Path Recalls 2017 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is not consistent with Wegeners?

Upper respiratory tract granulomas 
Lower respiratory tract granulomas
Renal artery vasculitis 
Pulmonary artery vasculitis 
Glomerulonephritis
A

Renal artery vasculitis no

Which is not consistent with Wegeners?

Upper respiratory tract granulomas yes
Lower respiratory tract granulomas yes
Renal artery vasculitis no
Pulmonary artery vasculitis yes
Glomerulonephritis yes
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2
Q

Two questions on Churg strauss
Associated:
pANCA
eGPA

A

Two questions on Churg strauss
Associated pANCA yes
eGPA asthma, eosinophilia, transient pulmonary infiltrates.

Churg struass and Microscopic polyangitis both p-ANCA
Wegners c-ANCA

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3
Q

Which doesn’t cause bowel ischaemia
PAN
Behchets
Atherosclerosis

A

Which doesn’t cause bowel ischaemia
PAN yes
Behchets yes
Atherosclerosis yes

*LW:
Although Bechet can, It would be least likely out of options listed.
GI symtpoms are mainly due to ulceration and intestinal over growth.
Carotid, pulmonary, aortic, iliac, femoral, and popliteal arteries are most commonly involved; cerebral and renal arteries are uncommonly involved.
Venous disease resulting in venous thrombosis is more common than arterial involvement, and is often an early feature of Behçet syndrome.

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4
Q

Most likely cause of acute bowel ischaemia

SMA atherosclerosis
SMV thrombosis
Aortic dissection
SMA embolus

A

SMA embolus AF most likely

**LJS - RP says acute arterial occlusion more commonly embolic (50%) and in situ thrombosis due to atherosclerosis only 15-30% (Robbins doesn’t specify)

Most likely cause of acute bowel ischaemia?

SMA atherosclerosis common
SMV thrombosis yes
Aortic dissection yes HTN and dissect into SMA
SMA embolus AF most likely

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5
Q

Aortic dissection

5-10% don’t have an intimal tear
Dissection between media and the intima
Most common to have tear at junction of arch and proximal descending aorta

A
  • *LJS - 5-10% no intimal tear
  • LW agrees.

Dissection between media and the intima ?maybe not dissection usually outer third of media and can rupture into adventitia (robbins)
IVM: Intimomedial flap is a misnomer as there is always some component of media in the flap (StatDx)

Aortic dissection

5-10% don’t have an intimal tear - IMH 10%
Dissection between media and the intima - ?maybe not dissection usually outer third of media and can rupture into adventitia (robbins)
Most common to have tear at junction of arch and proximal descending aorta - *AJL - Most common in the ascending aorta, within 10cm of the valve.

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6
Q

What is least associated with BRCA

Pancreas
Prostate
CRC
Ovarian

A

CRC yes no

What is least associated with BRCA
Pancreas yes
Prostate yes
CRC yes no
Ovarian yes

BRCA1: Ovarian, male breast cancer (but lower than BRCA2), prostate, pancreas, fallopian tube

BRCA2: Ovarian, male breast cancer, prostate, pancreas, stomach, melanoma, gallbladder, bile duct, pharynx

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7
Q

Most likely to cause colon cancer
PJ
UC

A

*AJL - PJ has about 40% lifetime risk. UC has 1% per year. I’m unsure which is higher but maybe PJ?

Most likely to cause colon cancer
PJ less likely but is associated with colon and breast
UC yes

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8
Q

Least likely to cause gastric cancer

Fundic gland polyp 
Hyperplastic polyp 
Adenomatous polyp 
Partial gastrectomy 
H pylori
A

**LJS - disagree. Hyperplastic polyp risk of dysplasia correlates with size, removed > 1.5cm
Fundic gland polyp - most common, no malignant potential when they are sporadic (can also be ass/w FAP)
Robbins 9th ed p772.

*LW: theme of agreement continues….
UTD states following:
–> Malignancy develops in hyperplastic polyps through a dysplasia/carcinoma sequence. Between 1 and 20 percent of hyperplastic polyps have been reported to harbor foci of dysplasia. The risk of malignancy in hyperplastic polyps is increased in polyps >1 cm and pedunculated in shape.
–> Somatic APC gene mutations have been detected in over 70 percent of syndromic fundic gland polyps without dysplasia, but in less than 10 percent of sporadic lesions.
Sporadic fundic gland polyps and those associated with PPI use have virtually no malignant potential, but may rarely show dysplasia.
Between 30 to 50 percent of fundic gland polyps in patients with FAP show dysplasia, which is typically low grade. However, fundic gland polyps, in contrast with adenomas in patients with FAP, rarely progress to cancer

—-> Favoured answer is fundic gland polyp is LEAST likely to cause gastric cancer.

Previous answer:
Hyperplastic polyp - virtually no malignant potential.

Fundic gland polyp - yes, most common polyp
Adenomatous polyp yes
Partial gastrectomy yes
H pylori yes

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9
Q

With regard to celiac disease (least likely)

Severely affects the distal small bowel 
Increase in number of small bowel folds 
Villous atrophy 
Autoimmune reaction to ingested to gliadin 
Increased risk of MALToma
A

Severely affects the distal small bowel

With regard to celiac disease (least likely)
Severely affects the distal small bowel -no. Duodenum and jejunum
Increase in number of small bowel folds -yes distally. (Jejunal-ileal fold reversal. Hide bound appearance on barium, which can also been seen in scleroderma)
Villous atrophy -yes
Autoimmune reaction to ingested to gliadin -yes
Increased risk of MALToma -no MALToma with Hpylori, T lymphoma (and adenocarcinoma) with celiac disease

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10
Q

Most common location of small bowel adenocarcinoma

Duodenum 
Proximal jejunum 
Distal jejunum
Proximal ileum
Distal ileum
A

Duodenum periampullary tumor

Most common location of small bowel adenocarcinoma

Duodenum -periampullary tumor
Proximal jejunum -GIST
Distal jejunum
Proximal ileum
Distal ileum -lymphoma, TB, Yersinia, carcinoid from enterochromaffin cells
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11
Q

Young patient with bicornuate uterus and one kidney

Mesonephric duct
Mullerian duct
Wolffian duct
Genital ridge

A

Mullerian duct mullarian anomalies

Young patient with bicornuate uterus and one kidney

Mesonephric duct (= Wolffian duct)
Mullerian duct mullarian anomalies
Wolffian duct
Genital ridge

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12
Q

Newborn with dilated colon and unilateral sacral agenesis

Hirschsprungs
Anal atresia
Ileal atresia
Meconium plug

A

Anal atresia VACTERL or curarino ASP triad anorectal malformation, sacral osseus defect, presacral mass

Newborn with dilated colon and unilateral sacral agenesis

Hirschsprungs not sacrum
Anal atresia VACTERL or curarino ASP triad anorectal malformation, sacral osseus defect, presacral mass
Ileal atresia no
Meconium plug no

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13
Q

Which is associated with CF?

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Which is associated with CF?

CF recap
-Cystic fibrosis is due to a homozygous defect of the CFTR gene located on chromosome 7
-gene encodes for a transmembrane protein known as cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR)
-regulating chloride passage across cell membranes
-difference between skin and other tissue
-in skin, CFTR protein is responsible for the influx of chloride and increases the sodium channel activity, thus controlling the influx of sodium, Defective channel causes sodium to remain in the sweat hence sweaty.

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis articles say maybe, but I would say no

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14
Q

Which is most suggestive of UC?

Pseudopolyps
Uveitis
Fistulas
Sacroiliitis

A

Pseudopolyps yes.

Which is most suggestive of UC?

Pseudopolyps yes
Uveitis IBD
Fistulas no
Sacroiliitis IBD

Isolated islands of regenerating mucosa often bulge into the lumen to create pseudopolyps, and the tips of these polyps may fuse to create mucosal bridges.

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15
Q

Most consistent with reactive arthritis?

Symmetrical sacroiliitis
Shoulder arthropathy
Commonly follows GI infection

A

Commonly follows GI infection yes arthritis follow GI or chlamydia is most consistent

Most consistent with reactive arthritis?

Symmetrical sacroiliitis no asymmetrics
Shoulder arthropathy non specific
Commonly follows GI infection yes arthritis follow GI or chlamydia is most consistent

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16
Q

Hydroxyapetite deposition disease associated with?

Dermatomyositis
Sjogrens
Scleroderma
Dialysis

A

Dialysis yes amyloid b2 microglobulin, CPPD and HADD, osteodystrophy

Hydroxyapetite deposition disease associated with?

Dermatomyositis no calcinosis universalis
Sjogrens no
Scleroderma no calcinosis circumscripta
Dialysis yes amyloid b2 microglobulin, CPPD and HADD, osteodystrophy

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17
Q

Least liekly to have changes in CJD?

Dentate nuclei
Caudate
Putamin
Thalami

A

Dentate nuclei no

Least liekly to have changes in CJD?

Dentate nuclei no
Caudate yes BG
Putamin yes BG
Thalami yes hockey stick

Pathognomonic finding is spongiform transformation of the cerebral cortex, and often deep grey matter (caudate, putamen). Robbins

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18
Q

Least likely CADASIL manifestation?

External capsule ischaemia 
Basal ganglia ischaemia 
Anterior temporal white matter change
Periventricular white matter changes
Skin changes
A

Skin changes no

Least likely CADASIL manifestation?

External capsule ischaemia yes classic location
Basal ganglia ischaemia yes
Anterior temporal white matter change yes classic location
Periventricular white matter changes yes leukoencephalopathy
Skin changes no. **LJS - can perform skin bx to dx if no genetic mutation found. But no clinically recognisable skin change

UpToDate:
In order to firmly establish a diagnosis of CADASIL, one of the following is required:
●Documentation of a typical NOTCH3 pathogenic variant by genetic analysis
●Documentation of characteristic ultrastructural deposits within small blood vessels by skin biopsy

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19
Q

Most true regarding HSV?

HSV1 Most common cause of neonatal encephalitis
HSV2 most common cause of adult encephalitis
Causes haemorrhagic necrosis

A

Causes haemorrhagic necrosis yes

Most true regarding HSV?

HSV1 Most common cause of neonatal encephalitis no HSV2 birth canal
HSV2 most common cause of adult encephalitis no HSV1
Causes haemorrhagic necrosis yes

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20
Q

What is the least likely consequence of herniation?

DAI 
Duret haemorrhage 
ACA infarct 
PCA infarct 
Kernohans notch
A

DAI false, it is associated but not a consequence

What is the least likely consequence of herniation?

DAI false, it is associated but not a consequence
Duret haemorrhage yes stretching pontine perforators
ACA infarct yes subfalcine
PCA infarct yes transtentorial, also affects CN3
Kernohans notch yes cerebral peduncle of contralateral side

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21
Q

One month history of weakness with T2 hyperintensity in supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor. Normal T1

Impingement of the suprascapular nerve in the spinoglenoid notch
Impingement of the suprascapular nerve in the suprascapular notch
Quadralateral space
Brachial neuritis

A

Brachial neuritis - yes Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis)

One month history of weakness with T2 hyperintensity in supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor. Normal T1

Impingement of the suprascapular nerve in the spinoglenoid notch -no, isolated infraspinatus

Impingement of the suprascapular nerve in the suprascapular notch -no, doesn’t a account for involvement of teres minor

Quadralateral space -no teres minor only from axillary nerve

Brachial neuritis - yes Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis)

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22
Q

Least likely to cause thoracic outlet syndrome?

Levator clavicular muscle 
Anterior scalene hypertrophy 
Cervical rib 
Pectoralis minor tunnel 
Supracalvicular mass
A

**LJS - they all can. ?poor recall
Supraclavicular mass could cause neurogenic TOS (most common type) by compressing supraclavicular brachial plexus. Listed in radiopaedia causes. Google search supports all others as causes too. ?Go by least common cause ?levator claviculae

**LW:
Agree with above, that the least likely is levator clavicular muscle.
Anterior scalene hypertrophy - TRUE; interscalene triangle
Cervical rib - TRUE
Pec minor tunnel - TRUE; below clavicle containing brachial plexus nerves and vessels.
Supraclavicular mass - TRUE; lymphadenopathy, pancoast tumours, osteochondromas.
(https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s40122-019-0124-2)

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23
Q

Varicose veins most correct?

Vein thickening
Enlarged vein with competent valves
Venous ulcers that are slow to heal
Cause significant numbers of PE

A

Venous ulcers that are slow to heal yes, usually chronic ulcers

Varicose veins most correct?

Vein thickening false thin dilated
Enlarged vein with competent valves false incompentent
Venous ulcers that are slow to heal yes, usually chronic ulcers
Cause significant numbers of PE no usually DVT not superficial

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24
Q

Least correct regarding causes of pulmonary hypertension?

Primary is progressive and results in death
Partial filling defects associated with primary
Primary is more common than secondary
Can be caused by emphysema

A

Primary is more common than secondary no primary rare

Least correct regarding causes of pulmonary hypertension?

Primary is progressive and results in death yes, death from decompensated cor pulmonale, often with superimposed thromboembolism and pneumonia, usually ensues within 2 to 5 years in 80% of patients.
Partial filling defects associated with primary - yes secondary chronic PE
**LJS - ?referring to tufts of plexogenic arteriopathy in primary
Primary is more common than secondary no primary rare
Can be caused by emphysema yes

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25
Least true regarding malignant hypertension 1-5% of essential hypertension Can arise in people with previously normal blood pressure Fibrinoid necrosis (or sclerosis) of the arteriole walls Greater than 110mmHg diastolic
**LJS (Robbins): Defined as SBP > 200, DBP > 120 mmHg - this is least true Least true regarding malignant hypertension 1-5% of essential hypertension - yes Can arise in people with previously normal blood pressure yes Fibrinoid necrosis (or sclerosis) of the arteriole walls yes - hyperplastic arterosclerosis with fibronoid necrosis. Greater than 110mmHg diastolic - no (see above)
26
Least true regarding berry aneurysms 90 percent internal carotid 25% present within the first 24 hours with infarct due to vasospasm Can present as an enlarging mass 2% of post mortems
*SD: I'd say 90% ICA false - 40% AcommA branch, 34% MCA bifurcation, 20% terminal ICA **SCS - I favour “25% present within the first 24 hours with infarct due to vasospasm” as LEAST correct. (Vasospasm occurs 4-14 days). But Sina makes a good point… CCF - boom Sajith "the truth" Senaderra strikes again. *wji - agree with Saj. ICA option maybe said "ICA territory" or something like that. vasospasm first 24h is wrong. Least true regarding berry aneurysms 90 percent internal carotid ~maybe. **LJS - branch point in anterior COW most common (90%) 25% present within the first 24 hours with infarct due to vasospasm -no Can present as an enlarging mass -yes 2% of post mortems -yes
27
Least correct regarding ADEM? 20-30 percent mortality Post viral or vaccination Perivenular Causes demyelination and axonal degeneration
*AJL- Causes demyelination and axonal degeneration no - axons don’t degenerate 20-30 percent mortality -yes (10-20% (RP)) Post viral or vaccination -yes Perivenular -yes Causes demyelination and axonal degeneration -no - axons don’t degenerate
28
With regard to pleural solitary fibrous tumour? Associated with asbestos Hypocalcaemia other option...
With regard to pleural solitary fibrous tumour? Associated with asbestos -no Hypocalcaemia -no, hypoglycaemia Cant remember the correct answer SD: 20% associated with HPOA 80% from visceral pleura 2-4% hypoglycemia
29
Neuroendocrine lung tumour most likely to cause hypercalcaemia? - DIPNET - Typical carcinoid - Small cell lung cancer
Small cell lung cancer - yes Neuroendocrine lung tumour most likely to cause hypercalcaemia DIPNET Typical carcinoid Small cell lung cancer - yes *LW: Additional note - is the commonest para neoplastic syndrome of SCC lung cancer.
30
Most likely associated with hypocalcaemia Primary hyperparathyrodism Secondary hyperparathyroidism Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Most likely associated with hypocalcaemia Primary hyperparathyrodism no Secondary hyperparathyroidism yes Tertiary hyperparathyroidism no CKD. Not enough active Vit D. High levels of phosphate which directly depress calcium. Chronically low calcium causes compensatory increase in PTH.
31
Least likely to cause gynaecomastia Cirrhosis Adrenal hyperplasia Leydig cell tumour Sertoli tumour
Least likely to cause gynaecomastia Cirrhosis yes Adrenal hyperplasia no (virilization) Leydig cell tumour yes - hyperoestrogenism. (though can also cause increased virilisation). Sertoli tumour yes - produce aromatase which helps to make oestrogen Congenital adrenal hyperplasia stems from several autosomal-recessive, inherited metabolic errors, each characterized by a deficiency or total lack of a particular enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of cortical steroids, particularly cortisol (Fig. 24-46). Steroid precursors that build behind the defective step in the pathway are channeled into other pathways, resulting in increased pro­duction of androgens, which accounts for virilization. Simultaneously, the deficiency of cortisol leads to increased secretion of ACTH, culminating in adrenal hyperplasia.
32
Most true regarding cryptorchidism 25% are bilateral Orchidopexy corrects increased risk of malignancy 10% of 1 year old boys Contralateral testis is almost always normal
*AJL - 25% are bilateral yes (*LW - Word for word from Robbins) Orchidopexy corrects increased risk of malignancy - reduces but doesn’t eliminate 10% of 1 year old boys-no. 1% Contralateral testis is almost always normal - *LW: robbins states similar histologic changes may also be seen in contralateral descended testis - so not normal, and hence incorrect.
33
``` Most common testicular cancer Yolk sack Teratoma Seminoma Choriocarcinoma ```
Seminoma yes ``` Most common testicular cancer Yolk sack Teratoma Seminoma yes Choriocarcinoma ```
34
Most true regarding placental site tumour? Associated with markedly elevated BHCG Mostly associated with normal pregnancy
*AJL- Mostly associated with normal pregnancy - yes 50% (Robbins pg 1042) Spontaneous abortion, hydatidiform mole make up the remainder. Excellent prognosis, 10-15% get disseminated disease **LJS - HCG only moderately elevated. Produces human placental lactogen. Presents with uterine mass, bleeding amenorrhea. Makes up less that 2% of GTD. * LW: a. Associated with markedly elevated BHCG: FALSE - mild rare form of GGT, with less syncitiotrophblasts hence lower BHCG b. Mostly associated with normal pregnancy: sometimes may occur after normal pregnancy, molar pregnancy or even after a terminated pregnancy.)
35
Regarding choriocarcinoma (False) Better prognosis with non-gestational choriocarcinoma Frequently metastases at presentation Can present up to 2 years after pregnancy
Regarding choriocarcinoma (False) Better prognosis with non-gestational choriocarcinoma false Frequently metastases at presentation yes Can present up to 2 years after pregnancy yes up to 15 Choriocarcinoma has high propensity for hematogenous spread, and by the time it is discovered, radiographs of the chest and bones may disclose the presence of meta- static lesions. Nongestational choriocarcinomas that arise outside of the uterus are much more resistant to therapy.
36
Not associated with pre-eclampsia Placental infarcts HELLP Neurological symptoms Retroplacental bleed
Not associated with pre-eclampsia Placental infarcts yes HELLP yes Neurological symptoms no Retroplacental bleed yes **LJS - pre-eclampsia get headaches and visual disturbance but eclampsia defined by CNS involvement - seizures/coma Approximately 10% of women with severe preeclampsia develop microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, referred to as the HELLP syndrome (Chapter 17). The placenta reveals various microscopic changes, most of which reflect malperfusion, ischemia, and vascular injury. These include (1) infarcts, which are larger and more numerous that those that may be seen in normal full-term placentas, (2) exaggerated ischemic changes in the chorionic villi and trophoblast, consisting of increased syncytial knots, (3) frequent retroplacental hematomas due to bleeding and instability of uteroplacental vessels, and (4) abnormal decidual vessels, which may show thrombi, lack of normal physiologic conversion (described earlier), fibrinoid necrosis, or intraintimal lipid deposition (acute atherosis)
37
Not associated with sarcoid? Membranous glomerulonephritis Mickulicz
Not associated with sarcoid Membranous glomerulonephritis no Mickulicz - IgG4 disease. Associated with sarcoidosis and sjogren and lymphoma. Used to be considered a form of Sjögren (therefore has similar presentation... salivary gland and lacromal ducts)
38
True regarding pagets disease of the nipple Eczematous reaction on skin Occult DCIS involving the nipple Lactiferous ducts involved in less than 5%
True regarding pagets disease of the nipple Eczematous reaction on skin yes Occult DCIS involving the nipple F - not occult, has visible skin change Lactiferous ducts involved in less than 5% no
39
Regarding fibrous dysplasia >50% polyostotic Commonly have café-au-lait spots In the skull, facial bones and mandible more commonly involved than the vault
*AJL- In the skull, facial bones and mandible more commonly involved than the vault yes 20-30% polyostotic 2-3% of polyostotic are McCune-Albright which have coast of maine cafe au lait spots. Maxilla > mandible > frontal bone > ethmoid and sphenoid bones > T-bone
40
Regarding osteosarcoma (false): Periosteal has a cleft between the bone and the tumour Parosteal has significant cartilage component High grade surface osteosarcoma has a similar prognosis to conventional
Periosteal has a cleft between the bone and the tumour -false Regarding osteosarcoma (false): Periosteal has a cleft between the bone and the tumour -false Parosteal has significant cartilage component -yes **LJS - periosteal contains lots of chondroid matrix. Parosteal has osteoid matrix. RP. I think this also false High grade surface osteosarcoma has a similar prognosis to conventional -yes *ESG disagree. StatDx parosteal osteosarcoma: Gross path: Contains nodules of cartilage, some on surface, mimicking incomplete cartilage cap Histo: 50% show cartilaginous differentiation.
41
Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy Cholestasis HELLP Viral hepatitis Choledocolithiasis
* *LJS - viral hepatitis * LW agrees Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy Cholestasis yes HELLP Viral hepatitis Choledocolithiasis
42
Least true with regard to endocarditis: Acute causes valve destruction Acute affects previously damage valves Strep viridans most common cause of subacute
Acute affects previously damage valves -no Least true with regard to endocarditis: Acute causes valve destruction -yes Acute affects previously damage valves -no Strep viridans most common cause of subacute -yes
43
Least likely to with regard to congenital heart disease Truncus arteriosus carries a poor prognosis Septum primum ASD presents early
**LJS - septum primum ASD is big defect, unlikely to be asx But overall ASD more likely to present in adulthood vs VSD *LW: likely incomplete recall with unrecalled correct option. Primum defects commonly associated with other congential heart defects, so likely present early. Least likely to with regard to congenital heart disease Truncus arteriosus carries a poor prognosis yes Septum primum ASD presents early no
44
Which is least likely regarding ovarian tumours Serous carcinoma more common than borderline Serous carcinoma more likely bilateral Mucinous more common than serous Mucinous more commonly malignant
**LJS - serous more commonly malignant than mucinous Serous more common than mucinous *AJL agree with LJS. Serous benign - 60%, borderline - 15%, malig - 25% Mucinous benign - 80%, borderline - 10-15%, malig - 5% Which is least likely regarding ovarian tumours Serous carcinoma more common than borderline -yes Serous carcinoma more likely bilateral -yes Mucinous more common than serous -no Mucinous more commonly malignant- no
45
Most likely cause of partial hepatic fibrosis Budd Chiari Alpha-1-antitripsin Wilsons
Most likely cause of partial hepatic fibrosis Budd Chiari yes Alpha-1-antitripsin Wilsons The obstruction of two or more major hepatic veins produces liver enlargement, pain, and ascites, a condition known as Budd-Chiari syndrome. Obstruction of a single main hepatic vein by thrombosis is clinically silent. In the Budd-Chiari syndrome, the liver is swollen and red-purple and has a tense capsule. There may be differential areas of hemorrhagic collapse alternating with areas of preserved or regenerating parenchyma, the patterns are dependent on which small and large hepatic veins are obstructed.
46
Most true with regard to osteopetrosis ``` Hepatosplenomegally Axial more affected than appendicular No increased risk of fracture Autosomal recessive form affects the navicular Autosomal dominant form… ```
Most true with regard to osteopetrosis ``` Hepatosplenomegally yes Axial more affected than appendicular no No increased risk of fracture no Autosomal recessive form affects the navicular no Autosomal dominant form… no ``` The primary spongiosa, which is normally removed during growth, persists and fills the medullary cavity, leaving no room for the hematopoietic marrow. Affected individuals who survive into their infancy have repeated—often fatal—infections because of leukopenia, despite extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis that can lead to prominent hepatosplenomegaly.
47
Least likely to cause expansion of the pituitary fossa ``` Meningioma Germinoma Craniopharyngioma Lymphocytic hypophysitis Macroadenoma ```
* *LJS - meningioma * LW: as always agrees with LJS; meningiomas usually parasellar in location, and if trurly arises in fossa, more commonly shows hyperostosis rather than expansion relative to other lesions. (https://erc.bioscientifica.com/view/journals/erc/15/4/885.xml) Least likely to cause expansion of the pituitary fossa ``` Meningioma Germinoma Craniopharyngioma Lymphocytic hypophysitis yes Macroadenoma ```
48
Least correct with regard to macroadenoma: Commonly non-secretory PRL production most common Can invade the cavernous sinus
Least correct with regard to macroadenoma: Commonly non-secretory yes PRL production most common yes *AJL - I favour this to be least correct as most common is non secretory... Can invade the cavernous sinus yes Cavernous sinus invasion difficult to determine (medial wall is thin, weak). If tumor exists between cavernous carotid artery and lateral dura = invasion * *SCS: robbins. 9th ed, big version. - Lactotroph: 30% of adenoma “most common type of HYPERFUNCTIONING pituitary adenoma” - Non-secretory: 25-30% - Rarest =‘thyrotroph’ 1% *ESG - disagree that most common is non secretory. From StatDx pituitary macroadenoma: 75% endocrinologically active (symptoms vary) Prolactin-secreting adenoma is most common functional adenoma IVM: RP says Most macroadenomas are non-secretory. ?another least correct option not recalled
49
Least true with regard to chondrosarcoma Low grade lesions can cause reactive cortical thickening 15% arise from benign condroid lesions Majority high grade Most arise in axial skeleton
Least true with regard to chondrosarcoma Low grade lesions can cause reactive cortical thickening yes 15% arise from benign condroid lesions yes Majority high grade no Most arise in axial skeleton yes A slow-growing, low-grade tumor causes reactive thickening of the cortex, whereas a more aggressive high-grade neoplasm destroys the cortex and forms a soft tissue mass. About 15% of conventional chondrosarcomas are secondary, arising from a preexisting enchondroma or osteochondroma. Fortunately, most conventional chondrosarcomas are grade 1 tumors with 5-year survival rates of 80% to 90% (versus 43% for grade 3 tumors). Chondrosarcomas commonly arise in the axial skeleton, especially the pelvis, shoulder, and ribs. Unlike benign enchondroma, the distal extremities are rarely involved. The clear cell variant is unique in that it originates in the epiphyses of long tubular bones.
50
Woman with history of breast cancer, limp and hip pain 2 weeks, with increased T2 signal surrounding the psoas muscle Psoas tear Metastasis of the lesser trochanter Subtrochanteric fracture Subcapital fracture
Woman with history of breast cancer, limp and hip pain 2 weeks, with increased T2 signal surrounding the psoas muscle Psoas tear yes Metastasis of the lesser trochanter Subtrochanteric fracture Subcapital fracture **LJS - lesser trochanter mets, iliopsoas insertion here *LW: agree *AJL - also agree. If it was psoas tear the high signal would be within the muscle not surrounding. **SCS: crack the core; MSK “if you see an isolated “avulsion” of the LT in a seemingly mild trauma/injury in an adult - query a pathological fracture” wji - im in. how many can we fit on this bandwagon.
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``` Vitamin most associated with prostate carcinoma risk D E K A C ```
*LW: UptoDate (again our exams are not): states ---> There may be a statistically significant increased risk with vitamin E, as showhn in large prospective trials. ---> Link between vitamin D and prostate is complex, with conflicting studies with regards to vitamin D deficiency as a common pathway. Vitamin D - *AJL **LJS agree but vitamin D is protective! Big Rob 9th ed p984 SCS - I enjoy the D.
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Least frequent with MEN1 Pituitary adenoma Adrenal cortical adenoma Pancreatic islet cell tumour Phaeochromocytoma
Phaeochromocytoma yes Least frequent with MEN1 Pituitary adenoma Adrenal cortical adenoma Pancreatic islet cell tumour Phaeochromocytoma yes It is now recognized that the spectrum of this disease extends beyond the 3Ps. The duodenum is the most common site of gastrinomas in individuals with MEN-1 (far in excess of the frequency of pancreatic gastrinomas), and synchronous duodenal and pancreatic tumors may be present in the same individual. In addition, carcinoid tumors, thyroid and adrenocortical adenomas, and lipomas are more frequent than in the general population.
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Least true regarding Wilsons Reduced ceruloplasmin Increased excretion of copper into bile Autosomal recessive
Increased excretion of copper into bile - no has reduced excretion
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Least likely to cause splenomegaly Biliary acsariasis Cirrhosis Schistosomiasis Hepatitis B
Least likely to cause splenomegaly Biliary acarisis no (helminthic infection, round worm) Cirrhosis Schistosomiasis (causes inflammatory response in the liver leading to fibrosis and cirrhosis) Hepatitis B
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Least likely a result of diabetes Calcification of the vas deferans Amyloidosis Pancreatitis
Least likely a result of diabetes Calcification of the vas deferans - most common cause Amyloidosis - islet cell amyloidosis (below) Pancreatitis no A form of localised amyloidosis: endocrine amyloid: Microscopic deposits of localized amyloid may be found in certain endocrine tumors, such as medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, islet tumors of the pancreas, pheochromocytomas, and undifferentiated carcinomas of the stomach, and in the islets of Langerhans in individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
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Least true regarding wilms Dysplastic kidneys risk factor Most <2 years old
Least true regarding wilms Dysplastic kidneys risk factor yes Most <2 years old no **LJS - MCDK now not thought to be risk factor for Wilms, several systematic reviews.
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True regarding neuroblastoma Metastases can regress in infants Frequently lymph node involvement at diagnosis VMA for screening
True regarding neuroblastoma Metastases can regress in infants yes Frequently lymph node involvement at diagnosis yes VMA for screening yes Infants with localized primary tumors and widespread metastases to the liver, bone marrow, and skin (stage 4S) represent a special subtype, wherein it is not uncommon for the disease to regress spontaneously. The biologic basis of this welcome behavior is not clear. Unfortunately, most (60% to 80%) children present with stage 3 or 4 tumors Because the vast majority of neuroblastomas release catecholamines into the circulation, detection of catecholamine metabolites (VMA and HVA) in urine could, in principle, form the basis for screening for asymptomatic tumors in children. However, two large studies in Europe and North America have failed to demonstrate improved mortality rates with population screening, because most tumors detected had favorable biologic characteristics. Therefore, community-based screening programs for neuroblastomas are not currently advocated.
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Least associated with NF2 ``` Meningioma Ependymoma Schwannoma Dural calcification Optic nerve glioma ```
Least associated with NF2 ``` Meningioma Ependymoma Schwannoma Dural calcification Optic nerve glioma no ```
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Most likely diagnosis – 2cm cystic mass in the head of the pancreas in a 50 year old male IPMN Mucinous Serous Adenocarcinoma
IPMN yes **LJS - or serous. IPMN typically elderly males, this guy only 50. 75% serous occur in women. * *SCS: Robbins. - SCAs typically in the panc tail. Cysts are typically small, 1-3mm. Macrocystic variants are possible - IPMN- head is typical location;M>F. Additional things- asscociation w pancreatic duct/ductal dilatation. - MCM-95% women. Pancreatic tail. Larger cystic spaces filled w mucin. Encapsulated. Neoplastic potential, on a spectrum. 1/3 of surgically resected specimen harbour invasive adenoca.
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Most likely to have pseudomembranes Infectious colitis and pseudomembranous colitis Dysentry and ischaemic colitis Pseudomebranous colitis and ischaemic colitis
*AJL - Pseudomebranous colitis and ischaemic colitis Infectious colitis and pseudomembranous colitis - No. Robbins says pseudomembranes with c.diff, ischaemia and necrotising infections. I think this mean ‘infectious colitis’ doesn’t count.
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True regarding mucinous ovarian carcinoma 70% 5 year survival with peritoneal disease
*AJL - Mean survival is 14 months with advanced stage (vs serous with 42 months) - Radiopaedia. I suspect the wrong answer was remembered but hopefully we all still learned something. StatDx: Overall much better prognosis than other subtypes of epithelial ovarian cancer - 5-year overall survival in patients with *localized* disease exceeds 90% Patients with *advanced-stage* primary mucinous carcinomas (stage III or IV) have significantly shorter overall survival compared to patients with advanced-stage serous carcinoma - Estimated median survival between 12 and 33 months compared to 42 months WJI disagree. FIGO stage 2 is pelvic peritoneal disease and 5yr survival is 70% (statdx) so if peritoneal disease is limited to the pelvis answer is correct **SCS Stage 1: 90%, 2: 70%, 3: 39%, 4: 17% (stat dx gives numbers for malignant epithelial tumours in general)
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Most likely regarding mixed mullerian tumours Homologous with endometrial, mesenchymal elements Heterologous with epidermal and neural elements Combination/collision of two different germ cell lines
Most likely regarding mixed mullerian tumours Homologous with endometrial, mesenchymal elements yes Heterologous with epidermal and neural elements - F? Combination/collision of two different germ cell lines - F Majority of ovarian carcinosarcomas are monoclonal, suggesting they are metaplastic carcinomas High-grade malignant epithelial (carcinoma) and malignant mesenchymal (sarcoma) elements Either carcinomatous or sarcomatous component may predominate Epithelial element is most commonly serous carcinoma Homologous OCS contains malignant stromal elements native to ovary, whereas heterologous OCS contains sarcomatous tissue not normally found in ovary, e.g., cartilage, osteoid, and rhabdomyoblasts
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Diabetic mastopathy least likely Painful Difficult to distinguish from tumour clinically Soft mass Thought to be autoimmune
* *LJS - painless hard mass (fibrotic), diffc ddx from ca clinically * AJL agree. ?bad recall (maybe was most likely?) Diabetic mastopathy least likely ``` WJI: Painful -false Difficult to distinguish from tumour clinically-true Soft mass-false Thought to be autoimmune-true ``` **SCS:Also ass/w autoimmune thyroid disease and Type 1 DM. ADB-RP Diabetic mastopathy manifests clinically as a large, painless, hard breast mass that is usually clinically indistinguishable from breast cancer.ts exact pathogenesis is poorly understood and likely multifactorial, possibly relating to an immunologic reaction,
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Least likely regarding male breast cancer Lobular comparatively more common than ductal when compared to females Papillary comparatively more common than in females 50% have lymph nodes at presentation
Lobular comparatively more common than ductal when compared to females - no Least likely regarding male breast cancer Lobular comparatively more common than ductal when compared to females no Papillary comparatively more common than in females 50% have lymph nodes at presentation - T SCS: robbins. -Dissemination follows the same pattern as in women, and axillary lymph node involvement is present in about HALF of cases at the time of diagnosis. -Kleinfelters ass/w male BC (3-8% of cases) -Incidence in men is only 1% of that in women. 4-14% attributed to BRCA2 ER positivity is more common in males
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Least likely post acute MI ``` Pericarditis Mitral valve prolapse Aortic valve prolapse Mural thrombus Myocardial rupture ```
Aortic valve prolapse no Least likely post acute MI ``` Pericarditis yes Mitral valve prolapse yes Aortic valve prolapse no Mural thrombus yes Myocardial rupture yes ```
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Most true regarding haemophilia Autosomal recessive Most commonly affects the shoulder Most common cause of death is HIV/AIDS Ballooning of the epiphyses
Ballooning of the epiphyses yes Most true regarding haemophilia Autosomal recessive no Most commonly affects the shoulder no Most common cause of death is HIV/AIDS no Ballooning of the epiphyses yes **SCS Overgrowth of both epiphyses and metaphyses (Erlenmeir flask appearance) due to hyperaemia. Gracile diaphyses.
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Most commonly associated with renal papillary necrosis NSAIDS Steroids
Most commonly associated with renal papillary necrosis NSAIDS yes Steroids Mnemonic: AD SPORT C (see radiopaedia, lists causes in deacending order of frequency). First two are analgesics and diabetes… Note a prior recall was similar, but in reverse asking which IS NOT a cause (renal arterial occlusion) where as renal vein thrombosis is….