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Pathology 1 > Path 2 quiz 3 > Flashcards

Path 2 quiz 3 Flashcards

(90 cards)

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1
Q

What is the most common cause of pediatric nephrotic syndrome?

A

Minimal change disease

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2
Q

Diffuse effacement of podocyte foot processes occurs in what condition?

A

Minimal change disease

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3
Q

Proteinuria is highly selective in what condition?

A

Minimal change disease

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4
Q

What condition involves sclerosis of only 50% or less of total glomeruli?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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5
Q

What condition involves only a portion of the capillary tuft in the affected glomeruli?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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6
Q

What condition is associated with pre-existing conditions such as HIV, heroin use, sickle cell disease, and morbid obesity?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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7
Q

In focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, what population has a better prognosis?

A

Children

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8
Q

Proteinuria is non-selective in what condition?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of adult nephrotic syndrome?

A

Membranous nephropathy

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10
Q

What condition involves diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary walls with subepithelial dense deposits causing irregular spikes or fuzz?

A

Membranous nephropathy

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11
Q

What condition involves a thickened basement membrane with a tram track appearance?

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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12
Q

What condition may involve a patient history of sore throat, swollen face, pee resembling coke, and hypertension?

A

Post-infection glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

In what condition will histology show hump-shaped subepithelial deposits?

A

Post-infection glomerulonephritis

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14
Q

What is the most common nephritic syndrome especially in a child with hematuria after UTI, URI, or GI infection?

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

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15
Q

What condition involves recurrent hematuria and IgA in mesangium in blood?

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

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16
Q

What condition is associated with nerve deafness, lens dislocation, cataracts, and corneal defects?

A

Alport syndrome (hereditary nephritis)

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17
Q

What condition involves mutations in one of the alpha chains of collagen type IV?

A

Alport syndrome (hereditary nephritis)

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18
Q

In what condition will histology show thickening or attenuation with pronounced splitting and irregular foci in the GBM?

A

Alport syndrome (hereditary nephritis)

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19
Q

What condition involves antibodies to collagen IV protein, can have hemorrhage and necrotizing alveolitis (goodpasture) and diffuse linear GBM IgG label?

A

Rapid progressive crescent glomerulonephritis

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20
Q

What condition involves proliferation of parietal epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule and rapid decrease in GFR and loss of renal function?

A

Rapid progressive crescent glomerulonephritis

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21
Q

What condition has a common route of ascending infection?

A

Pyelonephritis

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22
Q

Bitemporal hemianopsia results due to compression of the chiasm via what type of tumor?

A

Non-functional pituitary adenoma

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23
Q

What is the most common type of functioning pituitary adenoma?

A

Prolactinoma

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24
Q

In women, what tumor causes reduced fertility and galactorrhea?

A

Prolactinoma

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25
What is the most common cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism?
Graves disease
26
What condition involves hypersensitivity reaction type II, elevated free serum T3 and T3, and decreased TSH levels?
Graves disease
27
What condition is an autoimmune disorder involving activation of thyroid epithelial cells by autoAbs to TSH receptors?
Graves disease
28
In what condition does a radioiodine scan show a diffuse uptake of iodine?
Graves disease
29
Hypermetabolic state of the sympathetic NS, bulging eyes, diplopia, increase BP and HR, and tremors are all signs of what condition?
Hyperthyroidism
30
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the US?
Hashimoto
31
What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma?
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
32
What type of thyroid carcinoma has the best prognosis?
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
33
What type of thyroid carcinoma has the worst prognosis?
Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
34
In what condition will histology show optically clear glass nuclei and psammoma bodies?
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
35
Neuromuscular irritability is a common characteristic of what condition?
Hypoparathyroidism
36
High calcium levels are a common characteristic of what condition?
Hyperparathyroidism
37
What condition can result from an increase in pituitary ACTH or exogenous steroid usage?
Cushing's syndrome
38
What condition involves adrenocortical insufficiency and is mostly autoimmune adrenalitis?
Addison's disease
39
What condition involves bronze pigmentation of the skin and thinning of the adrenal cortex?
Addison's disease
40
Poor functioning beta cells is a characteristic of what condition?
Type I diabetes
41
Decreased insulin levels is associated with what condition?
Type I diabetes
42
Increased insulin levels is associated with what condition?
Type II diabetes
43
Retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy are all types of what?
Diabetic microvascular disease
44
What condition involves accelerated atherosclerosis leading to an increased risk of MI, stroke, and LE gangrene?
Diabetic macrovascular disease
45
What is the most common diabetic microvascular condition?
Diabetic neuropathy
46
What is the most common type of diabetic neuropathy?
Distal, symmetric polyneuropathy
47
What female condition shows a trophic epithelium and sclerosis of dermis?
Lichen sclerosus
48
What female condition shows a thickened epidermis (acanthosis) due to hyperplasia?
Lichen simplex chronicus
49
What tumor is caused by HPV infection, specifically genotypes 6 and 11 and occurs in both males and females?
Condylomata accuminata
50
What pre-malignant condition has three different types all with the basement membrane still in tact?
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
51
Which type of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is characterized by dysplastic changes in the lower third of the squamous epithelium exhibiting koilocytotic change?
CIN I
52
Which type of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) involves dysplasia extending to the middle third of the epithelium?
CIN II
53
Which type of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) involves complete loss of maturation affecting all layers of the epithelium?
CIN III
54
What female tumor most commonly develops in the transformation zone?
Invasive carcinoma of the cervix
55
What tumor encircles the cervix penetrating into the underlying stroma/basement membrane to produce a barrel cervix?
Invasive carcinoma of the cervix
56
What tumor occurs most frequently in post-menopausal women with irregular vaginal bleeding?
Endometrial carcinoma
57
What are the most common type of malignant ovarian tumors?
Serous tumors
58
What type of ovarian tumor has the best prognosis?
Mucinous tumors
59
What condition is due to abnormalities in material or placental blood flow and is associated to symptoms such as hypertension, proteinuria, and edema?
Preeclampsia
60
Which type of noninvasive in situ carcinoma expands but does not alter the acini of lobules and is rarely associated with calcification?
Lobular carcinoma in situ
61
Which type of noninvasive (in situ) carcinoma is frequently associated with calcifications?
Ductal carcinoma in situ
62
What type of tumor has two types which both arise from the terminal duct of the lobular unit?
Noninvasive in situ carcinoma
63
What is the most common malformation of the urethra in males?
Hypospadias (ventral)
64
What is the most common type of germ cell tumor in males?
Seminoma
65
What is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children under three years of age?
Yolk sac tumor
66
In what male tumor will histology show papillary structures resembling a developing glomerulus?
Yolk sac tumor
67
What male sex cord gonadal tumor secretes androgens, estrogens, and steroids?
Leydig cell tumor
68
In what male tumor will histology show rod shaped crystalloids of Reinke?
Leydig cell tumor
69
What male condition affects periurethral zone producing nodules that compress prostatic urethra resulting in difficulty sleeping due to nocturia?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
70
What male tumor grows in the peripheral zone and involves increased PSA levels?
Carcinoma of the prostate
71
What condition involves intrinsic membrane abnormalities?
Hemolytic anemia
72
What condition involves mutation of the enzyme spectrin and ball shaped RBCs?
Hereditary spherocytosis
73
What condition increases susceptibility of cell to injury via oxidant stressors such as drugs, infections, and foods (fava beans)?
G6PD deficiency
74
What condition involves point mutation causing glutamic acid to become valine at 6th position on gene for beta globin chain (GAG—>GTG)?
Sickle cell anemia
75
What condition can result in the RBCs getting stuck in microvasculature causing infarction and thrombosis?
Sickle cell anemia
76
What condition is a group of inherited disorders that can't synthesize normal globin and often results in microcytic, hypochromic anemia?
Thalassemias
77
What condition involves symptoms such as weakness, pallor, spooning of fingernails, hypochromic microcytic anemia, and pica?
Iron deficient anemia
78
What condition involves macrocytic RBCs and defective DNA synthesis due to folate deficiency or vitamin B12 deficiency?
Megablastic anemia
79
What condition involves vitamin B12 deficiency and autoantibodies that prevent B12 absorption?
Pernicious anemia
80
What condition are patients more susceptible to if they previously had stomach surgery?
Pernicious anemia
81
What condition involves bone marrow being replaced by a tumor?
Myelophthisic anemia
82
In what condition will histology show teardrop cells in the peripheral blood?
Myelophthisic anemia
83
What condition is associated with the Epstein Barr Virus and Burkett Lymphoma showing atypical T lymphocyte?
Infectious mononucleosis
84
What is the #1 malignant tumor in kids?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
85
What tumor involves pre-B cell origin?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
86
What tumor arises from mature B cells?
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
87
What tumor involves extranodal presentations are common in GI tract and brain?
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
88
What tumor involves Reed Sternberg cells and painless lymphadenopathy?
Hodgkin lymphoma
89
What condition involves auer rods?
Acute myeloid leukemia
90
What condition involves a deficiency in ADAMTS13, which means they can't break down vWF?
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

Pathology 1 (2 decks)

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