) Collie and Shetland Sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomyositis

82
Q
  1. Chronic endocardiosis in dogs/occurrence rate on the cardiac valves:

a) Mitral 50%, tricuspid 50%, mitral and tricuspid 0%
b) Mitral 60%, mitral and tricuspid 30%, tricuspid 10%
c) Mitral 30%, tricuspid 60%, mitral and tricuspid 10%
d) Mitral 40%, tricuspid 0%, mitral and tricuspid 60

A

b) Mitral 60%, mitral and tricuspid 30%, tricuspid 10%

83
Q
  1. COPD(RAO)/Which statement is NOT true/horse?

a) Occasionally mild radiographic changes in the lungs: interstitial, bronchial, peribronchial pattern
b) Usually severe radiographic changes in the lungs: fibrosis, chronic oedema
c) Thoracic radiography mainly serves for differential diagnostic purposes
d) Bronchectasia and increased air content sometimes visible on chest x-ray

A

b) Usually severe radiographic changes in the lungs: fibrosis, chronic oedema

84
Q
  1. Causes and features of Tyzzer-disease in horses?

a) Listeria monocytogenes-caused meningoenphalitis
b) Actinobacillus equulis infection, septicaemia in foals
c) Clostridium piliforme acute hepatitis in foals
d) Clostridium botulinum, hepatocencephalopathy in foals

A

c) Clostridium piliforme acute hepatitis in foals

85
Q
  1. What is responsible for the signs suffering from hepatopathy?

a) Ammonia
b) Scatole
c) Intracranial haemorrhage
d) Hypoglycaemia

A

a) Ammonia

86
Q
  1. What treatment if not adequate for a dog that drank 3dl antifreeze 12 hours ago?

a) D-penicillamine
b) Haemodialysis
c) 4-methylprazole
d) Ethanol iv.

A

a) D-penicillamine

87
Q
  1. Large strongyles may cause?

a) Thromboembolism
b) Chronic diarrhoea
c) Intussusceptions
d) Gastric ulceration

A

a) Thromboembolism

88
Q
  1. Dysphagia/causes/horse?

a) E.g. blister beetle toxicosis, mandibular trauma, cyst of the soft palate
b) E.g. guttural pouch mycosis, retropharyngeal abscess, cleft palate
c) E.g. Dorsal displacement of soft palate, sinusitis, hypertriglyceridemia
d) Equine motor neuron disease, herpesvirus infection, West Nile virus infection

A

b) E.g. guttural pouch mycosis, retropharyngeal abscess, cleft palate

89
Q
  1. Causes of hypertension in kidney patients. Which answer is not correct?

a) Prolonged activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
b) Increased peripheral resistance
c) Dehydration
d) Systemic vasoconstriction

A

c) Dehydration

90
Q
  1. Etiology and pathogenesis of fog fever/cattle:

a) Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation-3-methylindole- pulmonary edema, emphysema
b) Animals moved to pastures in spring - lack of Mg - pulmonary edema and interstitial emphysema
c) Feeding alfalfa - intake of 18-S-protein - destruction of alveolar walls and pulmonary edema

A

a) Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation-3-methylindole- pulmonary edema, emphysema

91
Q
  1. What is the fluid filled abdominal organ in the image? (US-picture of a round organ)

a) Colon
b) Caecum
c) Stomach
d) Small intestine

A

c) Stomach

92
Q
  1. What is your diagnosis? (picture of a very odd shaped heart, left side is increased in size)

a) Dilated cardiomyopathy
b) Tricuspid insufficiency
c) Cor pulmonal
d) Ventricular septal defect

A

d) Ventricular septal defect

93
Q
  1. Blood in the urine is detected with?

a) Benzidine test
b) Sodium nitroprusside reagent
c) Glutaraldehyde test
d) Donne test

A

a) Benzidine test

94
Q
  1. Cause of paralytic ileus?

a) Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (postoperative stage)
b) Tetanus, botulism, enterotoxicosis, herpes
c) Stress, organic phosphorous ester toxicosis
d) Intestinal intussusception, chantaridin toxicosis

A

a) Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (postoperative stage)

95
Q
  1. Secondary dilation of the forestomaches can occur in?

a) Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, RPT
b) Tetanus, atropine-poisoning, oesophageal obturation
c) Rabies, simple indigestion, ruminal putrefaction
d) Ruminal putrefaction, lactacidaemia, rumen overload

A

b) Tetanus, atropine-poisoning, oesophageal obturation

96
Q
  1. Which disease from the ones below is characterized by these vesicular lesions and erosions?

a) Classical swine fever
b) FMD
c) Swine pox
d) Chemical burns

A

b) FMD

97
Q
  1. Bacterial endocarditis in horses/complication:

a) Purulent meningoencephalitis of hematogenous origin
b) Disseminated, multifocal, purulent nephritis with renal infarcts
c) Acute, immune-mediated glomerulonephritis
d) Pneumonia, polyarthritis, enteritis

A

b) Disseminated, multifocal, purulent nephritis with renal infarcts

98
Q
  1. Constrictive pericarditis of dogs and cats/occurrence?

a) Occurs mainly in medium-aged females of small breeds
b) Generally uncommon, mainly in middle aged, large breed dogs, rare in cats
c) Generally uncommon, mainly in young, small breed dogs, common in cats
d) More common than the pericarditis with effusion ‘wet’ pericarditis

A

b) Generally uncommon, mainly in middle aged, large breed dogs, rare in cats

99
Q
  1. Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder:

a) Is not an invasive tumor
b) May react to NSAID treatment
c) Can be easily removed from the cranial pole of the bladder
d) Is connected to the mucosa by a thin neck

A

b) May react to NSAID treatment

100
Q
  1. Pleuritis, purulent-exudative/cat/symptoms?

a) Pyothorax, rubbing sounds, painful expiration
b) Fever, pyothorax, appearance of Diernhofer triangle
c) Fever, thoracic exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increased inspiration efforts, disappearance
of the Diernhofer triangle
d) Right displacement of the heart-beat, abnormal respiratory sounds at the ventral part of the thorax

A

c) Fever, thoracic exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increased inspiration efforts, disappearance
of the Diernhofer triangle

101
Q

228.Grass sickness/horse/cause?

a) Salmonella sp.
b) Cl. tetani
c) Cl. botulinum
d) Groundsel

A

c) Cl. botulinum

102
Q
  1. Neurophysiologic background of botulism?

a) Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited released of GABA at the presynaptic
motor nerve endings
b) Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the
presynaptic motor nerve endings
c) General muscular paralysis due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor
nerve endings
d) Paralysis of striated muscles due to inhibited release of GABA at postsynaptic motor n. endings

A

b) Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the
presynaptic motor nerve endings

103
Q
  1. Cause of hepatosis dietetica in swine?

a) Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency
b) Aflatoxin contaminants feed
c) Fusarium moniliforme feed is contaminated with fumonisin-B1 toxin
d) Copper toxicosis

A

a) Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency

104
Q
  1. Length of the course of (forestomach) diseases?

a) Peracute: 2-3 days, acute: 3-14 days, subacute: 2-4 weeks, chronic: >4 weeks
b) Peracute: a few hours-2 days, acute: 3-14 days, subacute 2-6 weeks, chronic: >6 weeks
c) Peracute: a few hours-2 d, acute: 3-14 days, subacute: 2-4 wks, chronic: >4 weeks
d) Peracute: 1-2 hours, acute: 8-10 days, subacute: 2 weeks, chronic: >2 weeks

A

c) Peracute: a few hours-2 d, acute: 3-14 days, subacute: 2-4 wks, chronic: >4 weeks

105
Q
  1. Rabies/incubation period?

a) Usually 2-4 weeks, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body part was infected
b) Symptoms start 3-10 days after infection
c) Incubation period is very short, symptoms start 1-2 days after infection
d) Usually 2-4 months, but can be longer if the hind limbs of the patient had been bitten

A

d) Usually 2-4 months, but can be longer if the hind limbs of the patient had been bitten

106
Q
  1. Treatment of smoke inhalation?

a) Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal oedema, oxygen, bronchodilators, analgesics,
glucocorticoids only in acute cardiovascular shock
b) Oxygen, secretolytics, glucocorticoids
c) Restricted fluid therapy with diuretics, secretolytics
d) Long-acting glucocorticoids, diuretics, antibiotics

A

a) Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal oedema, oxygen, bronchodilators, analgesics,
glucocorticoids only in acute cardiovascular shock

107
Q
  1. Which statement is not typical for cat?

a) The common bile duct joins the major pancreatic duct before entering the duodenum
b) The acute neutrophil cholangitis is the consequence of ascending bacterial infection
c) The hepatic encephalopathy is a common consequence of the feline hepatic lipidosis due to the
arginine deficiency
d) The portal hypertension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies of the cat

A

d) The portal hypertension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies of the cat

108
Q
  1. Addison’s disease in dogs/causes, pathogenesis:

a) The primary is due to auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals. The secondary disease is
caysed by incorrect glucocorticoids therapy
b) Primary: Cortisol ↑ Aldosterone ↓ Secondary: Cortisol ↓ Aldosterone same
c) The primary disease is due to incorrect glucocorticoid therapy. The secondary disease is caused
by auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals
d) Primary: Cortisol ↓ Aldosterone ↓ Secondary: Cortisol same Aldosterone ↓

A

a) The primary is due to auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals. The secondary disease is
caysed by incorrect glucocorticoids therapy

109
Q

236.The upper limit of total bilirubin in the dog is

a) 10 mikromol/l
b) 40 mikromol/l
c) 10 mmol/l
d) 40 mmol/l

A

a) 10 mikromol/l

110
Q
  1. Clinical signs of acute proximal enteritis/horse?

a) Colic, strong GI sounds, sunken abdomen, diarrhoea, dehydration
b) Colic depression, poor general status, reflux, distended small intestinal loops on US
c) Mild/moderate colic, meteorism, melaena, dehydration, shock
d) Loss of appetite, weight loss, recurrent fever

A

b) Colic depression, poor general status, reflux, distended small intestinal loops on US

111
Q
  1. Which treatment does NOT affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases?

a) Feeding renal diet
b) Adding phosphorus binders to the diet
c) ACE-inhibitor therapy
d) Vitamin-D administration

A

c) ACE-inhibitor therapy

112
Q
  1. Oesophageal obturation/treatment/horse?

a) Trocarisation of the caecum if necessary, dipyrone, xylazine
b) Dipyrone, xylazine, trying to remove the solid food by hand if it is located behind the pharynx
c) Oxytocin, butylscopolamine, xylazine, oesophagostomy if other methods of removal fail
d) Neostigmine, lidocaine, liquid paraffin

A

c) Oxytocin, butylscopolamine, xylazine, oesophagostomy if other methods of removal fail

113
Q
  1. Features of equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy?

a) Horses previously immunised never show CNS signs
b) CNS signs usually appear in 1-2 years old, before respiratory signs, and in most cases are fatal
c) CNS signs usually appear in adult horses after the respiratory signs
d) Horses with herpes myeloencephalopathy have grave prognosis

A

c) CNS signs usually appear in adult horses after the respiratory signs

114
Q
  1. Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhoea/suggested additional examinations/dog, cat?

a) Faecal analysis: parasitological examination
b) Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and bacteriological culture
c) Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and Parvo ELISA test
d) Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and fungal culture

A

b) Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and bacteriological culture

115
Q
  1. Food allergy/diagnosis/dog, cat?

a) Allergen-specific IgM serology
b) Histopathologic examination of intestinal biopsy
c) Measurement of serum concentration of folate and cobalamine
d) Hypoallergenic monodiet than provocation with the suspected causative agent

A

d) Hypoallergenic monodiet than provocation with the suspected causative agent

116
Q
  1. Hypothyroidism of dogs: diagnosis?

a) Thyroxine ↑ and TSH ↓, free thyroxine ↓, TGAA +, ACTH-stimulation test +
b) Thyroxine ↓ and TSH ↑, free thyroxine ↓, TGAA +, ACTH-stimulation test +
c) Thyroxine ↓ and TSH ↑, free thyroxine ↓, TGAA +, TRH-stimulation test +
d) Thyroxine ↓ and TSH ↑, free thyroxine ↑, TGAA -, TRH-stimulation test +

A

c) Thyroxine ↓ and TSH ↑, free thyroxine ↓, TGAA +, TRH-stimulation test +

117
Q
  1. What is your diagnosis based on the pictures?

a) Cystitis
b) Urolithasis
c) Normal findings
d) Bladder tumour

A

a) Cystitis

118
Q
  1. The most common congenital cardiac disease of swine below:

a) Congenital ventricular septal defect
b) Tetralogy of Fallot
c) Congenital pulmonic stenosis
d) Persistent common atrioventricular channel

A

a) Congenital ventricular septal defect

119
Q
  1. D-vitamin toxicity/Which of the below statements is false?

a) In dogs it is more frequent, because cats have higher tolerance to vitamin D
b) Chronic vit D-toxicity causes transient hypercalcaemia, soft tissue calcification, mineralisation of long bones
c) Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures
d) Useful in D-vit toxicosis, treatment: charcoal, IV fluid therapy, sucralphate, prednisolone,
furosemide

A

c) Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures

120
Q
  1. For which disease these skin lesion characteristic? (picture of well-defined brigt red rash)

a) African swine fever
b) Swine fever
c) Chronic erysipelas
d) Acute erysipelas

A

d) Acute erysipelas

121
Q
  1. Intestinal motilisers for horses (prokinetics)

a) Flunixin meglumine, metoclopromaide
b) Neostigmine, lidocaine
c) Xylazine, neostigmine
d) Morphine, neostigmine, lidocaine

A

b) Neostigmine, lidocaine

122
Q
  1. What is the main and initiating cause of calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal failure?

a) Inadequate vitamin-D production
b) Poor absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract
c) Retention of phosphorus
d) Nephrocalcinosis

A

c) Retention of phosphorus

123
Q
  1. Tracheal hypoplasia/cause/occurrence/dog?

a) Consequence of chronic tracheitis, at the age of 10, in bulldogs
b) Congenital, at the age of 4-6 months, brachycephalic breeds
c) Older dogs, idiopathic, brachycephalic breeds
d) Embryonic damage of the trachea in dolichocephaly breeds

A

b) Congenital, at the age of 4-6 months, brachycephalic breeds

124
Q
  1. Acute colitis/dog, cat/clinical signs?

a) Large amount, watery diarrhoea
b) Small amount, watery diarrhoea with undigested food
c) Small amount, pudding-like, mucinous, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhoea
d) Large amount, mucinous, bloody (melena) diarrhoea

A

c) Small amount, pudding-like, mucinous, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhoea

125
Q
  1. Clinical sign possibly related to oesophageal gastric ulceration?

a) Anaemia
b) Teeth grinding
c) Tar-like faeces
d) Any of the above

A

d) Any of the above

Internal Medicine III (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions