Pathology Flashcards

(116 cards)

1
Q

Describe connective tissue diseases

A

Autoimmune conditions - autoantibodies present
Starts an inflammatory process leading to symptoms
May be associated with hypersensitivity
Affects 1-2% of the population

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2
Q

How do connective tissue diseases present

A

Often with MSK symptoms

Many also come with systemic symptoms

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3
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis

A

Inflammation of the joint caused by rheumatoid factor and an autoantibody against Fc IgG

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4
Q

What happens in the acute phase of RA

A

Pannus formation - granular tissue forms on articular surfaces
Hyperplastic and reactive synovium

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5
Q

How is cartilage affected by RA

A

It is destroyed by the inflammatory process

This leads to a loss of joint space

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6
Q

What happens in chronic phase of RA

A

Fibrosis occurs

This can lead to joint deformity

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7
Q

What is SLE

A

Systemic Lupus Erythema

A systemic autoimmune condition

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8
Q

What is the cause of SLE

A

Autoantibodies are formed that attack the structural parts of DNA
Most specific is anti-double stranded DNA but may be other types (anti-RO etc)

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9
Q

What are the acute features of SLE

A

Oedema
Fibrin
Reactive features in the synovial cells

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10
Q

How is uric acid formed in the body

A

The end product of purine synthesis

So formed in the production of adenine and guanine - during DNA synthesis

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11
Q

What can lead to increased production of uric acid

A
Idiopathic - unknown enzyme defect 
Know defect - LN syndrome 
Increased cell turnover - e.g. psoriasis or cancer 
Alcohol 
High dietary purine - red meat etc
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12
Q

What can cause reduced excretion of uric acid

A

Drug side effects
Common with thiazide diuretics
Hypothyroidism
Chronic renal impairment

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13
Q

What causes gout

A

Precipitation of urate crystals, usually in joints

This elicits an acute inflammatory response leading to symptoms

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14
Q

What is gouty tophus

A

Deposition of urate crystals in the soft tissues

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15
Q

The presentation of gout is dependant on the level of urate in the body - true or false

A

False

Not necessarily related to level, more dependant on the solubility of the crystals

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16
Q

What are some complications of gout

A

Can cause secondary degenerative changes in the joint
Deposition in soft tissues (gouty tophus)
Can lead to renal disease

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17
Q

How would you diagnose gout

A

Take an aspirate of joint fluid and examine under a cross polarized light to look for the negatively bifrigent needle shaped crystals
Can also look for raised inflammatory markers and serum uric acid - not specific enough
Link to renal impairment - kidney tests

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18
Q

What causes pseudogout

A

Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint
May be associated with hypercalcemia, haemochromatosis, hyperthyroidism etc
Age also contributes

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19
Q

Where does pseudogout usually affect

A

older individuals
in the large joints
Affects fibrocartilage

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of pseudogout

A

May present with joint pain
Usually asymptomatic and is an incidental finding on x-ray
Will have raise in inflammatory markers

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21
Q

what do calcium pyrophosphate crystals look like

A

Rhomboid shaped

Thicker and bigger than urate

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22
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone

A

Caused by abnormality of bone turnover
Increase in osteoclastic activity
Get more bone but not normally structured - often weaker but thicker
Can affect all bones

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23
Q

What can cause Paget’s

A

Unknown
May have genetic component
Can be caused by viral infection

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24
Q

How does Paget’s present

A

Pain - due to fracture or nerve compression
Enlargement of bones leading to abnormal shape
Increased metabolism – heat in area

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25
What are some complications of Paget's
Heart failure - due to high metabolic requirement | Increased risk of malignancy
26
What is Osteomalacia
Abnormal vitamin D metabolism Bones become weaker Causes rickets in children
27
What LFT results may suggest Paget's
Raised Alk Phos | Everything else normal
28
What can a pathological fracture be a sign of
Underlying bone pathology Osteoporosis is most common cause Potentially malignancy
29
What is a pathological fracture
When a fracture occurs with a non-severe trauma | So injury is out of proportion with event
30
Describe the initial phases of bone repair after a break
Haematoma – fibrin mesh Influx of inflammatory cells Cytokine release After 1 week a callus forms and remodelling begins
31
How does bone heal after the initial phase
Woven bone starts to be deposited next to the cortical bone Some cartilage is deposited at the break site which later undergoes ossification Woven bone is remodelled to return bone to normal
32
Why might healing of a bone be delayed
Poor blood supply and poor nutrition. | Too much movement, Too great a distance
33
Which cancers commonly metastasise to bone
Lung Kidney Breast Prostate
34
What is avascular necrosis
Infarction of bone | Leads to necrosis of tissue
35
How does avascular necrosis present
Usually asymptomatic | May lead to hip replacement once joint is severely damaged
36
What can cause avascular necrosis
``` Trauma Alcohol Steroid injections Sickle cell Infection ```
37
What can cause degenerative diseases like osteoarthritis
Mechanical injury Wear and tear with age Secondary to previous joint issues
38
What joint changes occur in degenerative disease
Small cracks in cartilage Fibrillation Cartilage is completely worn away and surface of bone becomes polished Cysts form in the bone due to leaking synovial fluid Bone remodelling leads to abnormal outgrowths - osteophytes
39
What genetic investigation can be used to diagnose MSK lesions
Karyotyping - gives overview of chromosome structure -- good for large, more obvious mutations FISH - detects more subtle, specific mutations - used for known translocations
40
How does immunohistochemistry work
You place a pigment or florescent tag onto an antibody for a specific protein If the protein is present in the cell type it will show up
41
What are ganglion cysts
Caused by degenerative change within connective tissue Presents as a lump that does not go away In peripheral areas, near a joint capsule or tendon sheath Common on wrist
42
Ganglion cysts are not true cysts - true or false
True | The do not have an epithelial lining
43
What are superficial fibromatoses
Due to proliferation of fibroconnective tissue Common condition Occurs in the hand, feet and penis (rarely)
44
What is dupuytren's contracture associated with
Alcohol | Anticonvulsants
45
What is Dupuytren's contracture
Superficial fibromatosis in the hand Caused one finger to become drawn to palm - excess tissue tightens Usually idiopathic
46
What is deep fibromatosis
Deep seated fibromatosis that occurs in more visceral areas Often in the mesentery or pelvis Comes with increased risk of colon cancer as associated with FAP
47
What are the different types of Giant cell tumour
Pigmented villonodular synovitis Giant cell tumour of the tendon sheath Giant cell tumour of the bone
48
Describe pigmented villonodular synovitis
Occurs in the synovium of large joints Can spread out with the joint Most destructive and diffuse GST Difficult to excise and will often recur
49
Describe giant cell tumours of the tendon sheaths
Small nodules Occur in the digits common and benign Easily excised
50
Name the different types of lipoma
Fibrolipoma- contain lots of fibrous tissue Angiolipoma – contain blood vessels Spindle cell lipoma - contain spindle cell Pleomorphic – cells look odd Atypical lipoma
51
What is a lipoma
A fat tumour
52
What are the most common MSK causes of painful lumps in the superficial tissue
``` Angiolipoma Neuroma (traumatic) Glomus tumour (nail beds etc.) Eccrine spiradenoma (skin adnexal tumour) Cutaneous leiomyoma ```
53
What tumours can occur in the smooth muscle
Leiomyomas - common and benign Leiomyosarcoma - malignant version, uncommon Can occur anywhere in the body
54
What are tumours of skeletal muscle called
Rhabdomyomas Benign lesions Very rare
55
What are rhabdomyosarcomas
Malignant tumours of skeletal muscle Can occur in GU tract or bile duct in childhood Hard to diagnose
56
What are enchondroma
Benign cartilage tumours | Common in the digits
57
What are chondrosarcoma
Tend to affect older population - 40-50s | Common in the axial skeleton
58
What are common benign tumours of the bone
Osteoma - common in cranial bones | Multiple tumours can occur in Gardner's syndrome
59
Describe malignant tumours of the bone
osteosarcoma Usually in paediatrics Affects the long bones
60
What is Ewing's sarcoma
``` Malignant cells that can appear in any soft tissue or bone Small round blue cell tumours Most common in children and adolescents Destructive and highly malignant Unknown origin ```
61
What is nodular fasciitis
Rapid growth that can effect any age Sometimes occurs after trauma Chaotic appearance with large atypical cells Haemorrhage is common
62
What is myositis ossificans
Lesion that occurs after preceding trauma | Affects the big muscles
63
Which joints does gout most often occur in
Peripheral joints Thought to be due to lower temperatures allowing crystals to precipitate Big toe is the commonest site
64
How common is gout in the UK
Prevalence of 1.4% increasing due to obesity More common in women Rare before menopause
65
Why is gout uncommon before menopause
Oestrogen has a protective effect as it promoted uric acid excretion
66
How does acute gout present
Monoarthropathy - pain and inflammation Swollen, red joint Abrupt onset Will settle in 10 days without treatment or 3 with
67
How do you treat acute gout
NSAIDs - diclofenac, naproxen Use for symptom control until it self-resolves Colchicine - used if they cannot take NSAIDs Steroids - oral or injected into joint (very effective) Stop diuretics as can precipitate and switch to a new drug
68
What can be used for prophylactic treatment of gout
Allopurinol Febuxostat Cover with NSAID for symptom control - stop after 6 weeks Stop diuretics if possible Lifestyle changes - lose weight, less alcohol and red meat
69
When do you use prophylactic treatment for gout
If the patient has 2 or more acute attacks in a year Start 2-4 weeks after attack If they have tophi If they have renal impairment or history of renal calculi Those with HF on diuretics who keep getting gout
70
How do you treat pseudogout
NSAIDS Colchicine Steroids Rehydration
71
What causes Milwaukee shoulder and what are its effects
Deposition of hydroxyapatite crystals in or around joint More common in women Get an acute and fast deterioration of joint
72
How do you treat Milwaukee shoulder
NSAIDs Intra-articular steroid injection Physiotherapy Partial or total arthroplasty
73
What is soft tissue rheumatism
Term used to describe pain caused by inflammation/damage to ligaments/tendons/muscles/nerves near a joint Pain is confined to specific site
74
what are some common causes of soft tissue rheumatism in the shoulder
``` Adhesive Capsulitis Rotator cuff tendinosis Calcific tendonitis Impingement Partial rotator cuff tears Full rotator cuff tears ```
75
How do you investigate soft tissue pain
Usually tests are not necessary X-ray if suspect calcific tendonitis MRI if it doesn't settle
76
How do you treat soft tissue pain
``` Pain control Rest and Ice compressions Physio Steroid injections Surgery ```
77
Who commonly has joint hypermobility syndrome
More common in women Usually presents in childhood or 3rd decade Associated with some rare genetic conditions -e.g. Marfan's
78
How does joint hypermobility syndrome present
Arthralgia - pain Premature osteoarthritis Can be generalised or localised Investigations will be normal
79
How do you treat joint hypermobility syndrome
Physio | Patient education
80
What abnormalities can cause intoeing
Femoral neck anteversion Internal Tibial Torsion Metatarsus adductus Can be a combination
81
What is femoral neck anteversion
When the femur is orientated more anteriorly than normal | Usually doesn't cause major issues, just slight knee problems or intoeing
82
What is internal tibial torsion
inward twisting of the tibia | Seen in 1-3 y/o and usually resolves by age 6
83
What metatarsus adductus
Common and benign deformity Usually resolves but may need casting Front of foot curves inwards
84
What is meant by flat feet
No defined arch in foot - should have developed in childhood Usually asymptomatic Can be flexible or fixed
85
Osteopenia is defined as a T-score of what?
Between −1 and −2.5 SD | The T-score is the number of SD (standard deviations) below the mean BMD of young adults at their peak bone mass
86
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate initial treatment in general practice for giant cell arteritis in a patient presenting with visual manifestations
Prednisolone 60 mg daily
87
Why might a serum urate level be normal in acute gout
During an acute attack most of the uric acid is deposited in the joints and therefore serum levels can be completely normal or even low Should repeat test a week after the episode has settled
88
Why shouldn't you start allopurinol or other urate lowering drugs during acute gout
Any sudden changes in uric acid levels can precipitate further attacks of gout or prevent the acute episode from settling down
89
What other diagnosis must be ruled out if you suspect gout
Septic arthritis Presents similarly If really unsure treat as sepsis until proven otherwise
90
An acute presentation is suggestive of which rheum diseases
Acute = less than 6 weeks | Gout, septic arthritis etc.
91
A chronic presentation is suggestive of which rheum diseases
Chronic = over 6 weeks | RA, psoriatic arthritis etc
92
How does a rheum issue within the joints present
Pain, swelling, stiffness and limitation of movement
93
How does a rheum issue within the muscle present
myositis or myopathy | Pain in affected muscle, weakness, wasting if prolonged, no stiffness
94
How does a rheum issue within the soft tissue present
Localised pain, joint will function normally, only some movement affected. Includes rotator cuff issues, trochanteric bursitis, epicondylitis.
95
Which rheum diseases are more likely to complain pf widespread pain rather than localised
Autoimmune issues or fibromyalgia
96
Which MSK conditions typically involve the spine
OA, spondyloarthropathies
97
Pain in RA is always constant - true or false
False | Whilst this is the most common presentation you can get palindromic RA which presents with intermittent pain
98
What is a monoarthropathy and give examples
Disease affecting one joint | Gout, reactive arthritis, septic etc
99
What is a oligoarthropathy and give examples
Disease affecting between 1-4 joints Reactive arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic (seronegative spondylarthropathy)
100
What is a monoarthropathy and give examples
Disease affecting more than 4 joints | OA or RA
101
RA is typically symmetrical - true or false
True
102
List common symptoms of chronic pain syndromes
Poor sleep pattern, headaches, low mood or anxiety, IBS, irritable bladder, muscle spasms, brain fog
103
Which type of pain is worse at rest
Inflammatory pain
104
Which type of pain is worse on movement
Mechanical
105
Prolonged early morning stiffness (>1 hour) is suggestive of what
Inflammatory process
106
Alcohol use is associated with which joint issue
Associated with gout
107
Which MSK symptoms can be caused by statins
Muscle pain | tendon tears and tenosynovitis
108
Which MSK symptoms can be caused by gliptins and tamoxifen
Arthralgia
109
Which MSK symptoms can be caused by checkpoint immunotherapy (e.g. in cancer)
Arthritis
110
Which MSK symptoms can be caused by quinolones
tendon tears and tenosynovitis
111
Which MSK symptoms can be caused by diuretics
Gout - they reduce urate excretion
112
Which MSK symptoms can be caused by beta-blockers
Raynaud's
113
HLA diseases can run in families - true or false
True | Things like RA etc
114
Methotrexate is hepatotoxic - true or false
True | Be careful in alcoholics
115
Ankylosing spondylitis progresses slower in smokers - true or false
False | Progresses more rapidly
116
Why is menstrual history relevant in MSK/rheum histories
Gout is rare pre-menopause OA can be worse during or after menopause Early menopause increases risk of osteoporosis