past questions Flashcards by Luke Mccreath

according to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same receptor site, an effective antagonist should inhibit?

A) High intrinsic activity and low affinity
B) no intrinsic activity and high affinity
C) low intrinsic activity and low affinity
D) High intrinsic activity and low affinity

B) no intrinsic activity and high affinity

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a drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or indirectly with the receptor?

A) Chemical antagonist
B) Pharmaceutical antagonist
C) Partial agonist
D) Physiologic antagonist

A) Chemical antagonist

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----- is the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose? 
A) Quantal dose response curve 
B) Graded dose response curve 
C) maximum efficacy
D) Therapeutic index

C) maximum efficacy

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What is the appropriate percentage of a weak base (PKa =8.4) in the non-ionised form in the plasma having PH of 7.4

A) 90%
B) 50%
C) 100%
D) 10%

D) 10%

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when supplying this drug, one copy of which must be kept by the registered feed compounder?

A) Prescription
B) special prescription
C) Prescription for medicated feed stuffs (PMF)
D) legislation on requisition

C) Prescription for medicated feed stuffs (PMF)

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which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in a healthy patient?

A) allergic reactions
B) tetratogenic effects
C) idiosyncratic reactions
D) all of the above

D) all of the above

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a drug licensed for humans and included in table 1. , MRL has to be established administering to dairy cattle should have a milk withdrawal period of?

A) at most 7 days WP
B) at most 28 days WP
C) at minimum 28 days WP
D) at minimum 7 days WP

D) at minimum 7 days WP

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according to this type of medical substance both healthy and ill animals are mass treated?

A) Metaphalaxis
B) Mass treatment
C) always
D) prophalaxis

A) Metaphalaxis

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what is the proportion of ionised and non ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (PKa = 4.4) in blood
(PH= 7.4)?

A) 1:1
B) 100:1
C) 10:1
D) 1000:1

D) 1000:1

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what the usual withdrawal period for meat, following application of human licensed medicine?

A) 7 days
B) 500 degree days
C) 28 days
D) 0 days

C) 28 days

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How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of a human licensed medicine?

A) 28 days
B) 500 degree days
C) 0 days
7 days

B) 500 degree days

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The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same receptor site is?

A) chemical antagonism
B) physiological antagonism
C) complete antagonism
D) non - competitive antagonism

B) physiological antagonism

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Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5 mg produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500 mg?

A) Drug B is less efficacious than drug A
B) the toxicity of drug A is lower than drug B
C) Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B
D) Drug A has a shorter duration of action

C) Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B

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which substance is schedule 2?

A) cannabis
B) fentanyl
C) Diazepam
D) Phenobarbital

B) fentanyl

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Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in?

A) British veterinary formulary
B) Hungarian pharmocopeia
C) European pharmocopeia
D) British pharmocopeia

A) British veterinary formulary

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the LD50 dose of a drug is?

A) 50% of the lethal dose in a man
B) 50% of the lethal dose in an experimental animal
C) the dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of treated animals
D) half the dose that kills the treated animals

C) the dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of treated animals

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Among the environmental factors that may harm medicines, this stimulates oxidation or reducing processes?

A) Fungi
B) Humidity
C) Light
D) heat

C) Light

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this category may play an important role in animal disease prevention, but they are not real drugs?

A) Prepared drugs
B) immunologicals
C) official drugs
D) biocides

D) biocides

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how long does the WP usually last for eggs, following the application of an official prepared medicine?

A) 500 degree days
B) 0 days
C) 28 days
D) 7 days

D) 7 days

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@ which temperature range is valid if the drug has to be stored in a cool place?

A) 15-25
B) 2-8
C) 8-15
D) 10-14

C) 8-15

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what is written in the inscription in the case of a prepared medicine?

A) the name and amount of ingredients
B) the name, dosage, form and strength
C) the dosage form and container
D) the number of original packages

A) the name and amount of ingredients

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what “medicines order 2001 UK” category can be supplied by pharmacist without any prescription?

A) P and PML
B) GSL, P, PML
C) GSL, and P
D) every “medicines order 2001” category

B) GSL, P, PML

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quantal dose response curves are?

A) invalid in the case of inhibitors of drugs studied
B) used for determing the maximum efficacy of a drug
C) obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
D) used in determing therapeutic index of drug

D) used in determing therapeutic index of drug

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This name of medical substances is given by pharmacopeia commissions to each compound?

A) chemical name
B) each drug name
C) Proprietary name
D) approved name

D) approved name

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which part of the prescription gives a farmer information on WP? A) subscription B) signature C) superscription D) inscription

B) signature

which effect facilitates the oral bioavaliability? A) acid sensitivity of the drug B) increased motility of the GI C) large PKa value of the drug D) rapid dissolution from the formula

D) rapid dissolution from the formula

which is an example of substitution therapy? A) administration of thyroxin for treatment of hyperthyroidism B) administration of generic drug instead of original licensed product C) administration of thyroxin for hypothyroidism D) during antimicrobial treatment the switching of antibiotics due to resistance

C) administration of thyroxin for hypothyroidism

which statement is not true for first order, one compartment, pharmacokinetic model? A) A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time B) In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated C) after a single drug administration this drug is eliminated from the body continuously D) the drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly

B) In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

a drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction by acting at adenoceptors A) Pharmacological antagonist B) physiological antagonist C) non-competitive antagonist D) Partial agonist

B) physiological antagonist

what is characteristic of a drug molecule, which has been metabolised in the phase II of the biotransformation procedure? A) loosing of activity B) active metabolite from an inactive pro-drug C) metabolite with qualitatively different pharmacological action D) increased activity

A) loosing of activity

Drug allergies? A) can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously B) are more likely to develop in a young infant C) can only develop when the patient has seen the drug previously D) are more likely to develop in an older animal

A) can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously

when comparing drugs with respect to intensity of response, the drug that produces the greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest? A) affinity B) therapeutic index C) Efficacy D) potency

C) Efficacy

the pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription from the practitioner? A) pharmacy and merchant list medicines (PML) B) General sales list medicines (GSL) C) Pharmacy medicines (P) D) prescription only medicines

D) prescription only medicines

the effects and side effects of drugs, as well as the contradictions of their use are NOT well detailed in? A) British veterinary formulary B) European pharmacopeia C) Vademecum D) drug lexicon

B) European pharmacopeia

the category of drug like substances (not real drugs) includes: A) official drugs B) prepared drugs C) immunologicals D) Biocides

D) Biocides

which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formula of the drug? A) signature B) superscription C) inscription D) subscription

C) inscription

the oral AUC is the half that of IV AUC value and for oral administration two fold higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) of the drug? A) 0.5 B) 0.1 C) 0.125 D) 0.25

D) 0.25

which of the following is an action of a non-competitive antagonist? A) alters the mechanism of action of an antagonist B) alters the potency of an antagonist C) Decreases the maximum response to an agonist D) binds to the same sire on the receptor as the agonist

C) Decreases the maximum response to an agonist

drugs may have harmful effects on intestinal microbes, in which species is it less significant? A) horse B) Hamsters C) Rabbits D) Dogs

D) Dogs

If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then drug A? A) is more toxic than drug B B) has a greater affinity to the receptor than drug B C) is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B D) has a greater margin of safety than drug B

C) is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B

a drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them? A) chemical antagonist B) Pharmacological antagonist C) Partial agonist D) Physiologic antagonist

B) Pharmacological antagonist

in this type of prescription the proprietary name of a vet-licensed medicine is given? A) prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine B) prescription of a formulated official medicine C) Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine D) Prescription of a human licensed medicine

A) prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

which one is incorrect? factors maintaining drug allergies are? A) contamination of skin B) inhalation - contamination of airways C) preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration D) chronic disease, atrophy

C) preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration

the major part of the text must be in the veterinarians own handwriting? A) Special preparation B) Label C) prescription D) prescription for medicated feed stuffs (PMF)

A) Special preparation

this name of medical substance is given by the manufacturers? A) each drug name B) Approved name C) chemical name D) proprietary name

D) proprietary name

the oral AUC is the 25% of that of IV AUC value and for IV administration two fold higher dose was used. what is the bioavailability (F) of the drug? A) 0.75 B) 0.5 C) 0.25 D) 0.125

B) 0.5

which part of the prescription give the owner information about the dosages of an animal? A) signature B) inscription C) superscription D) subscription

A) signature

mark the reaction, which is NOT characteristic for type I, immediate or anaphylactic drug allergy reactions? A) immune complex formation B) urticaria C) Asthma like condition D) oedema

A) immune complex formation

vehicle in licking stones? A) light kaolin B) activated charcoal C) Sodium chloride D) Bismuth subgallate

C) Sodium chloride

for which category is not true, usually it develops after repeat administration? A) drug tolerance B) Idiosyncracy C) Drug allergy D) Drug dependance

B) Idiosyncracy

which substance is schedule 3 substance? A) Phenolbarbitol / Phenobarbitone B) LSD C) Morphine D) Fentanyl

A) Phenolbarbitol / Phenobarbitone

which drug has to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of a veterinarian? A) Schedule 3-4 B) schedule 1-4 C) none of these D) schedule 2 and 3

D) schedule 2 and 3

A dosage form appropriate of medicated feed stuffs? A) Premix B) OROS C) WSP D) oral solution

A) premix

specific receptor antagonists can be best describes as having? A) affinity but little to no efficacy for the receptor B) Both efficacy and affinity for the receptor C) Efficacy but little or no affinity for the receptor D) none of the above

A) affinity but little to no efficacy for the receptor

antagonists are drugs that? A) Bind passively to the tissue receptor site B) Reverse the effects of other drugs on the tissue receptor sites C) Activate tissue receptor sites D) Block tissue receptor sites

D) block tissue receptor sites

defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading diseases in herd? A) Panphylaxis B) Anaphalaxis C) Prophalaxis D) Metaphalaxis

D) Metaphalaxis

which statement is not true for a first order, open compartment open pharmacological model? A) A bio-exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of drug levels over time B) After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously C) in the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated D) the drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly

C) in the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

Drugs can be used as non divided powders? A) only drugs with broad therapeutic margin B) only drugs for the treatment of poultry C) only water insoluble drugs D) only water soluble drugs

A) only drugs with broad therapeutic margin

these drugs are always POM? A) Premixes B) Controlled drugs C) official preparations D) non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

B) Controlled drugs

which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsative release of an active substance in a bolus? A) OROS B) insolube matrix C) chip controlled diaphragm D) Expanding matrix

C) chip controlled diaphragm

which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule? A) Gelatine B) Glycerol C) water D) sugar

B) Glycerol

which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of a medical product? A) Rapid dissolution from the formulation B) Increased GI motility C) Acid sensitivity of the drug D) large PKa value of the drug

A) Rapid dissolution from the formulation

these drugs are harmless compounds of practically harmless substances, which do not require a WP? A) Drugs in annex II B) Drugs in annex I C) Drugs in annex III D) Drugs in annex IV

A) Drugs in annex II

when are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory? A) schedule 3 and 4 drugs B) schedule 1 and 4 drugs C) Schedule 2 and 3 drugs D) none of the above

C) Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

at steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 1 mg/L. the total body clearance is (Cl2) 100 ml/min, what is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied every 12 hours? A) 7.2 mg B) 72 mg C) 50 mg D) 100 mg

B) 72 mg

a drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole? A) must have atleast 28 day WP for meat B) must not be used in food producing animals C) cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated D) requires 0 days WP in food producing animals

B) must not be used in food producing animals

a drug included in the 2377/790EEC annex II has a WP of? A) 7 days B) must not be administrated to food producing animals C) 0 days D) 28 days

C) 0 days

which drugs are normally not used in veterinary practice? A) Schedule 1 drugs B) Schedule 2 drugs C) schedule 3 drugs D) schedule 4 drugs

A) schedule 1 drugs

what information about any drug is included in the European pharmacopeias? A) indication in veterinary medicine B) Identification methods C) dosage of the drug in humans D) Indications in human medicine

B) Identification methods

in this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has to be given in the inscription part? A) Prescription of human licensed medicines B) Prescription of veterinary licensed medicines C) Prescription of formulated official veterinary medicines D) Prescription of a prepared medicine

D) Prescription of a prepared medicine

How long after the first use can drugs from multi dose injection bottles be used? A) At most 14 days B) At most 28 days C) At most 7 days D) no such retirement is official

B) At most 28 days

which of the following is the licensed name of a drug? A) Amoxicillin B) 7-amino-3,3-dimethyl-oxo-4-carboxylic acid C) Betamox inj AUV D) none of the above

C) Betamox inj AUV

the most frequent ingredients of intraruminal boluses? A) NSAID B) Anthelmintics C) growth promotor D) Antibiotic

B) Anthelmintics

which active substance is appropriate for analgesia as a transdermal patch? A) Fentanyl B) Naloxone C) metamizole D) Butorphanol

A) Fentanyl

A drug licenced for humans and included in annex I, administered to dairy cattle should have a WP of? A) At most 28 days WP B) At least 28 days WP C) At most 7 days WP D) at least 7 days WP

D) at least 7 days WP

past questions Flashcards

(75 cards)