Past questions Flashcards by ole maribu

Salmonellae are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 20 °C

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The minimum temperature at which salmonellae can still grow is 6 °C.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Salmonellae produce enterotoxins in the food that cause vomiting and diarrhoea in humans

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Water activity lower than 0.97 inhibits the growth of salmonellae

Fale

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Eggs may become infected with salmonellae usually through the pores of the eggshell

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Salmonellae release a heat-labile enterotoxin and a cytotoxic protein in the intestines of the
consumers that cause diarrhoea

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Salmonellae are mesophilic bacteria

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Salmonellae are psychrophilic bacteria that can even grow at refrigerator temperature.

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Under food production conditions, a heat treatment of 70 °C core temperature for at least one
minute is needed to render foodstuffs free from salmonellae

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

To destroy salmonellae in meat products a heat treatment of 90 °C for at least 10 minutes is needed

False

70C 1 min

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All serotypes of salmonellae causing typhus in animals are capable of inducing disease in humans

False

Typhus causative agents are always sp. sensitive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Salmonella Enteritidis is the most common serotype causing disease in humans.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The animal health mark denoting that the inspected meat is fit for human consumption, shall be
placed on the packaging

False

species not specified

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The identification mark denoting that the inspected meat is fit for human consumption, shall be
applied directly to the carcass.

False

species not specified

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In line with classification of wastes, materials with the highest risk are assigned to Category 1

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In line with classification of wastes, materials with the highest risk are assigned to Category 3.

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In cattle, the intestines are SRM materials irrespective of the animal’s age

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In cattle, the tonsils are SRM materials irrespective of the animal’s age

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the case of asymptomatic carriage of Salmonella spp. the animals must not be slaughtered for
human consumption

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If Salmonellosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be
declared unfit for human consumption

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Salmonella positive broiler flocks infected with any serotypes shall be slaughtered separately

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Campylobacter positive broiler flocks shall be slaughtered separately.

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If Listeriosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be declared
unfit for human consumption

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If Yersiniosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be declared
unfit for human consumption

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rigor mortis develops as a result of an anaerobic glycolysis

False

Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP

True

In pigs, the final pH of the meat is reached faster than in cattle

True

In cattle, the final pH of the meat is reached faster than in pigs

False

Due to pH reduction, the water holding capacity of the proteins increases

False

Due to pH reduction, the water holding capacity of the proteins decreases

True

DFD meat is more prone to spoilage

True

The water holding capacity of the PSE meat is higher

False

Myoglobin is a bright red pigment that is formed at high oxygen pressure

False Myoglobin is purple, Oxymyoglobin = bright red

Metmyoglobin is a purple pigment that is formed at high oxygen pressure

False

The water holding capacity of proteins is the lowest near their isoelectric points

True

The PSE meat is lighter than the normal one because it reflects more light

True

Emergency slaughter involves the urgent bleeding of animals suspected of infection

False

Immediate slaughter means the urgent bleeding of any injured, but otherwise healthy animals

True

Food chain information shall be prepared by the official vet as a part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm

False -should be prepared by the farmer

Each individual bovine animal shall be identified as a part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm

True

Each individual animals of an equine consignment shall be identified as a part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm

True

In pigs, only a smaller proportion of a consignment to a slaughterhouse shall be identified individually

True

If the food chain information is missing, but the results of the ante-mortem health inspection are satisfactory, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained

True

If the live animals cannot be identified, a separate slaughter shall be ordered

False -animal shall be killed bloodless separately

In the case of poultry flocks positive for Salmonella Enteritidis, a separate slaughter shall be ordered

True

If the food chain information is missing, but the results of the ante-mortem health inspection are satisfactory, the slaughter shall be postponed

False

Animals deriving from a farm being under animal health restriction due to classical swine fever can be ordered to immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse if the suspicion of infection was excluded

True

Animals deriving from a farm being under animal health restriction due to CSF shall be killed at a designated slaughterhouse

False

Routinely, the carcasses and offal of cattle are to undergo a visual-only post-mortem inspection

False

In cattle, the sub-maxillary LNs shall be sliced on suspect only.

False

In cattle, the peri-bronchial and mediastinal LNs shall be sliced

True

In cattle, the liver is inspected visually, and on suspect by palpation and incision.

False

In cattle, incision shall be made into the main biliary ducts.

True

If the results obtained from the microbiological examination of carcasses fail to meet the process hygiene requirements the meat shall be condemned

False -would be true for food safety hygiene, but this is process hygiene criteri

If the results of the salmonella examination fail to meet the process hygiene requirements the meat can be put on the market

True

Bleeding of pigs shall be performed with the animal suspended

True

Bleeding of pigs can be performed wither in vertical or in horizontal positions

False

Singeing is aimed at loosening the hair follicles at a temp of 58-62C

False 800-1000 something

After processing the GIT of pigs it can be used for manufacture of meat products for HC

True

Cattle stunned mechanically usually by captive bolt gun

True

In pigs, esophagus is ligated before the head is removed

False -true for ruminants

After bleeding, scalding of ruminant's carcasses is targeted at loosening the hair follicles

False -skin is removed

In cattle, head is inspected at a separate inspection point

True

Edible offal of ruminants shall be chilled to <4C

False -3*C for animals

Carcass of pigs shall be chilled to <7C

True -true for all animals , exp rabbits

Diseases are included in the OIE list because of their public health significance

False

Diseases are included in the OIE list because of their animal health significance

True

In the case of anthrax, animals suspected of being disease or infected must not be slaughtered

True -treated

In the case of anthrax, animals suspected of being disease or infected shall be slaughtered separatately

False

In the case of FMD outbreak, susceptible animal originated of restricted areas shall be killed

False

Although echinococcosis is an important zoonosis, only the affected organs shall be condemned & the rest of the carcass may be fit for human consumption

True

Although TB is an important zoonosis, if chronic TB is diagnosed in one organ, only the affected organ & its LNs shall be condemned

True

In case of BSE, diseased or infected animals must be killed at the designated slaughterhouse

True

Since bovine cysticercosis is an important zoonosis, when only a single cyst is found in the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

False

In case of CSF, susceptible animals originated from restricted areas shall be killed at a designated slaughterhouse

False

In case of an ASF outbreak, all pigs at the farm of outbreak shall be killed

True

In case of ASF, susceptible animals originated from restricted areas shall be killed at the designated slaughterhouse

False

The general rules & specific requirements of official food control are described by EU directives that are directly applicable in all Member State

False

The Community provisions do not prescribe any organisational structures to be applied

True

According to the Cummunity provisions official food control shall be performed according to similar principles & using the same set of methods

True

Community provisions determine the organisational structures to be applied in order to harmonise the official food controls

False

In most European countries a single uniform food chain safety authority is responsible for official food contro

False

In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

True

Food safety risks at retail level are higher than at whole-sailing therefore the rules of retail distribution of foods of animal origin are included in the EU regulation on hygiene of foods of animal origin

False

Cold stores are operating under the effect of the EU regulation on hygiene of foods of animal origin

True

Food consignments of animal origin can enter the territory of the EU after veterinary checks at border inspection posts only

True

Within the EU, foods may move freely & their official control shall take place at their place of origin & destination

True

There are 2 basic documents that shall accompany the food consignment in the trade inside the EU, the CVED & the Animal Health Certificate

True

At the border inspection posts documentary checks shall be performed supplemented with physical checks in case of suspect

False

Even in small-scale operations, poultry can only be slaughtered at an approved slaughterhouse for public consumption

False

In a small-scale operations, fresh meat of pigs & ruminants can be marketed from farm gates or to retail establishments

True

In small-scale operations, fresh meat of pigs & ruminants can be marketed from farm gates or at local markets

False

In small-scale operations, fresh meat of poultry can be marketed from farm gates or at local markets

True

In small-scale operations, chilled raw milk can be marketed within 2 hours after milking

True -can be kept for even longer also

In small-scale operations, the total plate count of raw cows milk shall be les than the 1,500,00

False

What is the main bottleneck of molecular spectroscopy? A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough B. It is not suitable for analyzing solid samples C. Only one compound can give signal in the given wavelength D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

C. Only one compound can give signal in the given wavelength

What is not true for gas chromatography? A. It is not suitable for analyzing inorganic materials B. Heat sensitive materials can also be analyzed C. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography D. It can be connected with mass spectrometric detection

C. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography

What are not characteristic of indicator organisms? A. Should be informative in all types of waters? (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater etc.) B. They are obligate pathogens C. Characterized by longer survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes D. Their quantity must show direct correlation with the degree of fecal contamination

B. They are obligate pathogens

Which statement is True for Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Gram positive, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacterium B. Occurs in feces, soil, water and waste water C. As an indicator of fecal contamination can be used D. Provides information about defects of filtering process

B. Occurs in feces, soil, water and waste water

Which statement is False for Sulphite reducing Clostridia and Clostridium perfringes? A. Obligate anaerobic, spore forming bacteria B. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of fecal microflora C. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection D. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts and defects of filtering process

B. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of fecal microflora

Which statement is False for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria? A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C B. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a defect in the water treatment D. Carried out by pour plate method

A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C

Which statement is True for total coliforms? A. Associated with a more or less fecal contamination B. Direct indicators of fecal contamination nor have health risk C. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts D. Belonging to the Streptococcaceae family

A. Associated with a more or less fecal contamination

Which statement is True for the organic acids as preservatives? A. Usually these substances have bactericide effect B. The organic acids are effective in dissociated form C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature

Which statement is True for the water removal? A. The microbes can multiply at each water activity circumstances B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms C. The bacteria can grow below 0.8 Aw D. The Aw requirement of bacteria is lower than the moulds

B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms

Which statement is True for the heat treatment? A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60c heat treatment B. Enterococcus can survive the 80°C 30 min. heat treatment C. All the spores can be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

The typical spoilage flora of meat products are? A. Moulds B. Yeasts C. Micrococci, Lactobacilli D. Salmonella spp.

C. Micrococci, Lactobacilli

The typical spoilage flora of bakery products are? A. Moulds B. Lactobacilli C. Yeasts D. Cl botulinum

A. Moulds

What are characteristic of indicator organisms? A. Should be informative in all types of waters? (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater etc.) B. They are obligate pathogens C. Characterized by shorter survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes D. Their quantity does not show direct correlation with the degree of fecal contamination

A. Should be informative in all types of waters? (drinking water, lake, river, seaweed, wastewater etc.)

Which statement is False for Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Gram negative, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacterium B. Occurs in feces, soil, water and waste water C. As an indicator of fecal contamination can be used D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system

C. As an indicator of fecal contamination can be used

Which statement is True for Sulphite reducing Clostrdia and Clostridium perfringes? A. Obligate aerobic, spore forming bacteria B. Most representative is clostridium botulinum, which is natural member of fecal microflora C. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system

C. Spore can survive in the water for long time and are highly resistant to disinfection

Which statement is True for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria? A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C B. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a fecal contamination in the water treatment D. Carried out by MPN method

B. Long term examination can be used for control the treatment of water

Which statement is False for total coliforms? A. Associated with a more or less fecal contamination B. Direct indicators of fecal contamination nor have health risk C. Provide good information on the microbiological status of the water D. Belonging to the Enterobacteriaceae family

B. Direct indicators of fecal contamination nor have health risk

Which statement is False for the organic acids as preservatives? A. Usually these substances have bacteriostatic effect B. The organic acids are effective in undissociated form C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on concentration temperature D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

Which statement is False for the water removal? A. The microbes can multiply at certain water activity circumstances B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms C. The bacteria can grow below 0.7 Aw D. The Aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the moulds

D. The Aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the moulds

Which statement is False for the heat treatment? A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment B. Enterococcus can survive the 60°C 30 min. heat treatment C. All the spores can not be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment

What part of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum can be used for analytical purposes? A. Only the ultraviolet and the visible parts B. The ultraviolet, visible and near infrared parts C. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared and the x-ray parts D. The whole spectrum can be used

C. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared and the x-ray parts

The main bottleneck of mass spectrometry? A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough B. It is not suitable for analyzing solid samples C. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

C. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials

Limulus test is suitable for detection of Gram-bacteria

True

Impedance measurement works with special media only

True

The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP

False

Listeria monocytogenes’ b-haemolysis strengthens the haemolysis of Staphylococcus aureu

True

Salmonella colonies are reddish purple on XLD agar

True

Salmonella decomposes lactose

False -cannot decompose lactose

MRSV agar can be used instead of RVS broth in the enrichment procedure of Salmonella

True

Selective media of moulds have low pH

True

Enterococcus faecalis is one of the most resistant among the non-spore forming microbes

True

Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive

False

E.coli can ferment lactose

True

Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive

False

Staphylococcus aureus is cultured in Fraser broth

False -Giolitti-Cantoni broth and Baird-Parker aga

Positive colonies of E.coli are bluish green on TBX agar

True

Enterobacteriaceae cannot ferment glucose

False

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens: -Cultured on Sulphite cycloserine agar

True

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens -B and C strains pathogenic for human

False A and C are pathogenic

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens -In LS broth incubated at 25°C

False -incubation at 46*C

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens -No haemolysis on blood agar

False

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus? -Produces toxin between 8-45°C

False -bw 20-45

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus? -Reduces the nitrate to nitrite

True

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus? -No haemolysis on blood agar

False -beta

Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus? -Gram negative

False Gram positive

Which statement is true for Salmonella? -Indol production is negative

True

Which statement is true for Salmonella? -Voges-Proskauer test is positive

False

Which statement is true for Salmonella? -Lactose-fermentation is positive

False

Which statement is true for Salmonella? -H2S production is positive

True

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes? -Catalase test is positive

True

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes? -Rhamnose negative

False

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes? -Its typical colonies on ALOA agar are blue

True

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes? -Shows summersaulting motility at 25°C

True

Which statement is false for E.coli? -Citrate utilization test is positive

False

Which statement is false for E.coli? -Indole test is positive

True

Which statement is false for E.coli? -Voges-Proskauer test is negative

True

Which statement is false for E.coli? -Methyl red test is positive

True

Enterococcus faecalis can grow: | -Between 10-60°C =

False -grows bw 10-45*C

Enterococcus faecalis can grow: -At pH 2.6

False -pH 9.6

Enterococcus faecalis can grow: -At 6.5% salt conc

True

Enterococcus faecalis can grow: -grow on blood agar with 70% bile content

False -40% bile content

Which statement is false for the water removal? -The microbes can multiply at certain water activity (aw) circumstances

True

Which statement is false for the water removal? -The reducing of water activity inhibit the multiplication of microorganisms

True

Which statement is false for the water removal? -The bacteria can grow below 0.7 aw

False -bacteria 0.91

Which statement is false for the water removal? -The aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the mould

True -moulds 0.80

What is produced during homofermentation?

Lactic acid

From which one do you not take 500 gram sample?

Fruit

Which substances belongs to category A? -

Chloramphenicol, anabolic agents

What is true for the spoilage flora?

Aerotolerant anerob

Past questions Flashcards

(164 cards)