Pathology Lab-Respiratory Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

A 22-year-old man with diabetes mellitus presented with hemoptysis. He has had insulin dependent diabetes since age 14, was hospitalized for ketoacidosis ages 14 and 19. He has an uncle with type II diabetes, a nephew with type I diabetes, his father has history of asthma as does his mother. His PPD positive and was treated 15 years ago with INH. He reports mild chills, temperature at home 103F and is not eating well last few days. He is a thin, pale male in mild distress; HR 98, RR 24, pO2 90. Labs show WBC 8,900, blood glucose 240, HgA1C 9. Chest radiography shows a cavitary nodular lesion with air-crescent in the right lower lung. He underwent wedge resection of the lesion. What is the top choice in your differential diagnosis?

A

His history may point you towards a secondary Tb infection. However, his chest x-ray reveals a cavitary lesion in the lower, lung, where secondary Tb usually does not present. This points you towards a fungal infection. Since he is diabetic, he is immunocompromised. Aspergillus is an opportunistic fungal infection and is the top choice in your differential.

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2
Q

An HIV patient presents with a sore throat. Culture of what organisms would give you a hint that the patient is tipping into immunosuppression? How should you that this patient?

A

Canida albicans infection in the mouth. It is an opportunistic infection and tells you the patient is tipping into immunosuppression. This patient should prophylax with TMP-SMZ (trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole).

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3
Q

Which fungal infections are pathogenic in immunocompetent patients?

A

Coccidioidomycoses, Histoplasmosis and Blastomycoses.

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4
Q

A patient presents to you clinic because a mass was seen in a cavity on his CXR. Biopsy of his lung is shown below. What conditions set him up for this condition?

A

Bronchiectasis, M. Tb and old abscesses can form cavities and set up a nice place for an aspergilloma.

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5
Q

A diabetic patient presents to your clinic with hemoptysis. Biopsy of this lung is shown below. What is causing his symptoms?

A

Note the many dichotomous branching hyphae with septation and 45 degree angle of branching in the biopsy. This is invasive aspergillus. It gets into the blood vessels and causes bleeding (shown below).

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6
Q

A 19 year old female with a history of asthma comes to see you with worsening of symptoms. Bronchoscopy reveals mucus impaction, dilation of the bronchi and bronchiectasis. What would you expect to see on biopsy of the tissue in her lungs?

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. This is a type I hypersensitivity and you would see eosinophil infiltrate and IgE antibodies.

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7
Q

A 59-year-old nurse complained of fatigue, weight loss, night sweats and a productive cough. She has had heavy menses from fibroids for many years, worked on Navajo reservation for 15 years, is post menopausal, on low dose estrogen therapy and had a fever of 101° F at home. Her father died of heart attack at age 75. Her mother 80 yo in good health. She appears thin, tired and pale appearing female. She complains of frequent coughing. Physical exam reveals HR 85, RR 20. A sputum smear showed acid-fast bacilli. A chest X-ray showed fibronodular densities in the left apex. What would a positive PPD tell you in this patient?

A

She recently acquired Tb, she had it in the past but it’s been eradicated or she has been vaccinated against it. The PPD is just an injection of Tb antigen and looking for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction a few days later. All this indicates is that her immune system has seen Tb before.

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8
Q

What test might you do on a patient who has suspected Tb, but has had a previous Tb vaccination.

A

IF-gamma release assay. You take a blood sample and add Tb antigens. Overnight incubation will reveal a Th1-induced increase in IF-gamma.

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9
Q

Which of these gross sections is primary and which is secondary Tb?

A

*

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10
Q

A patient presents with a fever and productive cough with bloody sputum. Sputum culture reveals acid fast bacilli. CXR reveals a cavitary lesion in the apex of his right lung. What accounts for the biopsy of the lesion seen below?

A

The image is a caseating granuloma that forms with patients infected by M. Tb. Macrophages are activated to destroy to mycobacterium. However, the mycobacterium prevents fusion of the phagolysosome in the macrophage. This causes the macrophage to release TNF-alpha, the Th1 cell to release IF-gamma and other macrophages are recruited to form a granuloma and wall off the infection.

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11
Q

How would your diagnosis differ in each of these patients after seeing their biopsy?

A

Note the granuloma on the left does not have necrosis. That image could be anything…it just lacks necrosis. The image on the right is definitely not sarcoid because sarcoid does not present with necrotizing granulomas.

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12
Q

How would Tb cause the symptoms seen in the patient below?

A

It infects the meninges and can cause cranial nerve palsy.

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13
Q

A patient presents with Tb. His radiograph is shown below. What is this condition called?

A

Note the evidence of vertebral destruction in the classic anterior wedge formation with intervertebral disk involvement. This is Pott’s disease. This is when Tb infects the vertebrae.

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14
Q

A 30-year-old African-American female presents with a persistent cough and joint pains. She is a G2P2, has a history of endometriosis, is currently on OCPs, is unable to play regular tennis and is unable to “catch her breath” and feels tired all of the time. Her father has sickle cell trait, is alive and healthy at age 56. Her mother has osteoarthritis and is 54. She is an alert female in no distress. Vitals are HR 75, RR 17. There are no palpable supraclavicular lymph nodes; joints of hands, knees and ankles are tender to palpation but there is no swelling or deformity. Her PFTs and O2 saturation were normal. Her chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy. A bronchoscopic biopsy shows epithelioid non-necrotizing granulomas. What about this case screams sarcoidosis?

A

Respiratory problems, constitutional symptoms, more common in young African-American females, bilateral hilar adenopathy and non-necrotizing granulomas.

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15
Q

Which T-cell over-activations is the culprit in sarcoidosis?

A

Uncontrolled activation CD4+ cells that make IF-gamma, initiate a Th1 activation, macrophage activation and non-necrotizing granuloma formation (seen below).

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16
Q

Why do patients with sarcoidosis have hypergammaglobulinemia?

A

CD4 T cells are also driving mass B-cell production of antibody.

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17
Q

What contributes to most deaths from sarcoidosis?

A

Note the shrunken, hardness and modularity in the lung. Interstitial fibrosis from chronic inflammation of the lung. Loss of normally thin alveolar-capillary interface is shown below.

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18
Q

A patient presents to your clinic with interstitial fibrosis and bilateral hilar adenopathy. What parts of the patients blood work might be elevated?

A

These symptoms are highly specific for sarcoidosis. ACE and Ca2+ are elevated in this patient because macrophages in the granuloma can produce ACE and Vitamin D (increasing calcium release into the blood).

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19
Q

A 73-year-old retired insulator gave a history of progressive dyspnea over many years and subsequently presented with right-sided, intractable chest pain and weight loss. He had surgery for rotator cuff tear 5 year ago, rides Harley every weekend but always wears his helmet. During WW II he did extensive repairs to the insulation in the boiler rooms aboard ships. His job as a mechanic had often involved the repair and “regrinding” of brake cylinders. Wife and both parents lifelong smokers. Physical examination disclosed diminished breath sounds, dullness to percussion, a pleural friction rub on the right side and finger clubbing. Labs show pO2 of 90. Why might this patient have increasing dyspnea?

A

When asbestos fibers get into the lung the macrophages try to digest them. They can’t so you get release of mediators over the years that causes interstitial fibrosis in the lower lobes and dyspnea. Additionally, asbestosis causes mesothelioma which increases secretion of fluid by the mesothelial cells and causes pleural effusion.

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20
Q

What cells would you expect to see in biopsy of the lung in a patient with malignant mesothelioma?

A

Epithelial and sarcomatoid malignant cells.

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21
Q

What would you expect to see in a biopsy of a patient who has asbestosis?

A

Dumbbell-shaped asbestos body (ferruginous body) that is heavily coated with iron.

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22
Q

A 55 year old construction worker presents with increasing dyspnea. His CXR is shown below. What would you expect to see on biopsy of the parietal pleura in this patient?

A

Note the interstitial fibrosis of the lung typically seen in asbestosis. Basket-weaving areas of collagen in the parietal pleura (parietal plaques) are seen on biopsy.

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23
Q

What are the different types of bronchogenic carcinomas?

A

Small cell (neuroendocrine), large cell, squamous cell and adenocarcinoma.

24
Q

What is the first distinction you want to make in a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma?

A

Small-cell carcinoma (must be treated with chemo) and non-small call carcinoma (treated surgically).

25
A 62 year old male presents to the clinic with weight loss, fatigue, hemoptysis and a cough for the past year. Why might this patient have had recurrent episodes of pneumonia over the past year?
Obstruction in the lungs that fosters bacterial growth and infection.
26
A patient presents with a centrally located lung cancer. What is your diagnosis?
Small cell and squamous cells present centrally in the lung.
27
A patient presents with a peripherally located lung cancer. What is your diagnosis? What would help narrow your diagnosis in biopsy?
Adenocarcinoma presents peripherally. Biopsy should reveal glands and mucin production.
28
What microscopic details are diagnostic of a squamous cell carcinoma?
Keratin and desmosomes.
29
What histological features of small cell carcinoma would you expect to see?
Small, almost naked nuclei that are sometimes fused together. "Oat cells".
30
What non-pulmonary symptoms may present in a patient with lung cancer?
Horner's syndrome (sympathetic compression), IVC syndrome (IVC compression) and paraneoplastic syndromes.
31
What paraneoplastic syndromes typically present with squamous cell carcinoma?
PTH-like hormone and hypercalcemia.
32
What paraneoplastic syndromes typically present with a small cell carcinoma?
Cushings (ACTH-like hormone secretion), ADH and hyponatremia (too much water retention), Eaton-Lambert Syndrome (muscle weakness from antibody response to nerve ending calcium channels).
33
A 55-year-old man had a history of alcohol abuse and atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease. During a bout of sepsis, he had the sudden appearance of diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates with associated dyspnea and rapid respiration. He was started on antibiotics and transferred to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) but his pO2 continued to drop, necessitating intubation and mechanical ventilation. History of angina, age 45, status post angioplasty x 2, 10 and 3 years ago. Father status post CABG, age 60; mother has history of alcohol abuse and depression. Disoriented and poorly responsive male in moderate respiratory distress. Labs: WBC- 17,000 with left shift, pO2 75. Autopsy findings: left lung 890 gm, right lung 870 gm. What pathological process led to the need for this patient to be intubated and put on ventilation?
The patient's history and rapid onset of symptoms is consistent with ARDS. In ARDS, massive activation of macrophages causes a large release of IL-8. This recruits neutrophils, which damage alveolar walls. Damage to the walls leads to a protein exudate that causes hyaline thickening of the walls (seen below) and a need to be put on 100% O2 and intubated. Destruction of type II pneumocytes decreases surfactant production, increasing surface tension, requiring a ventilator to keep the lungs open.
34
How might you assess the prognosis of a patient suffering from ARDS via blood analysis?
Increased levels of IL-1 (inflammatory process) and pro-collagen peptide III (fibrotic process) indicate the amount of damage being done.
35
A N.Y. City taxicab driver noted progressive shortness of breath for several years but insisted on chain smoking one cigarette after another. He attempted to quit smoking multiple times but was really never successful. He had a chronic cough with some morning sputum production.He had pneumonia twice in the previous winter, chronic heartburn and takes numerous over the counter antacids medications. His father died at 57 of lung cancer; mother has congestive heart failure and osteoarthritis. Physical examination disclosed a “barrel shaped” chest and his heart sounds were distant and faint. Labs: WBC 4,500, pO2 94. Pulmonary function tests revealed an “obstruction” profile with a FEV1 of 1.2 liters (40% predicted) and an increased total lung capacity (TLC). Where are you most likely to find the damage to lungs on autopsy of this patient?
Smokers who get emphysema typically have damage to the alveoli in the superior lobes of the lungs because that's where all the interaction with toxic chemicals occurs. Alveolar destruction is also typically centrilobular because that is where the smoke first hits as it comes down the respiratory bronchioles.
36
How would gross specimen of a patient with emphysema from alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency appear?
Alveolar damage typically occurs in the lower lobes of the lungs and is pan lobular
37
Why do patient's with emphysema sometimes present with spontaneous pneumothoraxes?
Bullae form at the apex of the lung from air trapping. These can rupture and cause pneumothorax.
38
How does smoking cause alveolar damage?
Over activation of macrophages = protease dominance over alpha-1-antitrypsin and alveolar walls get digested.
39
What cells are the "traffic controllers" for the symptoms involved with atopic asthma?
Mast cells. Degranulation by IgE cross-linking causes release of histamine. Th2 cells are stimulated to release IL-4 (produce more IgE), IL-5 (recruit eosinophils) and IL-10 (proliferation of Th2 cells).
40
How does a bee sting initiate asthma-like bronchoconstriction?
Although IgE is not being cross-linked, the stuff on the stinger triggers anaphylatoxin production (C3a/C5a) from complement that causes mast cell degranulation.
41
An 18-year-old Army grunt kept complaining of chest tightness and coughing while jogging at boot camp. He gave a history of childhood eczema and both he and his father suffered from severe hay fever in the early spring. Sister wheezes when she goes out in the cold weather; both parents smoke occasionally. When seen by an Army physician shortly after one of these episodes, he was noted to be dyspneic and wheezing. He was given a bronchial inhaler and allowed to return to the field. Later that day, he developed severe respiratory distress and collapsed. He died while being transferred to the Medevac helicopter. A CBC showed an Hb of 14.5 g/dL, and a white cell count of 10,850/mm3 comprising 60%neutrophils, 21% lymphocytes, 14% eosinophils. This patient died from status asthmaticus. What part of the biopsy seen below would make it really hard for the patient to breath?
Mucus plug filling the airway.
42
A 39-year-old Navy Commander gave a history of progressive fatigue and dyspnea with occasional chest pain over the past three years. She had an episode of pulmonary embolism two years previously. Her mother had 5 miscarriages before her birth, no siblings; mother died at 50 of “lung problems”; father is alive and well. Her lungs are clear to auscultation and her pulmonary function tests are normal. Labs: Her pulmonary artery pressures are found to be 70 mmHg systolic (normal=
Inactivating BMPR2 mutation. This causes unregulated hypertrophy of the tunica media in the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary hypertension.
43
Why are patients with untreated VSDs at risk for pulmonary embolism?
Increased pressure on the right heart causes endothelial injury, intimal fibrosis and medial hypertrophy. This narrows the lumen and put the patient at risk for occlusion by a DVT.
44
A 52-year-old homeless man was delirious when he was taken to the emergency room after spending several cold nights in Rock Creek Park. He had been on a 5-day drinking binge. He has had multiple hospitalizations and incarcerations related to alcohol withdrawal; no recent medical care. His father worked in coalmine, died of tuberculosis, age 55; Mother is alive, and has a history of breast cancer. He had shaking chills, productive cough, painful respirations and a temperature of 40C. Physical examination revealed rales in the left base. The sputum was rusty. Labs: His WBC was 15,500/mm3 with a “left shift.” Autopsy findings: left lung 1000 gm, right lung 550 gm. Sputum culture is shown below. What is your diagnosis?
Note the gram-positive diplococci. The most common bacteria to cause of bacterial pneumonia is strep pneumoniae, seen in the image.
45
Which bacteria produces a mucoid "currant jelly" sputum in patients with pneumonia?
Klebsiella pneumoniae.
46
Which bacteria causes pneumonia in many patients with cystic fibrosis?
Pseudomonas.
47
Which bacteria is the most common cause of aspiration pneumonia?
Klebsiella pneumoniae.
48
Which bacteria is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?
Strep pneumoniae
49
Which bacteria is the most common cause of pneumonia in patients with mechanical ventilation?
Psuedomonas
50
Which bacteria is the most common cause of pneumonia with diffuse alveolar damage in neonates?
Group B strep
51
Which bacteria is the most common cause of pneumonia with pneumatoceles in children?
Staph aureus
52
Which bacteria common infects patients and causes pneumonia after an influenza infection?
Staph aureus, H. influenzae and strep pneumoniae.
53
A patient comes in to see you with pneumonia. You want to determine how acute his infection is so you take a biopsy. It is shown below, what is your determination?
Alveoli are filled with neutrophils and fibrin. The capillaries are congested. This indicates grey hepatization.
54
A 23-year-old homosexual man was presented to a hospital in Santo Domingo because of weakness and an inability to speak "normally." He had fever, dry cough, and dyspnea. He was treated for urethritis and anal warts multiple times in past few years, denies any IV drug use. He has no contact with his parents for last few years; his partner of 1 year has had several bouts of pneumonia and has lost “a lot” of weight; has a parrot and a cockatoo as pets. Physical examination cutaneous violacous patches, plaques, and nodules on his back and legs. Auscultation revealed a few scattered rales. He was disoriented to time and place. Labs: pO2 on room air= 54 mm Hg. CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 95 per mm3. Chest x-ray: bilateral interstitial and alveolar infiltrates. Biopsy of his lung is seen below. What is your diagnosis?
This patient is immunocompromised from HIV. This puts him at risk for opportunistic bacterial and fungal infections. The slide shows intra-alveolar foamy exudate, which is highly suggestive of pneumocystis. However, you must do a GMS stain (shown below) to identify the organism.
55
A patient with HIV comes to see you complaining of fever, dry cough and dyspnea. His CD4+ cell count is very low. Biopsy of the patient's lung tissue is shown below. What is your diagnosis?
CMV. Note the nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions.
56
You determine that your HIV patient with pneumonia must have a fungal infection. Biopsy of his lung tissue is shown below. What is your diagnosis?
Histoplasma capsulatum. Note the characteristic narrow neck budding