Path Review Flashcards
(131 cards)
What are the six subtypes of ameloblastoma?
“PDF BAG”
Plexiform
Desmoplastic
Follicular
Basal Cell
Acanthomatous
Granular
Histology: Tumor islands with central cystic degeneration (stellate reticulum-like appearance) and “reverse polarization” of cells at the periphery of the tumor islands.
Ameloblastoma
Reverse polarity of nuclei is pathognmonic
Palisaded ameloblastlike cells and inner zone of triangular-shaped cells resembling stellate reticulum in bell stage
Follicular Ameloblastoma
Epithelium that proliferates in a fishnet pattern
Plexiform ameloblastoma
Radiolucency with multiloculated, soap-bubble appearance
Ameloblastoma
Solid or multicystic ameloblastoma. Tx?
Resection with 1cm margin and one anatomical barrier
Unicystic ameloblastoma. Tx?
Unicystic: enucleation and curettage +/- peripheral ostectomy or liquid nitrogen cryotherapy.
Mural subtype: consider resection with 1cm margin
Peripheral ameloblastoma. Tx?
Excision. Low to no chance for recurrence.
What is the 2/3rd rule of adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT)?
2/3 canine teeth
2/3 female
2/3 maxilla
2nd and 3rd decade of life
Pear-shaped radiolucency with speckled opaque foci, potentially associated with an impacted tooth (canine)?
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT)
Columnar epithelium in a duct-like pattern
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT)
Histology: Lisegang rings, psammomalike calcifications, amyloid
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) or Pindborg tumor.
If there are clear cells present, it is typically more aggressive with cortical perforation
Well-defined mixed radiolucent/radioopaque unilocular or multolocular lesion with a snowflake pattern (“driven snow” )
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) or Pindborg tumor.
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) or Pindborg tumor. Tx?
Resection with 1cm margins - generally has low recurrence. 14-20% recurrence with enucleation.
Triangular or pear-shaped radiolucency associated with an erupted tooth
Squamous odontogenic tumor (SOT). Presents similarly to AOT, except the tooth is erupted. Most common in the anterior maxilla and/or posterior mandible.
Variable-sized nests of cytologically bland squamous epithelium in a moderately cellular fibrous stroma
Squamous Odontogenic Tumor (SOT)
Predominance of stellate and spindle cells surrounded by mucoid material.
Odontogenic myxoma
Ill-defined radiolucent lesion with soap-bubble or honeycomb pattern, multilocular
Ameloblastoma
A mutation in which of the following genes is responsible for fibrous dysplasia?
a. GNAQ
b. GNAS
c. PTCH1
d. SH3BP2
e. RUNX2
b. GNAS
Mutations in GNAQ (A) are seen in conditions such as Sturge Weber Angiomatosis and blue nevi. PTCH1 (C) is mutated in sporadic cases of odontogenic keratocysts and more frequently in OKCs in the setting of Gorlin Syndrome. SH3BP2 (D) mutations are seen in Cherubism, RUNX2 (E) mutations are seen in Cleidocranial Dysplasia. RUNX2 is also referred to as CBFA1.
Which of the following statements regarding fibrous dysplasia is FALSE?
a. It is a tumor-like condition often diagnosed in childhood
b. Patients may present with expansion of one or more bones
c. It does not have any extra-skeletal (osseous) manifestations
d. Surgical recontouring should be avoided until skeletal maturity is achieved
e. All of the above are true
c. It does not have any extra-skeletal (osseous) manifestations
Some forms of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia have extra-skeletal manifestations. These include Jaffe Lichtenstein Syndrome (Café au lait pigmentation), McCune Albright Syndrome (Café au lait pigmentation + endocrine disturbances), and Mazabraud Syndrome (intramuscular myxomas).
An ossifying fibroma is most likely to be diagnosed in which of the following locations?
a. Anterior maxilla
b. Mandibular premolar-molar region
c. Anterior mandible
d. Maxillary premolar-molar region
e. Temporomandibular joint space
d. Maxillary premolar-molar region
- Patients with radiographic findings resembling florid cemento-osseous dysplasia but with generalized enlargement of the affected jawbones should be evaluated for which of the following conditions?
a. Cherubism
b. Multiple Myeloma
c. Cleidocranial dysplasia
d. Osteosarcoma
e. Paget’s Disease of Bone
e. Paget’s Disease of Bone
Late stage florid cemento-osseous dysplasia may present radiographically as hyperdense bony lesions resembling the “cotton wool” changes seen in Paget’s Disease of Bone.
A “ground-glass” pattern of bone may be seen in which of the following conditions?
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
c. Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
d. Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
e. Ossifying fibroma
a. Fibrous dysplasia
An 8-year-old female presenting with generalized maxillary enlargement, precocious puberty, and pigmented skin lesions should be evaluated for which of the following conditions?
a. Mazabraud Syndrome
b. Jaffe Lichteinstein Syndrome
c. McCune Albright Syndrome
d. Hyperparathyroidism Jaw Tumor Syndrome
e. Paget’s Disease of Bone
c. McCune Albright Syndrome
The question stem is describing the features of McCune Albright Syndrome, a form of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia which presents with café au lait skin pigmentations and endocrine disturbances. These endocrine disturbances most frequently manifest as precocious puberty.