Pathology Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

treatment of alcoholic hepatitis

A

glucocorticoids and pentoxyfylline (if active infection and steroids are contraindicated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 major risk factors for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

A

obesity, diabetes mellitus, hypertriglyceridemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

difference between NAFL and NASH

A

NASH has inflammation and ballooning of hepatocytes and can lead to liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment for NAFLD

A

weight loss of 10% body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment or NASH

A

pioglitazone, vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

vitamin E contraindication for NASH patients

A

diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

two mutations responsible for hereditary hemochromatosis

A

H282Y, H63D in HFE gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

role of HFE

A

downregulates transferrin when iron supplies are adequate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

impotence in males

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

unique symptoms of hereditary hemochromatosis

A

skin hyperpigmentation, diabetes, impotence in males, ECG abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what hereditary hemochromatosis patients should you get a liver biopsy from?

A

homozygotes who are over 40 or if elevated ALT/AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis

A

phlebotomy (goal ferritin <50)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

role of ceruloplasmin

A

binds copper so that it does not deposit in tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

unique symptoms of Wilson disease

A

dystonia, dysarthria, seizures, personality changes, psychosis, movement disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

diagnosis of Wilson disease

A

low ceruloplasmin, copper in urine, kayser-fleischer rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment of Wilson disease

A

trientine, zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

role of alpha-1 antitrypsin

A

inhibits elastase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

most common cause of genetic emphysema in adults

A

A1AT deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A1AT deficiency: effects in lung vs. liver

A

lung: loss-of-function, unopposed elastases –> damage to lung parenchyma
liver: gain-of-function, accumulation of misfolded A1AT in ER –> hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stains red on PAS stain

A

A1AT globules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what autoantibodies are found in autoimmune hepatitis?

A

ANA, ASMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

most commonly associated condition with autoimmune hepatitis

A

thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

treatment for autoimmune hepatitis

A

prednisone and azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts (microscopic bile ducts)

A

primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what autoantibodies are found in primary biliary cirrhosis?
AMA
26
target of AMAs in PBC
PDC-E2 (on membrane of biliary epithelial cells)
27
unique findings of PBC
AMA+, pruritis, xanthomas
28
ddx: steatorrhea
PBC, chronic pancreatitis, cancer in pancreatic head, somatostatinoma
29
ddx: prolonged PT
PBC
30
most commonly associated condition with PBC
Sjogren's
31
3-4x normal alk phos, elevated cholesterol
PBC
32
florid duct lesion: diagnosis, what is it
PBC; inflammatory changes around bile ducts
33
treatment for PBC
ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine
34
seroconversion in HepB infection
loss of HBeAg, development of HBeAb
35
treatment for chronic HepB
interferon, entecavir, tenofovir
36
sign of active hepC infection
hepC viral RNA
37
which hepatitis viruses cannot cause cirrhosis?
hepA&E
38
prophylactic treatment for varices that haven't bled yet
non-selective beta-blockers (propranolol, nadalol)
39
treatment for actively bleeding varices
octreotide (somatostatin analog)
40
pathophysiology of ascites
portal hypertension --> splanchnic arterial vasodilation --> decreased effective circulating volume --> activation of vasoconstrictor and antinatriuretic factors --> sodium and water retention
41
treatment for ascites
sodium-restricted diet, diuretics
42
fulminant liver failure
ACUTE liver failure characrerized by hepatocyte necrosis: coagulopathy, encephalopathy, cerebral edema
43
treatment for hepatic encephalopathy
lactulose and rifaximin
44
pregnant woman with pruritis during third trimester, jaundice: diagnosis and treatment
intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (IHCP); cholestyramine and urso (same treatment as PBC)
45
difference between pre-eclampsia and eclampsia
pre-eclampsia: HTN, proteinuria, edema | eclampsia: pre-eclampsia + seizures
46
treatment for acute fatty liver of pregnancy
urgent delivery
47
HELLP syndrome symptoms and treatment
hemolytic anemia, elevated liver tests, low platelets; urgent delivery
48
liver lesion associated with oral contraceptives
hepatic adenoma
49
liver lesion associated with history of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
cholangiocarcinoma
50
most common benign liver lesion
hemangioma
51
hemangioma: mechanism
congenital vascular malformations
52
diagnose: small benign lesion in liver caused by intrahepatic anomolous artery leading to hyperperfusion
focal nodular hyperplasia
53
only benign liver lesion with malignant potential
hepatic adenoma
54
confirmation test for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
alpha fetoprotein (AFP) >200
55
leading cause of hepatocellular carcinoma worldwide vs. US
worldwide: hepB US: hepC
56
bile secretion decreases with ________________
splanchnic nerve stimulation
57
diagnose: steady, right epigastric pain with fever, leukocytosis, tachycardic, normal liver panel, history of symptomatic gallstones
acute cholecystitis (inflammation of gallbladder)
58
what is Charcot's triad?
clinical syndrome of acute cholangitis consisting of fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain
59
what is acute cholangitis?
infection/stasis in biliary tract
60
what is primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)?
chronic progressive disorder characterized by inflammation, fibrosis, stricturing of medium/large ducts in intrahepatic/extrahepatic biliary tree --> liver failure
61
condition most commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
ulcerative colitis
62
diagnose: severe, constant pain that begins in mid-epigastrium and radiates to right shoulder/scapular area
gallbladder problem
63
where do cholangiocarcinomas usually develop?
perihilar region of biliary tree
64
major risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma
1. PSC 2. biliary cysts 3. biliary parasitosis 4. thorotrast
65
biliary condition most commonly associated with ulcerative colitis
primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
66
pruritis with cholangiocarcinoma: intrahepatic or extrahepatic?
extrahepatic
67
jaundice with cholangiocarcinoma: intrahepatic or extrahepatic?
extrahepatic
68
ddx: (CA) 19-9
cholangiocarcinoma, exocrine pancreatic cancer
69
major risk factors for gallbladder cancer
1. porcelain gallbladder 2. gallbladder polyps/adenoma 3. cholelithiasis (stones)
70
causes of acute pancreatitis
gallstones, alcohol, hypertriglyceridemia, scorpion venom, mumps, seat belt injuries, pancreas divisum
71
#1 cause of acute pancreatitis
gallstones
72
3 genetic causes of acute pancreatitis
PRSS1, CFTR, SPINK1
73
systemic response to acute pancreatitis
SIRS, ARDS, myocardial depression, renal failure, infection
74
treatment for acute pancreatitis
pain control, aggressive IV fluids
75
#1 cause of chronic pancreatitis
alcohol abuse
76
distinguishing features of chronic pancreatitis (compared to acute)
can be asymptomatic, amylase and lipase may be normal, patchy, pancreatic duct calcification
77
proteinaceous ductal plugs
chronic pancreatitis
78
autoimmune pancreatitis: pathogenesis, treatment
IgG4-related disease; corticosteroids
79
ddx: pancreatic mass
autoimmune pancreatitis, cancer
80
major risk factors for exocrine pancreatic cancer
cigarette smoking, chronic pancreatitis
81
symptoms of cancer in pancreatic head
painless jaundice, steatorrhea, weight loss
82
ovarian-like stroma that secretes mucin in pancreatic body or tail: diagnosis and treatment
mucinous cystic neoplasm; surgical resection due to risk of malignancy
83
what kind of intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN) has risk of malignancy?
main duct
84
pancreatic lesion lined by glycogen-rich cells originating from acinar cells with central scar
serous cystadenoma
85
pancreatic NET that can cause venous thrombosis
glucagonoma
86
symptoms of somatostatinoma
diabetes mellitus, cholelithiasis, steatorrhea
87
symptoms of VIPoma
"pancreatic cholera"=watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria
88
anti-mitochondrial antibodies
PBC
89
anti-smooth muscle antibodies
autoimmune hepatitis
90
thorotrast-associated liver tumors
angiosarcoma and cholangiosarcoma