Patho final Flashcards by Brandon Makowski

What is the primary modality of choice for most reproductive diseases/conditions?

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What STD can cause chronic osteomyelitis, affecting the long bones and skull?

Syphilis

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What is the modality of choice for imaging patients with gonorrhea?

US, CT, or Retrograde Urethrogram

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Which infectious reproductive disease may lead to fibrotic strictures in the urethra of men?

gonorrhea

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When benign prostatic hyperplasia is demonstrated on an IVP, how will it appear?

Smooth filling defect pushing bladder upward & Fish-hook or J-shaped appearance of ureters entering bladder

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What is the primary cause for benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Changes in sex hormone balance (decrease in testosterone)

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What is a common complication associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia?

Hydronephrosis, obstruction of urethra

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Which infectious reproductive disease may cause to pelvic inflammatory disease in women and lead to fibrous scarring of the fallopian tubes?

gonorrhea

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In which stage of syphilis will radiographic abnormalities begin to appear? What are some of the abnormalities that may be present?

Dilation of the ascending aorta (aneurysm) with linear calcification, chronic osteomyelitis showing bone destruction and sclerotic new bone formation, Charcot’s joint (destruction of weight bearing joints)

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hat is endarteritis and what infectious reproductive disease may cause it?

Inflammation of the lining of the aorta; syphilis

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Where are most prostate cancerous tumors located?

Peripheral zone of prostate

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When diagnosing carcinoma of the prostate gland, what type of protein value is seen elevated if cancer is present?

Elevated PSA value

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What is the most common site of metastasis of prostate cancer?

Bones (pelvis, thoracic/lumbar, femur, ribs)

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How is radiation therapy commonly administered to patients with carcinoma of the prostate gland?

Radioactive seed implantation (temporary or permanent)

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When prostate enlargement is visible on an IVU image, how can benign prostatic hyperplasia be differentiated from malignant prostate cancer?

Benign = smooth edged filling defect in bladder Malignant = irregular edged filling defect in bladder

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What is cryptorchidism?

Undescended testicle

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What is the principle determining factor for cryptorchidism?

? Low birth weight (premature birth)

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Testicles typically descent into the scrotum in which weeks of gestation?

28-40 weeks

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What is a patient that has suffered from cryptorchidism at higher risk to develop later in life?

Testicular cancer

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How does testicular torsion typically occur?

Connective tissue disorder or trauma

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Describe the difference between testicular torsion and epididymitis.

Torsion: twisting of the spermatic cord that cuts off blood flow
Epididymitis: inflammation of the epididymis (tube connecting testicles to vas deferens) causing increased blood flow to inflamed tissue

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What is the best imaging modality for differentiating between testicular torsion & epididymitis?
How will each of these conditions appear differently on the image?

Nuclear medicine (or color Doppler US):
Torsion: Decrease blood flow  decrease uptake  cold spot
Epididymitis: Increase blood flow  increase uptake  hot spot

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What is the most common location for metastasis from testicular tumors?

Kidneys

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What are the 2 types of testicular tumors and describe the differences?

Seminoma:
* Slow growing
* Affects men ages 30-40
* Responds well to radiation therapy
Non-seminoma (teratoma):
* Most common
* Fast growing
* Pure teratoma (one type of germ cell) – usually seen in boys before puberty
* Mixed teratoma (more than one type of germ cell) – seen in men ages 20-30

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What is the imaging modality of choice for demonstration of pelvic inflammatory disease?

Ultrasound

What are some of the main causes for pelvic inflammatory disease?

STD complications (chlamydia or gonorrhea), unsterile abortion, IUD complication, unprotected sex with multiple partners

What is the difference between a follicular ovarian cyst and a corpus luteum ovarian cyst?

Follicular Cyst: Follicle does not open and egg not released results in follicle filling with fluid Corpus Luteum Cyst: Egg released, but follicle closes trapping fluid and blood

What is a common complication to ovarian tumors?

Omentum cake: abnormal thickening of the greater omentum

What is the most common source of metastasis for ovarian tumors?

Breast, colon, or stomach

Where are uterine fibroids located in the uterus?

Within the myometrium (middle muscle layer) of the uterus wall

What is usually contained in a dermoid cyst (teratoma)?

Skin, hair, teeth, fatty tissue

What controls the growth of uterine fibroids?

estrogen

What age group is most susceptible for endometrial carcinoma and why?

Women over 50 (postmenopausal); shift in balance of estrogen and progesterone

List 2 risk factors associated with endometriosis.

Family hx, early menstruation, no children, abnormal menstrual cycle

What is the test is used for early detection of cervical cancer?

Pap smear

What is the most common cause of death in cervical cancer patients and why?

Renal failure; obstruction of ureters by large tumor = hydronephrosis

What is the most common form of breast cancer?

Invasive (infiltrating) ductal carcinoma

Name and describe the 4 forms of breast cancer discussed.

Invasive ductal carcinoma: starts in milk ducts of breast, break through the wall of duct and spreads into fatty tissue Ductal carcinoma in situ: cells that lined the milk ducts and stay there Invasive lobular carcinoma: begins in the milk-producing glands (lobules) Inflammatory breast cancer: cancer causes inflammation of entire breast, making skin look red and feel warm. Gives breast skin a thick, pitted appearance that looks like an orange peel.

Where does breast cancer begin?

Glandular tissue

What’s the most common location of breast cancer and why?

Upper outer quadrant; this is the last part of the breast to change over from glandular tissue to fatty tissue

What age group is most at risk for developing breast cancer?

Ages 44-60

What is known as an increase growth of glandular tissue in the male breast (benign)?

Gynecomastia

What percent of cases of breast cancer are found in men?

In ultrasound, how will the appearance of a cyst of the breast differ from a fibroadenoma?

Cyst – black (fluid filled) with white shadow Fibroadenoma – white (solid mass) with black shadow

Where are the majority of ectopic pregnancies located?

? In the fallopian tubes

Which vitamins are fat-soluble that can be stored in body tissues?

A, D, E, K

Which vitamins are water-soluble that cannot be stored and must be eaten on a regular basis to prevent deficiency?

B and C

Name the different types of Vitamin B

B1 – thiamine B2 – Riboflavin B3 – niacin B5 – pantothenic acid B9 – folic acid B12 – cobalamin

What condition is caused by a deficiency of B1? Name the different types and what systems it affects.

Beriberi Dry beriberi – affects peripheral nervous system Wet beriberi – affects cardiovascular system Infantile beriberi – weightloss, diarrhea, vomiting, pale skin, edema

Which condition is caused by a B3 deficiency and list the “4 D’s” associated with it?

Paliagra: Diarrhea, Dermatitis (reddening/scaling skin), Dementia (mental disorders), and Death

Who is most at risk for paliagra?

alcoholics

What condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C?

scurvy

What affects does scurvy have on bones?

Causes lack of bone and cartilage production in children with growing bones, causes osteoblast failure (osteoporosis), loss of bone mineral density (osteopenia)

What condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D?

Rickets

What vitamin deficiency is responsible for night blindness and decreased immunity?

Vitamin A deficiency

What vitamin deficiency is most common in infancy and leads to increased bleeding, bruising, & hematomas?

Vitamin K deficiency

What condition is caused by an increase in vitamin A or D? What are some of the affects?

Hypervitaminosis; Vitamin A: bone and joint pain, hair loss, itching, dry cracking lips, yellow/orange tint to skin, enlargement of liver and spleen Vitamin D: Calcium deposits in kidney, heart, stomach lining and bones

What are some of the effects of protein-calorie malnutrition?

Liver tissue is replaced by fatty tissue, edema and acites, dry, cracking skin, damage to mucosal lining of intestine, atrophy of the brain and thymus gland

What is the name of the autoimmune disease that causes body systems to attack healthy tissue leading to chronic inflammation and tissue damage? Who is most at risk?

Systemic lupus erythematosus; women ages 10-50

Melanoma most commonly metastasizes to where?

GI system

Name the condition where a child is born with 3 strands of chromosome 21.

Down Syndrome

Name some of the complications that accompany Down’s syndrome?

Congenital heart disease, duodenal obstruction, Hirschprung’s disease, increased chance of leukemia

What chromosomal condition that one of the two X chromosomes is missing one of the “arms”? Which gender is affected?

? Turner’s syndrome; females

What are some of the complications that are associated with turners syndrome?

Short stature, incomplete sexual development, horseshoe kidney, coarctation of the aorta, increased incidence of multiple autoimmune disorders

What condition is caused by a connective tissue disorder? What gene is defective? What are some of the complications?

Marfan’s syndrome; fibrillin-1; too much growth of long bones, dilated aorta leading to dissection aneurysm

Which rare condition does not allow the body to properly break down the amino acid phenylalanine and how does it affect the brain?

Phenylketonuria; dilation of ventricles

Which condition is caused by an enzyme deficiency and causes urine to turn dark brown/black with air hits it?

Alkaptonuria