Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Y1 PRINCIPLES > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

(78 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Pathogenesis is defined as…

A

The sequence of events from a healthy state to clinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Some sequelae of coronary artery thromobosis are? (5)

A

Myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, ischaemia, angina, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Causes of acute inflammation…(5)

A

Bacterial and viral infections
Hypersensitivity
Trauma
Chemicals and irritants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Physical characteristics of inflammation include…(5)

A

Redness (RUBOR), heat (CALOR), swelling (TUMOUR), pain (DOLOR), loss of function (GALEN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Redness and heat assoc with inflammation is due to…

A

Vasodilation within the damaged area, causing increased blood flow and as a result skin temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cellular pathological changes…(5)

A

WBC margination, rolling, activation, adhesion, trans endothelial migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Necrosis is defined as…

A

(premature) Cell death (ALWAYS PATHOLOGICAL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Apoptosis is defined as… It is useful because…

A

Programmed cell death

Get rid of damaged, dead cells and debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Resolution is complete restoration of inflamed tissue. Factors favouring this include…

A

Minimal cell death/damage
Occurrence in an organ/tissue with good regenerative capacity
Short duration/rapid destruction of causal agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Suppuration is…

An empyema is…

A

The formation of pus, made up of living cells, dying cells, dead neutrophils, debris and bacteria

Pus fills and walls off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Organisation of tissues after inflammation is their replacement by _____ tissue

A

Granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe how granulation tissue is formed?

A

Capillaries grow into the inflammatory exudate with macrophages and fibroblasts (LOOKS V RED - IMMATURE BVs)
Angiogenesis, fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis (forms scars) occurs
Processes regulated by GFs (TNF, EGF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Permanent cells are more susceptible to mutations. True/False?

A

False

Dividing cells are more susceptible - e.g. skin, gut, bone, hair cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

p53 is important in DNA repair. What does it do?

A

Recognises a base pair sequence alteration and triggers cell death or DNA repair when the DNA is damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Free radicals are dangerous to membrane integrity. What do they do?

A

Lipid peroxidation - bind to lipids and reduce their solubility
Broccoli and cabbage have high anti-oxidants that scavenge and destroy free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An example of an area where liquefactive necrosis would occur?

A

Transformation into liquid viscous mass

Brain Liquid myelin sheath of nerve fibres remains after brain substance dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An example of caseous necrosis?

A

Soft, white, cheese-like tissue

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An example of an area where fibrinoid necrosis would occur?

A 
Blood vessels (most common in liver) CIRRHOSIS
Walls replaced by fibrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is coagulative necrosis? Where is it commonly found?

A

Cell death with structures left as ghost outline — phagocytosis - common in cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The 3 phases of acute inflammation are:

A

Vascular - vasodilation and increased permeability Exudative - fluid and cells escape from venules
Cellular - neurophils etc accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens in transendothelial migration?

A

Neutrophils insert part of their cytoplasm into endothelium when they come into contact with ICAM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the effect of histamine? What is it released by?

A

Vasodilation, increases vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction
Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chronic inflammation is associated with the presence of…

A

Lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells

Formation of granulation tissue -> fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Characteristic appearances of chronic inflammation include…

A

Ulcer formation
Abscess cavities/suppurative inflammation Granulomatous inflammation
Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A granuloma is defined as...
An aggregate of epitheloid histiocytes (macrophages etc) | Collection of immune cells form when FB walled off but cant be eliminated
26
Labile cells are cells that only multiply upon receiving a stimulus. True/False?
False | Multiply continually - stable cells only multiply after stimulus
27
First intention healing is when there is an ulcerated surface. True/False?
False | Surgical scar is left - minimal granulation tissue and fibrosis
28
Metabolic disorders are of two types - ?
Inherited or acquired
29
Inherited metabolic disorders are usually autosomal dominant. True/False?
False | AR
30
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is insulin dependent. True/False?
True
31
Type 1 Diabetes has no autoimmune assoc. True/False?
False Type 2 has no autoimmune assoc.
32
Hyperplasia is defined as...
Enlargement due to increase in cell number
33
Hypertrophy is defined as...
Enlargement due to increase in cell size (no increase in cell number)
34
Atrophy is defined as...
Reduction in size due to decrease in cell size and number
35
Hypoplasia is defined as...
Reduced size of an organ that never fully developed to normal size (failure of organ development)
36
Which out of hyperplasia, hypoplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy are potentially reversible?
Hyperplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy
37
Metaplasia is defined as...
Altered differentiation, where a mature cell type transforms into another cell type
38
In Barrett's oesophagus, ____ epithelium is replaced by ____ epithelium
Squamous, glandular
39
Stable cells divide upon stimulation. Examples include...(2)
Hepatocytes | Fibroblasts
40
Permanent cells are not able to divide further. Examples include...(3)
Neurones Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle
41
Senescence is defined as...
Deterioration of function of cells - typically with age
42
Some characteristics of benign neoplasms (5)
``` Resemble normal No invasion Well differentiated Normal mitotic figures DO NOT METASTASISE ```
43
Some characteristics of maligant neoplasms (6)
``` Invasive (goes beyond basement membrane) Varied differentiation Abnormal mitotic figures Necrosis is common Pleomorphism (varying sizes of nucleus) Hyperchromasia (dark staining nucleus) ```
44
What is dysplasia?
A pre-malignant process that involves altered differentiation Carcinoma-in-situ = highest grade dysplasia
45
Carcinomas are derived from mesenchymal cells/tissues. True/False?
False | Derived from epithelial tissue
46
Sarcomas are derived from which type of tissue?
Mesenchymal tissue
47
Squamous papillomas and adenomas are examples of which neoplasms?
Benign
48
Neoplastic cells are monoclonal. What does this mean?
All cells in the lesion are derived from a single common ancestor
49
What are Weinberg Hallmarks of cancer cells? (8)
Angiogenesis, cellular DNA spell checking, achieve immortality, invasion, avoid apoptosis, avoid spell checking, remove tumour suppressors, increase oncogenes
50
What is angiogenesis?
Formation of new blood vessels
51
What happens when angiogenesis becomes pathological?
Control of formation is lost - vessels formed are abnormal
52
What are the modulators of angiogenesis? (3) What is the inhibitor? (1)
Hypoxia, VEGF, TNFa | Thrombospondin-1 is the inhibitor
53
Sarcomas metastasise by which route?
Haematogenous
54
How can radiation cause cancer?
Causes oxidative stress, producing free radicals which damage DNA and other cells
55
Name some examples of classical oncogenes (stimulate cell division) (4)
VEGF PDGF ras src
56
Name some examples of tumour suppressor genes (3)
p53 BRCA-1 p22 (inhibits CDK)
57
A daughter with mother with breast cancer at aged 70 is an example of a medium risk patient. True/False?
False | Low risk
58
An individual with a BRCA1 mutation is an example of a high risk patient. True/False?
True
59
Well differentiated tumours tend to have a better prognosis. True/False?
True
60
What is microsatellite instability?
Regions where it is easy to identify spelling mistakes that shouldn't be there
61
The main cancers found in children are...(3)
Brain Bone Blood
62
``` What type of tissue are the following tumours derived from.... Liposarcoma/lipoma Oseosarcoma/osteoma Enchondroma/chondrosarcoma Rhabdomyosarcoma/rhabdomyoma Leiomyosarcoma/leiomyoma Leukaemia/lymphoma ```
``` Fat Bone Cartilage Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle Blood ```
63
Describe the pathogenesis of atheroma? (6)
1. Endothelial injury 2. Cholesterol accumulates 3. Oxidise to produce and inflam response using neutrophils 4. Macrophages attempt to phagocytose cholesterol ----foam cells ---- fatty streak 5. Endothelium ruptures exposing collagen cap and platelets aggregate together = platelet plug 6. Chemical changes occur: fibrinogen --- fibrin = thrombus
64
Complications of atheroma...(5)
``` Thrombosis Aneurysm Dissection Embolism Ischaemia ```
65
What are the components of Virchows triad? (3)
Endothelial wall injury Blood flow stasis/ turbulence Increased hypercoagubility
66
Layout the basic coagulation cascade...
EXTRINSIC (trauma) INTRINSIC (damaged surface) activation of factors prothrombin ----- thrombin fibrinogen ----- fibrin CLOT
67
Consequence of increased coagubility....(4)
Arterial thrombus (white) Venous thrombus (red) DVT PE
68
Duke's Stage A means...
Cancer is confined to wall
69
Duke's Stage B means...
Cancer penetrates wall
70
Duke's Stage C means...
Lymph node metastasis
71
Duke's Stage D means...
Metastatic disease
72
T1 staging means...
Invasion of submucosa
73
T2 staging means...
Invasion of muscularis propria
74
T3 staging means...
Invasion of tissues
75
T4 staging means...
Invasion of nearby organs
76
N0 staging means...
No lymph node metastasis
77
N1 staging means...
1-3 lymph nodes affected
78
N2 staging means...
4+ lymph nodes affected

Y1 PRINCIPLES (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions