Pathology and Infection Flashcards
(223 cards)
1
Q
Name 3 early pregnancy disorders
A
- Spontaneous abortion
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Gestational trophoblastic disease
2
Q
Name 3 late pregnancy disorders
A
- Disorders of placentation
- Pre-eclampsia / Eclampsia
- Amniotic fluid embolism
3
Q
What percentage of recognised pregnancies terminate in spontaneous abortion?
A
10-15% of recognised pregnancies terminate in spontaneous abortion
4
Q
What are the foetal causes of spontaneous abortion?
A
- Genetic abnormalities e.g. Aneuploidy, Trisomy 18, Trisomy 16
- Infection (TORCH)
- Defective implantation inadequate to support foetal development
5
Q
What are the maternal causes of spontaneous abortion?
A
- Inflammatory disease
- Uterine abnormalities
6
Q
What is it called when there is implantation of the foetus in any site other than the normal uterine location?
A
Ectopic pregnancy
7
Q
How often do ectopic pregnancies occur?
A
Occurs 1 in 150 pregnancies
8
Q
What is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy?
A
Fallopian tube
9
Q
Name a predisposing condition to ectopic pregnancy
A
Pelvic inflammatory disease
10
Q
What are the following clinical features a sign of:
- Severe abdominal pain at approx 6 weeks post LMP
- Tubal rupture →pelvic haemorrhage→Acute Abdomen
- Medical Emergency –Cardiovascular shock
- Diagnosed: Serum ßhCG
A
Ectopic pregnancy.
Side note: These pregnancies are always non-viable.
11
Q
What disease does this describe: “Spectrum of tumours and tumour-like conditions characterised by the proliferation of pregnancy-associated trophoblastic tissue.”
A
Gestational trophoblastic disease
12
Q
Name the 3 types of molar pregnancy
A
- Complete hydatidiform mole
- Partial hydatidiform mole
- Choriocarcinoma
13
Q
What do the following factors put a pregnant patient at risk of?
- Age: >40 years; <20 years
- Previous gestational trophoblastic disease
- Diet deficient in Vitamin A
- Blood group A woman and group O man
A
Molar pregnancy
14
Q
How may a clinician detect the early development of persistent trophoblastic disease?
A
It is possible by monitoring the circulating levels of hCG to determine the early development of persistent trophoblastic disease
15
Q
What are the following clinical presentations associated with during pregnancy:
- Uterus large for dates
- Hyperemesis
- 1st trimester vaginal bleeding
- Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis
- Theca lutein cysts
A
Complete hydatidiform mole
16
Q
Complete moles cause markedly elevated levels of _____?
A
Complete moles cause markedly elevated levels of ßhCG. This information is used in diagnosis.
Additionally, ALL the villi of the placenta have oedema. No foetus is seen. The karyotype is also 46 XX/ 46 XY
17
Q
What percentage of complete hydatidiform moles progress to choriocarcinoma?
A
2% of complete moles progress to choriocarcinoma
18
Q
What are the following clinical features associated with during pregnancy:
- Elevated levels of ßhCG
- Normal villi + some oedematous villi
- Minimal trophoblastic proliferation
- May contain foetal parts
- Karyotype: Triploid
- V. rare progression to choriocarcinoma
A
Partial hydatidiform mole
19
Q
What is the malignant epithelial neoplasm of trophoblastic cells that can develop from hydatidiform moles known as?
A
Choriocarcinoma.
50% of cases arise from hydatidiform moles.
22% from normal pregnancies.
20
Q
What are the treatments of choriocarcinoma?
A
- Surgery
- Chemotherapy
21
Q
Name two placental disorders of implantation
A
- Placenta Praevia
2. Placenta creta
22
Q
What is the implantation of the placenta over the internal cervical os known as?
A
Placenta praevia
23
Q
What are 2 risk factors of placenta praevia?
A
- Prior C-section
- Pregnancy termination
- Smoking
24
Q
Name 2 complications of placenta praevia
A
- Difficulty in delivery
2. Postpartum haemorrhage
25
Name the disorder that this definition describes: "A rare disorder in which the chorionic villi are immediately adjacent to the myometrium to a varying degree."
Placenta Accreta
26
Placenta accreta is associated with a deficiency of _______
Placenta accreta is associated with a deficiency of decidua
27
What is the main risk in placenta accreta spectrum disorders?
Antenatal and postnatal bleeding
28
What does increta imply?
Increta implies a moderate degree of myometrial penetration
29
What does percreta imply?
Percreta implies total penetration by chorionic villi
30
What is placental abruption defined as?
Premature separation of the placenta
31
Name a complication of placental abruption
Antepartum haemorrhage
32
What is the clinical presentation of placental abruption?
Bleeding with abdominal pain - hard uterus on palpation
33
What is a complication of twin pregnancies?
Twin to twin transfusion
34
What do twin pregnancies put the mother at increased risk of?
- Gestational diabetes
| - Premature delivery
35
What 3 symptoms characterise pre-eclampsia toxaemia (PET)?
Hypertension
Proteinuria
Oedema
36
What % of people does toxaemia of pregnancy occur in?
6%
| It usually occurs in the last trimester
37
Is convulsions associated with pre-eclampsia toxaemia or eclampsia?
Eclampsia
38
What is the treatment for established PET or Eclampsia?
Induction and delivery
39
What are the complications of PET?
HELLP Syndrome
- Haemolysis
- Elevated Liver enzymes
- Low Platelets
40
What does HELLP syndrome describe?
- Haemolysis
- Elevated Liver enzymes
- Low Platelets
41
What condition is characterised by the following:
- Severe Shortness of Breath
- Cyanosis
- Hypotensive shock followed by seizures & coma
Amniotic fluid embolism
42
Name one thing found in the maternal pulmonary circulation when there is amniotic fluid embolism
- Foetal squamous cells
| - Mucin
43
What is the leading cause of direct maternal death?
Thromboembolic disease
44
What is the most common malignancy exacerbated in pregnancy?
Breast cancer
45
What is the incidence of maternal death?
9.2 in 100,000
46
What does the 'perinatal period' describe?
The period occurring around the time of birth
47
How is preterm birth defined?
Preterm birth refers to the birth of a baby less than 37 weeks gestation
48
List 4 risk factors for prematurity
1. Pre-Eclampsia (PET)
2. Hypertension
3. Alcohol
4. Infection
49
Name one neurological complication of prematurity
Developmental disability
50
Name one cardiovascular complication of prematurity
Patent ductus arteriosus
51
What is the leading cause of morbidity & mortality in premature infants?
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
52
What are the risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome?
Prematurity, Maternal diabetes, C-section
53
The pathogenesis of respiratory distress syndrome is linked to a deficiency of ______
The pathogenesis of respiratory distress syndrome is linked to a deficiency of surfactant
54
What is the biophysical role of surfactant?
| relevant for respiratory distress syndrome
To decrease surface tension (i.e. decrease the affinity of alveolar surfaces for one another)
When a newborn starts to breathe, type II pneumocytes release their surfactant stores.
55
How is respiratory distress syndrome prevented?
Antenatal maternal glucocorticoids
56
What is a late complication of respiratory distress syndrome that usually occurs in infants that weigh less than 1500g?
```
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD).
It is thought to result from oxygen toxicity.
```
57
Name 2 gastrointestinal/metabolic complications of prematurity
- Hypoglycaemia
- Hypocalcaemia
- Necrotising Enterocolitis
58
What is the most common acquired gastrointestinal emergency in newborns?
Necrotising Enterocolitis (NEC)
59
The incidence of necrotising enterocolitis (NEC) is thought to be _______ proportional to the gestational age
The incidence of necrotising enterocolitis (NEC) is thought to be inversely proportional to the gestational age
60
Name 2 haematological complications of prematurity
- Anaemia of prematurity
| - Jaundice
61
In jaundice, what organ is immature? And what is it deficient in?
Liver immature - deficient in glucuronyl transferase
62
What pigment is thought to injure the brain by interfering with mitochondrial function in jaundice?
Bilirubin.
When it injured the brain by interfering with mitochondrial function, this is called 'kernicterus'.
63
A baby is brought to the clinic and is described to have lost their startle reflex. They have also developed athetoid (slow) movements. They have previously been diagnosed with jaundice. What complication have they developed?
Kernicterus
64
What is the treatment for jaundice?
Phototherapy.
| In a severe case: exchange transfusion
65
What is a low birth weight infant classified as?
<2500g
66
What is a cause of 'small for gestational age' (SGA) low birth weight?
Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)
67
Name one cause of Intrauterine Growth Restriction
Disorders impairing maternal health & nutrition
68
Name one cause of symmetrical foetal growth restriction
Rubella or Chromosomal abnormalities
69
What is the most common important birth injury?
Intracranial haemorrhage
70
Which organ has the highest risk of causing death when there is a congenital abnormality?
Congenital anomalies of the heart have the highest risk of death in infancy accounting for 28% of infant deaths due to congenital abnormality
71
What does the following definition refer to: "Intrinsic abnormality occurring during the developmental process."
Malformation
72
What does the following definition refer to: "Arise later in fetal life and represent an alteration in form or structure resulting from mechanical factors."
Deformation
73
What does the following definition refer to: "Results from secondary destruction of or interference with an organ or body region that was previously normal in development."
Disruption
74
What does the following definition refer to: "A pattern of cascade anomalies"
Sequence
75
What does the following definition refer to: "A constellation of congenital abnormalities believed to be pathologically related."
Syndrome
76
What are the two main features of Potters' Sequence?
1. Oligohydramnios (caused by Amniotic leak)
| 2. Foetal compression (Results in Altered faces)
77
Karyotic abnormalities are present in __ to __% of live infants with congenital abnormalities
Karyotic abnormalities are present in 10 to 15% of live infants with congenital abnormalities
78
What is the most common cause of congenital abnormalities?
Down Syndrome
79
What is the professional term for Oedema of the foetus?
Hydrops Fetalis
80
The hallmark of X disease is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in body cavities. This disease occurs in babies. Name the disease.
Hydrops Fetalis
81
Name a type of immune hydrops, that is also known as 'haemolytic disease of the newborn'.
Rhesus Disease
82
90% of Rhesus are caused by what?
Antibodies against D antigen.
| Problem arises with Rh(-) mother & Rh(+) father.
83
Name one feature of infants who die from hydrops fetalis.
Bile stained organs
84
What is the treatment of Rhesus disease?
- Exchange transfusions
| - Phototherapy
85
How is Rhesus disease prevented?
The administration of human anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours of delivery
86
What is the most common cause of non immune hydrops?
Fetal cardiac anomalies
87
Name two things that non immune hydrops results from
1. Cardiac Failure
| 2. Venous obstruction
88
What microorganisms are transcervical perinatal infections mainly caused by?
Bacteria
89
What microorganisms are transplacental perinatal infections mainly caused by?
Parasites and Viruses.
90
How do transplacental perinatal infections access the fetal bloodstream?
Via chorionic villi
91
Name 4 conditions that are screened in Ireland as part of the national newborn bloodspot screening program
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Phenylketonuria
3. Classic Galactosaemia
4. Congenital Hypothyroidism
92
Name one criteria for screening
Facilities for diagnosis and treatment available
93
What is the screening methodology for cystic fibrosis?
Wet chemical method + genetics
94
What is the screening methodology for amino acid disorders?
MS/MS methodology
95
What are the 3 main classifications of variants?
Benign
Uncertain Significance
Pathogenic
96
Name a disease that undergoes variant specific testing
Cystic Fibrosis
97
Name a disease that undergoes gene specific testing
Phenylketonuria
98
What disease does this 8 month old girl have?
Characteristics:
- 4/7 Hx vomiting., diarrhoea, reduced oral intake
- Examination: unresponsive, 4cm hepatomegaly, no splenomegaly
- Birth Hx-full term, SVD, BW 3.5 kg, up-to-date vaccination
- 1st child, healthy non consanguineous parents
- Paternal aunt RIP at 4/12-SID and maternal aunt RIP-8/12 SID
MCADD
99
What is the common MCAD mutation in clinically symptomatic patients?
Homozygous mutation (G985A) in the ACADM gene
100
What is an outcome of MCADD with national newborn screening?
Avoidance of fasting
101
What is an outcome of MCADD without national newborn screening?
Metabolic crises
102
What is a chronic complications of classical Galactosaemia?
Dyspraxia
103
What enzyme metabolises galactose, which is deficient in classical galactosaemia?
GAL-1-PUT
104
By what route are TORCH infections usually transmitted?
Via trans-placental route
105
In perinatal infections, when does the baby acquire the infection?
During labour and delivery
106
Name 3 congenital infections which the mother acquires BEFORE conception and transmits it to the foetus?
1. HIV
2. Hepatitis B
3. Treponema pallidum
107
Where are congenital infections established?
Placenta
108
What modality is used to detect abnormalities in the foetus?
Ultrasound scanning
Laboratory analysis of amniotic fluid is also used
109
In congenital infections, are asymptomatic or symptomatic infections more likely to have long term sequelae?
Symptomatic infections are more likely to have long term sequelae
110
What does the acronym 'TORCH' stand for?
```
Toxoplasma gondii
Others
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Herpes simplex virus
```
111
Name 4 examples of 'Other' TORCH infections
1. Parvovirus B19
2. Varicella
3. Syphilis
4. Zika virus
5. Treponema pallidum
112
What issues may congenital infections result in?
- Fetal loss (spontaneous miscarriage)
- Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)
- Fetal anomalies
- Long term consequences
113
What type of infection is toxoplasmosis? (in terms of organism)
Protozoal infection. (Acquired from eating inadequately cooked meat, contaminated foods or contact with infected cat faeces)
114
What is the classical triad seen at birth in congenital toxoplasmosis? (i.e. 3 clinical presentations)
1. Hydrocephalus
2. Chorioretinitis
3. Intracranial calcification
115
What are asymptomatic babies with congenital toxoplasmosis likely to develop later in life?
Ocular manifestation
116
What maternal infection does treponema pallidum result from?
Syphilis.
50% of babies are asymptomatic at birth.
117
What is the treatment for treponema pallidum?
Penicillin
118
What is another term that is used to describe Parvovirus B19?
Slapped cheek syndrome
119
What may Parvovirus B19 infection result in during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Miscarriage
120
What may Parvovirus B19 infection result in during the 2nd trimester of pregnancy?
Profound anaemia and Hydrops fetalis
121
With varicella, around when in the pregnancy is maternal infection more common?
Infection is more common around birth, which can cause post-natal infection
122
Name a foodborne illness/infection that can affect pregnancy
Listeria
123
Name 2 things that maternal listeria infection is associated with
Sepsis
| Preterm birth
124
Zika virus is a _____ borne infection
Mosquito borne infection
125
What is the main clinical presentation that Zika virus is associated with?
Microcephaly
126
What may rubella infection cause if it occurs in the first trimester of pregnancy?
Major fetal defects in heart, eye, brain
127
What may rubella infection cause if it occurs during week 12-16 of pregnancy?
Deafness
128
Name 3 symptoms of rubella infection that are apparent at birth, if a baby has been congenitally infected.
1. Petechiae "blueberry muffin rash"
2. Cataract
3. Microcephaly
129
What is the most common congenital infection?
Cytomegalovirus
130
Name 3 symptoms of cytomegalovirus that are present at birth
- IUGR
- Petechiae / blueberry muffin rash
- Intracranial calcification
131
Name 4 ways congenital infection can be prevented
1. Antenatal screening: Rubella, HIV, Hep C
2. Vaccination
3. Antimicrobial and immunoglobulin treatment
4. Food safety
132
When is the rubella vaccination given? (In regards to pregnancy)
BEFORE pregnancy or AFTER delivery
| When the baby is not in the body
133
What is the default delivery method for HIV?
Caesarean section
134
Name 3 blood borne viruses
1. HIV
2. Hepatitis B
3. Hepatitis C
135
Does Hepatitis C infection require a vaccine, immunoglobulin, or antiviral during pregnancy or in the neonate?
No
136
How much does the risk of Hepatitis C transmission increase if co-infected with HIV during pregnancy?
4-5%
137
Gonorrhoea can cause ophthalmia neonatorum on ___ 1-3 of life:
Gonorrhoea can cause ophthalmia neonatorum on DAY 1-3 of life:
138
Chlamydia trachomatis can cause ophthalmia neonatorum on ___ 1-3 of life:
Chlamydia trachomatis can cause ophthalmia neonatorum on WEEKS 1-3 of life:
139
What STI is transmitted vertically during pregnancy?
Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
140
What infection is likely to be present if a baby presents with the following symptoms in the first month of life:
- SEM (Skin, eyes, mouth) lesions
- Sepsis not responding to antibiotic therapy
- Severe sepsis
- Encephalitis e.g. unexplained seizure, hypotonia.
Neonatal herpes
141
Name 4 causes of maculopapular rash
1. Measles
2. Rubella
3. Parvovirus B19
4. Scarlet fever (Streptococcus pyogenes)
142
Name two ways that measles is transmitted
Airborne and Contact transmission
143
What is the attack rate of measles?
95%
144
What are the blue-white specks with surrounding red areola on oral mucous membranes called in measles?
Koplik's spots
145
What infection are the following clinical features associated with:
- Incubation period 8-13 days
- High fever, cough, conjunctival inflammation, runny nose
- Koplik's spots
- Maculopapular rash starts on day 3-4 of illness
Measles
146
Name 2 complications of measles
1. Pneumonia
2. Death
(Also: post measles acute encephalitis)
147
What infection are the following clinical features associated with:
- Incubation period 14-23 days
- Mild fever
- Rash appearing on day 2-3
- Accompanied by lymphadenopathy
- Older patients may have arthralgia
Rubella
148
Name 2 complications of rubella
1. Congenital infection
| 2. Encephalitis
149
When are the 2 MMR doses given?
1st dose @ 12 months
| 2nd dose @ 4-5 years
150
Why is the MMR vaccine not given during pregnancy?
It is a live attenuated vaccine
151
Why is the MMR vaccine not given to immunocompromised patients?
It is a live attenuated vaccine
152
What age is human parvovirus B19 infection most common in?
Children 5-14 years
153
Name 3 infectious systemic viral infections
Measles
Rubella
Human parvovirus B19
154
What infection are the following clinical features associated with:
- Incubation period 1-3 weeks
- Mild fever
- Maculopapular rash
- Arthralgia more common in adults
Human parvovirus B19
155
Name 1 complication of human parvovirus B19
Aplastic crisis
156
What bacteria causes scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes
157
What is used for the laboratory diagnosis of measles, mumps and rubella?
Saliva PCR swab: for viral RNA
158
What is used for the laboratory diagnosis of parvovirus b19?
Blood sample: test for IgG + IgM antibody +/- parvovirus DNA by PCR
159
What clinical feature is diagnostic of Herpes 6?
Roseola
160
What is the most common cause of vesicular rash?
Varicella (Chickenpox)
161
Name 2 causes of vesicular rashes
1. Varicella
| 2. Herpes simplex virus
162
How long is a person with chickenpox usually infectious for?
5-7 days
163
Name 2 complications of Varicella
1. Pneumonia
| 2. Zoster (Shingles)
164
Which of the following tests is used to determine recent infection: IgM antibody or IgG antibody?
IgM
165
What infection causes gingivostomatitis?
Herpes simplex virus
166
What group of viruses cause hand, foot and mouth illness?
Enteroviruses
167
What distinguishes mumps from other common infectious viral illnesses?
Systemic viral illness with NO RASH
168
What is the main presenting symptom of mumps?
Swelling of salivary gland
169
List 2 complications of mumps
1. Encephalitis
| 2. Orchitis
170
Name 2 bacterial respiratory tract infections in childhood
1. Pertussis 'whooping cough'
| 2. Epiglottitis
171
Name 2 viral respiratory tract infections in childhood
1. Bronchiolitis
| 2. Croup
172
What is the name of the bacterium that causes whooping cough?
Pertussis
173
List 2 complications of pertussis/whooping cough
1. Intracranial haemorrhage
| 2. Secondary bacterial pneumonia
174
How can pertussis/whooping cough be prevented?
Vaccination
175
What childhood condition caused by a bacterial infection are the following clinical features associated with:
- Cold and sore throat
- Pain and difficulty swallowing
- Stridor
- Respiratory emergency
Epiglottitis
176
What virus is bronchiolitis caused by?
Respiratory syncitial virus (RSV).
| Every child will develop 1 or more episodes of RSV.
177
What viral childhood infection causes a harsh barking cough and noisy breathing?
Note: It is also very common in infants
Croup
178
What organism causes croup?
Parainfluenza viruses 1, 2 or 3
179
What term describes the following: A form of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a significant proportion of a population provides a measure of protection for individuals who have not developed immunity.
Herd immunity.
People that benefit from herd immunity include people not vaccinated and contraindicated people.
180
Vaccines act as ______ and most stimulate _________ production and through activating ________ effector functions
Vaccines act as antigens and most stimulate protective antibodies production and through activating T cell-mediated effector functions
181
Are the following characteristics associated with T-cell dependent antigens or T-cell independent antigens?
- Activate T cells
- Response from birth
- Long term immunity
- Booster response
T-cell dependent antigens
182
Are the following characteristics associated with T-cell dependent antigens or T-cell independent antigens?
- Activated B cells
- Poorly responsive under 2 y/o
- No long term immunity
- No booster response
T cell independent antigen
183
What type of antigen are T cell dependent antigens? (In terms of protein, fat, polysaccharide etc)
T cell-dependent antigens are protein antigens
184
What type of antigen are T cell independent antigens? (In terms of protein, fat, polysaccharide etc)
T cell-independent antigens are polysaccharide antigens
185
How do you overcome the problems of T cell-independent antigens?
Coupling polysaccharide to protein carrier
186
Name the type of antibody which does the following:
Neutralisation of bacterial exotoxin
Antitoxin
187
Name the type of antibody which does the following:
Neutralisation of viruses
Neutralising antibodies
188
Name the type of antibody which does the following:
Initiation of complement-mediated lysis of bacteria
Lysins
189
Name the type of antibody which does the following:
Initiation of phagocytosis
Opsonins
190
Name the type of antibody which does the following:
Prevention of bacterial adhesion to mucosal surfaces
Antiadhesins
191
Name 4 types of antibodies
1. Antitoxin
2. Neutralising antibodies
3. Lysins
4. Opsonins
192
How long does a live attenuated vaccine offer protection for?
Life-long protection with one dose
193
Name 2 things that may inactivate an 'inactivated vaccine'
1. Heat
| 2. Acetone
194
What does the following description refer to:
"Modified bacterial toxins rendered non-toxic but retains ability to stimulate anti-toxin formation"
Toxoids
195
Name two types of subunit /subcellular fraction vaccines
1. Polysaccharide capsule e.g. pneumococcal
| 2. Fragmented virus or surface antigen e.g. influenza
196
Name 5 types of vaccines and an example of each
1. Live attenuated, e.g. MMR
2. Inactivated, killed, e.g. Pertussis
3. Toxoids, e.g. Tetanus
4. Subunit fraction vaccines, e.g. Influenza
5. Recombinant vaccine, e.g. Hepatitis B
197
Name an immunisation that is administered at birth.
BCG
198
Name 4 contraindications to immunisation
1. Anaphylaxis
2. Fever > 40.5 degrees Celsius within 48 hours of vaccination
3. Live vaccines and pregnancy
4. Live vaccines and immunosuppression
199
What is the name of the vaccine used for Pertussis?
DTaP
200
What are the two types of DTaP vaccines
1. Acellular vaccine
| 2. Whole-cell pertussis vaccine
201
Name 2 adverse reactions of DTaP vaccine
1. Malaise
2. Fever
3. Convulsions (rare)
202
Name a live attenuated bacterial vaccine
BCG
203
What adverse reaction to the live oral polio vaccine is the reason why it is no longer routinely recommended?
Vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP)
204
Name 2 vaccines that require boosts
DTap
| Hib
205
How many doses of inactivated polio vaccine should children receive?
4
206
What is Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine conjugated to?
H. Influenzae type b capsular polysaccharide conjugated to a protein carrier
207
What are two contraindications for MMR vaccine?
1. Pregnancy
2. Untreated malignant disease
3. Immunosuppressive therapy
208
List 2 indications for MMR vacine
- All children age 12 to 15 months
| - A second dose a 4-5 years
209
List 2 adverse reactions of MMR vaccine
Fever
| Headache
210
List 2 indications for pneumococcal vaccine
- 65 years and over
| - Immunodeficiency
211
What are the 2 types of pneumococcal vaccines available?
- Polysaccharide pneumococcal vaccine
| - Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
212
List 3 types of influenza vaccine
1. Inactivated whole virus vaccine
2. Subvirion or split-virus vaccine
3. Surface antigen vaccine
213
How much protection does the influenza vaccine confer? (%)
70-90% protection
214
List 2 indications for influenza vaccine
- Health care workers
| - Immunosuppression
215
What vaccine contains recombinant HBsAg?
Hepatitis B vaccine
216
What are the 2 indications for Hepatitis B vaccine?
1. Pre-exposure prophylaxis
| 2. Post-exposure prophylaxis
217
List 2 types of passive immunisation
1. Non-specific immunoglobulins
| 2. Specific immunoglobulins
218
List 2 indications for non-specific immunoglobulins
1. Measles prophylaxis
| 2. Hepatitis A prophylaxis
219
List 2 types of specific immunoglobulins
1. Varicella-Zoster immunoglobulin
| 2. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin
220
What do COVID mRNA vaccines encode?
Spike protein
221
With the COVID mRNA vaccines, what receptor do the neutralising antibodies block the viral spike protein from binding to on the host cell?
ACE2 Receptor
222
What is the efficacy of COVID mRNA vaccines against death?
100%
223
List 2 TYPES of COVID vaccines
- mRNA vaccine
| - Viral vector vaccine
