Patho test 2 Flashcards

(248 cards)

1
Q

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is characterized by ____ levels of ADH in the absence of normal control mechanisms.

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An anterior pituitary adenoma usually causes ___ of hormones from the adenoma itself and ___ of hormones from the surrounding pituitary cells.

A

hypersecretion; hyposecretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Women who have gestational diabetes have ___ risk for type 2 diabetes later in life.

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An individual with type 1 diabetes who have the dawn phenomenon has a ___ blood glucose in the early morning than in the middle of the night.

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cretinism is caused by untreated congenital ___.

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In autoimmune diabetes, also called type ___ diabetes, pancreatic beta cells are destroyed by autoreactive ___.

A

1A ; cytotoxic T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Persons who have type 1 diabetes have a deficit of insulin and ____ and a relative excess of ___.

A

amylin ; glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In diabetes, microvascular disease refers to ____ whereas macrovascular disease refers to ___.

A

destruction of capillaries ; accelerated atherosclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some characteristics of cushings disease?

A

facial flush; moon face; purple striae, trunk obesity, thin extremities, easy bruising, pendulous abd.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Caused by a problem in the gland that secretes a hormone whose action is directed toward other tissues rather than to another gland

A

Primary endocrine disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cortisol excess causes

A

lipolysis and altered fat distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Reason why people with Cushings bruise so easily

A

excess cortisol causes proteins to break down and make small blood vessels fragile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Reason why people with Cushings have hyperpigmentation

A

ACTH excess causes excess production of MSH which stimulates melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Caused by a problem with a gland that secretes a hormone whose target tissues are another gland that it stimulates or suppresses.

A

Secondary endocrine disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It is the effects of having too much thyroid hormone, as seen with hyperthyoidism

A

thyrotoxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The effects of dangerously high levels of thyroid hormone

A

thyrotoxic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

S/S of thyrotoxic crisis

A

high fever, extreme tachycardia, and potential death from heart failure or cardiac dysrythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

caused by a problem in the hypothalamus of the posterior pituitary that decreases ADH release

A

neurogenic diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

caused by a problem in the kidney itself that causes insensitivity to ADH.

A

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults

A

acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Occurs with hypersecretion of growth hormone in children and adolescents whose epphyseal plates have not yet closed, so their big bones are able to grow

A

gigantism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lethargy, hyponatremia, perhaps seizure, decreased plasma osmolality, concentrated urine

A

SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lethargy, cold intolerance, hoarseness, nonpitting boggy edema around eyes, course hair, decreased body temperature

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, severe HA, diaphoresis, heat intolerance, weight loss, constipation.

A

pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Virilizations: lack of breast development, hirsutism, increased muscle bulk
adrenal adenoma causing hypersecretion of androgens in a woman
26
polyuria, decreased level of consciousness, kussmaul breathing, acetone smell of breath, hyperglycemia, decreased blood pH, ketonuria, glycosuria.
diabetic ketoacidosis
27
tachycardia, diaphoresis, tremor, pallor, confusion, decreased level of consciousness, perhaps seizure
hypoglycemia
28
hypertension, hypokalemia, increased blood pH, increased urine potassium
primary hyperaldosteronism
29
polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, increased appetite, weight loss, hyperglycemia, glycosuria
type 1 diabetes mellitus
30
polydipsia, nocturia, polyuria, hypernatrremia, increased plasma osmolality, large volume of dilute urine
diabetes insipidus
31
weakness, fatigue, hypotension, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, elevated ACTH
Addison Disease
32
Failure of the hypothalamus to secrete its usual hormones presents clinically as ___ disease.
pituitary
33
Tumors of chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla are called ____.
pheochromocytomas
34
Excessive water intake that decreases plasma osmolality by overwhelming the ADH mechanisms is called ___ diabetes insipidus.
dipsogenic
35
When necrosis or another problem in the anterior pituitary causes deficiency of all its hormones, the individuals has ___.
panhypopituitasism
36
Prolactin-secreting tumors in the ___ pituitary are called ___ in women, they cause ___.
anterior ; prolactinomas; galactorrhea (milk production not associated with childbirth).
37
Persons who have longstanding diabetes may develop hypoglycemia without the usual sympathetic nervous system manifestations, a condition called ___.
hypoglycemia unawareness
38
A person who has hypothyroidism can develop a nonpitting boggy edema called ___, that same term, when used with the word coma, indicates the ___ level of consciousness associated with severe hypothyroidism.
myxedema ; decreased
39
Type 1 diabetes often is diagnosed when the acute complication ____.
diabetic ketoacidosis.
40
Enlargement of the thyroid gland is called a ___ and is a response to increased stimulation by ___.
goiter ; TSH
41
Persons who have primary hyperparathyroidism are predisposed to form kidney ___.
stones
42
____ is caused by hypersecretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary, but the term ____ is used for any condition involving chronic exposure to excessive cortisol.
Cushing disease; Cushing syndrome
43
Two basic components of the pathophys behind type 2 DM?
insulin resistance ; pancreatic beta cell dysfunction
44
The risk for developing gonorrhea from intercourse with an infected heterosexual partner is great for
women
45
In the United States , the prevalence of syphilis is highest among
men
46
The rash of ___ syphilis is unusual because it appears ____ as well as on the torso.
secondary; on palms of hands and soles of feet
47
____ who develop chancroid infection usually are asymptomatic.
women
48
Persons who are symptomatic for chancroid infection develop...
painful genital ulcers and buboes
49
HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are associated with
anogenital cancer
50
HPV serotypes 6 and 11 are associated with _
genital warts
51
Trichomoniasis is caused by a
parasite
52
Trichomoniasis adheres to
squamous epithelium
53
Although trichomonas infection may be asymptomatic in men or women, women who have symptoms usually report
pruritis and a copious frothy discharge that smells very unpleasant
54
Genital warts are __ contagious and are caused by a ____
highly; virus
55
Persons who have HSV infection can transmit the virus
whether or not they have symptoms
56
An anaerobic spirochete
syphilis
57
circular, double stranded DNA virus that has numerous strains
HPV genital warts
58
gram-negative diplococci
gonorrhea
59
gram-negative intracellular bacterium
chylamydia
60
linear, double stranded DNA virus that has latent stage in neurons
herpes simplex virus
61
a painless ulcer with indurated edges
chancre
62
a painful, swollen abscessed lymph node
bubo
63
condylomata lacuminata are genital warts caused by
HPV
64
condylomata lata are flat warts characteristic of
syphilis
65
pubic lice that attach to hair and bite the skin for nourishment
crabs
66
mites that burrow into the skin to lay eggs
scabies
67
The bacteria that causes gonorrhea attach to host ___ cells of mucous membranes at the site of initial infection.
epithelial
68
Untreated genital gonococcal infection that spreads can cause ___ in men and ____ in women, both of which can lead to sterility.
epididymitis; pelvic inflammatory disease
69
Gonorrhea transmitted by an infected mother before or during birth typically manifests as an ____ infection in the neonate and develops 1 to 12 ____ after birth.
eye; days
70
excessive scratching of pruritic lesions such as from scabies or pubic lice can lead to
secondary infection
71
granulaoma inguinale, also known as ___ , is a chronic progressive destructive bacterial infection of genitals.
Donovanosis
72
The chronic STI lymphogranuloma venereum begins as infection of the genital ___ and then spreads to the ___ tissue.
skin; lymph
73
Hepatitis ____ definitely can be transmitted sexually, and hepatitis A and C may have the potential for sexual transmission also.
B
74
Typical lesions of genital herpes begin as painful ____ that break open and then crust over before they heal.
vesicles
75
Recurrent episodes of genital herpes typically are ____ severe and have ___ duration than the primary episode.
less; shorter
76
The most common manifestations a women with chlamydia can transmit to her infant
conjunctivitis and pneumonia
77
Much cardiovascular development occurs between weeks ___ of gestation; most congenital heart defects have begun to develop by the ___ week of gestation
4 to 7; 8th
78
The umbilical vein carries __ blood in fetal life
oxygenated
79
After birth, systemic vascular resistance ___ and the pulmonary vascular resistance ___
increases; decreases
80
Neonates have ____ cardiac reserve because they have ___ cardiac output and high oxygen demand.
little; high
81
Bluish color of mucous membranes and nail beds caused by presence of deoxygenated hemoglobin is called ____
cyanosis
82
Heart failure in children is ___ manifested by peripheral edema and neck vein distension
rarely
83
The most common congenital heart defect is ___ septal defect; many of these defects ___ close spontaneously.
ventricular; will
84
Fetal oxygenation occurs in the _______.
placenta
85
Pulmonary overcirculation caused by an uncorrected congenital heart defect causes the smooth muscle layer in the pulmonary arterial tree to _______ and the lumens to ______.
thicken; narrow
86
Failure in the endocardial cushions to fuse during fetal life causes an _______ canal defect and frequently occurs in children who have _______ syndrome.
atrioventricular; down
87
Underdevelopment of the left heart is termed _______ left heart syndrome.
hypoplastic
88
With transportation of the great arteries, the aorta arises from the _______ ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the _______ ventricle; unless additional defects are present, this defect is incompatible with _______ life.
right; left; extrauterine
89
The condition in which the pulmonary artery and the aorta are a single blood vessel is called _______ _______.
truncus arteriosus
90
Young children who develop _______ disease have vasculitis of unknown cause and often develop aneurysms of their _______ arteries that may regress as the condition resolves.
Kawasaki; coronary
91
Sustained hypertension in children often is associated with underlying _______ disease.
renal
92
The presence of parental obesity is associated with childhood _______.
obesity
93
Because fetal circulation bypasses the lungs, most blood entering the right side of the heart passes through ________ __________ and enters systemic circulation.
ductus arteriosus
94
Right to left shunting in fetal circulation occurs through what structure in fetal hearts not found normally in adult hearts?
Foramen ovale
95
an opening between the atria
foramen ovale
96
All structures of the fetal heart and vascular system are present by what week of fetal gestation?
8th
97
A fetal vessel that joins the pulmonary artery to the aorta (so fetal circulation bypasses the lungs) is called
ductus arteriosus
98
What structure connects the inferior vena cava to the umbilical vein in the fetus?
ductus venosus
99
Systemic vascular resistance in a fetus increases after birth as a result of severance of the umbilical cord (placenta was low-resistance) causing what structural change to occur in the infant's myocardium over time?
thickening of left ventricular myocardium.
100
During fetal life, the right and left ventricles have
equal thickness
101
During fetal life, systemic and pulmonary resistance is
the same
102
At what week of gestation do most congenital heart defects begin to develop?
8th
103
direction of blood shunt in ventricular septal defect
left to right
104
direction of blood shunt in tricuspid atresia
right to left
105
direction of blood shunt in coarctation of the aorta
no shunt
106
direction of blood shunt in atrial septal defect
left to right
107
direction of blood shunt in tetralogy of fallot
right to left
108
direction of blood shunt in pulmonic stenosis
no shunt
109
direction of blood shunt in patent ductus arteriosus
left to right
110
direction of blood shunt in aortic stenosis
no shunt
111
In fetal life, blood flows through the ductus arteriosus from the
pulmonary artery to the aorta
112
If the ductus arteriosus does not close after birth, blood flows from
the aorta to the pulmonary artery
113
a congenital heart defect that causes a right to left blood shunt is caused by
cyanosis and hypoxemia
114
clinical manifestations of a right to left blood shunt include
poor feeding and weight gain, dyspnea on exertion, fatigue.
115
A congenital heart defect that causes a left to right blood shunt is caused by
pulmonary overcirculation or acyanotic heart failure
116
clinical manifestation of a left to right blood shunt include
failure to thrive, dyspnea, tachypnea, frequent resp infections.
117
when blood pressure is high in the arms and low in the legs
coarctation of the aorta
118
this is a normal blood vessel during fetal life but is supposed to close at birth
ductus arteriosus
119
atrial septal defect causes this clinical manifestation
murmur
120
The typical murmur of TOF is a
pulmonary systolic ejection murmur.
121
cyanosis does not occur with
left to right shunts
122
If your patient complains of constipation, would hyperthyroidism by suspected?
No, everything is revved up
123
What is a manifestation of hypocalcemia
tetany
124
What is the most common cause of acromegaly
excess GH due to adenoma
125
hyperglycemia, hyperosmolar, non-ketotic
Type II DM
126
What is target organ for ACTH?
adrenal cortex
127
excessive secretion of GH in an adult can cause
hyperglycemia
128
The hypothalamus controls this by the direct involvement of regulating hormones
anterior pituitary gland
129
When calcium levels are high, this is increased and inhibits osteoclasts
thyrocalcitonin
130
Those taking cortisone for long periods and who suddenly stop will likely suffer from what due to what?
adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of adrenal cortex
131
What organ secretes renin
kidneys
132
42-year old prostitute who became sexually active at age 14 is at risk for developing what?
HIV
133
In BPH, enlargement of periurethral tissue of the prostate gland can cause...
obstruction
134
Hormones are known as
chemical messengers
135
Alterations in the conduction of impulses through the AV node lead to disturbances from where to where?
atria to ventricle
136
represents the inability of the circulation to adequately perfuse tissue
circulatory shock
137
hormones produced by the adrenal cortex
cortisol, aldosterone, androgens
138
the hormone that has an antidiuretic effect and whose chemical structure is similar to ADH?
oxytocin
139
the role played by the SA node
begins depolarization
140
Heart valves control
one-way flow
141
the vessels that represent most of the peripheral vascular resistance that controls BP?
arterioles and small arteries
142
two things that can cause an endocrine hormonal problem
overproduction and underproduction
143
substance that brings about the greatest increase in the rate of respiration
CO2
144
electrolyte changes in adrenal insufficiency
hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
145
tumor of chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla
pheochromocytoma
146
effects of pheochromocytoma
Epi and NE released causing paroxysmal hypertension
147
major problem in emphysema
alveoli are less able to recoil and expel air
148
cause of TB
mycobacterium
149
how PE is diagnosed
VQ scan or CT
150
hormones necessary for growth and development of female breast
estrogen and progesterone
151
hormones that have an affect on blood glucose
insulin, glucagon, cortisol, GH, epi
152
cortisol can increase risk for developing
diabetes
153
the posterior pituitary serves as a repository for which 2 hormones?
ADH and oxytocin
154
Where is ADH and oxytocin produced
hypothalamus
155
symptoms for Graves disease
exophthalmos, goiter, hyperthyroid state
156
A patient loses pituitary function, what hormones do you replace him with?
cortisol, ADH, and synthroid IV
157
The patient who loses pituitary function cannot recieve ACTh because
it doesn't last long in the blood.
158
QRS complex represents
ventricular contraction
159
in atrial systole, the valves are
open
160
atelectasis is
alveolar collapse
161
primary hypertension is
idiopathic
162
where are the pulmonary veins?
coming back to the left atrium
163
which age group is most likely to be carriers of the flu?
children
164
how does SARS differ from EBOLA?
SARS is airbone, Ebola is droplet.
165
How fast did SARS spread?
29 countries in a short spring/summer
166
consequence of aortic stenosis
left ventricular hypertrophy
167
common congenital heart defect
VSD
168
consequence of mitral stenosis
left atrial hypertrophy
169
the tendency of lung tissue to collapse inward all the time
elastic recoil
170
a heart murmur significantly affects
heart rate
171
most common cause of hypoxemia
ventilation-perfusion inequality
172
persons with obstructive resp disorders have most difficulty with
expiration
173
where is the pericardial space?
between the visceral and parietal pericardium
174
metabolic syndrome is very
common
175
s/s of metabolic syndrome
hypertension, high lipids, early hyperglycemia, overweight
176
At what age is SIDS most common?
3-4 months
177
what is the cause of diabetes insipidus?
lack of ADH
178
hypothyroidism in adults in called
myxedema
179
distended and torturous superficial veins in which blood has pooled because of damaged valves
varicose veins
180
ischemic pain in lower extremities that occurs while walking but disappears when resting
intermittent claudication
181
inflammatory disease of peripheral arteries that usually is associated with smoking
thromboangitis obliterans
182
vasospastic disease of peripheral arteries in which episodes of ischemia and pallor are followed by rubor and parasthesias
raynaud disease
183
inflammation of the membraneous sac that surrounds the heart
pericarditis
184
compression of heart by pericardial fluid
tamponade
185
Post-thrombotic syndrome is characterized by chronic persistent pain and ____ of a limb that had a deep venous thrombosis.
edema and ulceration
186
A major danger of DVT is development of ____ thromboembolism; a danger of an arterial thrombus is development of ____ thromboembolism.
pulmonary; systemic
187
Superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome occurs when a tumor or other mass ______ the SVC causing _____ in the upper extremities and head.
compresses; severe hypertension
188
Factors that cause primary hypertension increase peripheral vascular ____ and/or cause sustained _____ in blood volume.
resistance; increase
189
In HTN, the pressure-natriuresis relationship shifts so that the hypertensive individual excretes ___ sodium in the urine.
less
190
Persons who have uncomplicated hypertension usually have ____ signs and symptoms in addition to their elevated BP; treatment usually begins with _____.
no; lifestyle modifications
191
The term "dissecting aneurysm" means that blood enters an artery wall and _____
runs between the layers of the wall
192
Risk for MI increases with low blood levels of ___ and with high blood levels of ___
HDL; LDL
193
Cardiac valve damage in rheumatic fever is caused by ___ whereas cardiac valve damage in infective endocarditis is caused by ___.
an abnormal immune response; streptococci or other organisms
194
A clot in a blood vessel that breaks loose and circulates is called a
thromboembolis
195
Sluggish circulation from chronic venous insufficiency may cause a venous __________ ulcer.
stasis
196
Rapidly progressive hypertension with a diastolic pressure above 140 mmHg is called ____________ hypertension and can damage the ____________.
malignant; brain
197
Postural hypotension, also called ____________ hypotension , is a systolic blood pressure decrease of at least __ mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure decrease of at least __mmHg within 3 minuets of standing and is a significant risk factor for ___________.
orthostatic; 20; 10; falls
198
The risk factors for peripheral arterial disease are the same as the risk factors for _______; the risk factors for contrary artery disease are the same risk factors for _________.
atherosclerosis; atherosclerosis
199
Clot formation at the site of rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque causes tissue __________ , which leads to ________ if blood flow is not restored.
ischemia; infarction
200
Persons who are obese have decreased levels of ______, an antiatherogenic adipokine.
adiponectine
201
Tissue healing after myocardial infarction creates a noncontractile _______.
scar
202
The ischemic injury from a sudden blockage of a coronary artery can be exacerbated by _______ injury when blood flow is restored.
reperfusion
203
Acute rheumatic fever is characterized by carditis, acute migratory ________ , chorea, and _______ marginatum, which occur 1 to 5 weeks after streptococcal infection of the _______.
polyarthritis ;erythema; pharynx
204
Heart failure in which the cardiac output is increased but still insufficient to meet the body's oxygen and nutrient needs is called _______ heart failure.
high-output
205
Right atrial and right ventricular dilation and hypertrophy
tricuspid regurgitation
206
Left atrial hypertrophy and dilation
mitral stenosis
207
Left ventricular hypertrophy and dilation
aortic stenosis
208
Left atrial and left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy
mitral regurgitation
209
Nonspecific marker of inflammation measured to asses cardiac risk
CRP
210
Another term for Peinzmetal angina
variant
211
Blood clot that is attached to the endothelium in a blood vessel or cardiac chamber
thrombus
212
Valve cusps billow backward into valve opening when valve should be closed
prolapse
213
Acronym for type of lipoprotein that migrates into arterial walls in atherosclerosis
LDL
214
Acronym for elevated systolic blood pressure accompanied by normal diastolic blood pressure
ISH
215
Name three factors that promote venous thrombosis (triad of Virchow)
venous stasis, hypercoagulability, venous endothelial damage
216
involves persistently ischemic myocardium that undergoes metabolic adaptation to survive until perfusion is restored
myocardial hibernation
217
involves temporary loss of contractile ability after perfusion has been restored.
myocardial stunning
218
when the cardiac chambers are enlarged and the myocardium has decreased contractility
diastolic cardiomyopathy
219
when the cardiac chambers have decreased diastolic volume because the myocardium is rigid and noncompliant
restrictive cardiomyopathy
220
narrowing of a valve that impedes the forward flow of blood
valvular stenosis
221
incomplete closure of a valve which allows blood to leak backward through the valve
valvular regurgitation
222
a sudden weight gain of 2 lbs indicates a gain of
1 L of fluid
223
a complication of thyroid surgery
injury to parathyroid gland causing hypcalcemia and tetany
224
when kidneys don't receive enough ADH signals causing large amounts of dilute urine
diabetes insipidus
225
those with Addison disease typically complain of
lightheadedness when standing up
226
Addison disease involves the lack of
aldosterone and cortisol
227
a complication of diabetic autonomic neuropathy can cause
gastroperesis
228
diabetic nephropathy is manifested by
microalbuminuria
229
anorgasmia is disorder of
organsm
230
decreased libido is a disorder of
desire
231
dyspareunia is disorder of
sexual pain
232
hypoactive sexual desire is disorder of
desire
233
vaginismus is disorder of
sexual pain
234
ductal carcinoma in situ ____ progress to advanced breast cancer
dose not always
235
PID includes infection of
uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries
236
pain with sexual intercourse
dyspareunia
237
pain with defecation
dyschezia
238
polycystic ovary syndrome causes androgen and estrogen levels to be
increased
239
when the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis
phimosis
240
the foreskin is retracted and cannot be returned to its normal position over the glans penis
paraphimosis
241
prostate cancers grow
slowly
242
undescended testicles have an increased risk for
testicular cancer
243
stidor is high pitched sounds made during
inspiration
244
wheezing is high pitched sounds made during
expiration
245
alveolar collapse caused by gases being absorbed from alveoli that are obstructed
absorption atelectasis
246
alveolar collapse caused by external pressure on the alveoli
compression atelectasis
247
the pressure of the air in the pleural space is the same as barometric pressure because the air drawn into the pleural space during inspiration is forced back out during expiration
communication pneumothorax
248
the pressure of the air in the pleural space exceeds barometric pressure because air enters during inspiration but cannot exit during expiration
tension pneumothorax