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AA3 Systemic Pathology > Pathology of Digestive System > Flashcards

Pathology of Digestive System Flashcards

1
Q

area that is best nourished

A

Periportal area

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2
Q

least nourished area in the liver

A

central vein

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3
Q

most common response of the hepatocyte to injury

A

hepatocyte vacuolar change (fatty change)

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4
Q

caused by toxins where the cells continue to enlarge but do not undergo mitosis

A

megalocytosis

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5
Q

regenerative doublets is common in what conditions

A

Pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicosis, aflatoxicosis

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6
Q

result of hepatocellular injury that resulted in the liver’s inability to use bile

A

cholestasis

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7
Q

end result of failure of bile excretion

A

jaundice or icterus

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8
Q

condition is seen due to ammonia retention and retention of toxic amines normally removed from the portal blood by the liver

A

hepatic encephalopathy

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9
Q

Give one sequella of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Formation of ammonium biurate calculi in kidney

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10
Q

most common pattern of necrosis in liver

A

Centrilobular hepatic necrosis

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11
Q

Etiologic agent of periportal necrosis

A

Carbon tetrachloride, Blue-green algae

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12
Q

True or False.

In spite of its high degree of differentiation, the liver retains to an almost embryonic degree the capacity to regenerate itself

A

True

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13
Q

What determines whether regeneration of the liver successful?

A
  1. Adequate blood supply
  2. Free drainage of bile
  3. Intact FIBROUS RETICULAR CONNECTIVE TISSUE
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14
Q

If regeneration is NOT successful, what is the primary concern for another general reaction of the liver to injury

A

Fibrosis

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15
Q

common term for focal INTERSTITIAL HEPATITIS due to the migration of ASCARIS SUUM in pigs

A

milk spots

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16
Q

What is the frequent end result of hepatic damage

A

Fibrosis

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17
Q

undesirable sequelae of extensive fibrosis and regeneration characterized by nodular regeneration combined with fibrosis that alters the normal hepatic architecture

A

Cirrhosis

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18
Q

deposition within the space of Disse will disrupt hepatic function

A

collagen

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19
Q

third reaction of the liver to injury

A

bile duct hyperplasia

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20
Q

hepatic nodular hyperplasia is a common lesion of

A

older dogs

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21
Q

grossly appear as tan foci on the surface of liver that does not extend into the parenchyma when incised

A

autolysis of liver

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22
Q

Liver is friable and softer, claylike and with formation of putrefactive gases, and smells bad.

A

autolytic liver

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23
Q

common finding in animals that have been hit by a car accident or by blunt force trauma

A

hepatic rupture

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24
Q

diagnostic feature for Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A

Intranuclear inclusion bodies

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25
Q

bacteria which cause abortion in sheep, present round target-like foci or spots on the liver during necrosis of fetus

A

Campylobacter fetus, C. jejuni

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26
Q

etiologic agent of necrobacillosis

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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27
Q

observed following omphalophlebitis in lambs and calves

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum infection of the liver

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28
Q

etiologic agent of focal Interstitial Hepatitis in pigs

A

Ascaris suum

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29
Q

condition seen in bovine livers with capsular fibrous adhesions

A

Tension lipidosis

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30
Q

present in doberman as BOTH the lesion diagnosis and the disease followed by viral infection and idiosyncratic drug reactions

A

Chronic active hepatitis

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31
Q

individual and small groups of hepatocytes are isolated by fine, fibrous septa and small groups of inflammatory cells

A

piecemeal necrosis

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32
Q

chronic inflammation of the portal tracts, extending into the periportal parenchyma, obliterating first the limiting plate and then more distant hepatocytes

A

chronic active hepatitis

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33
Q

very common finding in the liver of ducks - thought to be part of a reaction to stress

A

hepatic amyloidosis

34
Q

breed of dog in which signs of pancreatic insufficiency begin to manifest when the dogs are 6-12 months of age

A

German shepherd

35
Q

True or False.

Pancreatic hypoplasia in German shepherd is genetic basis and autosomal dominant trait

A

False. It is genetic basis and transmitted as an autosomal RECESSIVE trait

36
Q

passage of fatty stools, often characterized by a high fat content due to lack of pancreatic enzymes

A

Steatorrhea

37
Q

Obese female dogs fed with high fat and low protein diet are predisposed to?

A

acute pancreatic necrosis

38
Q

better descriptive term of acute pancreatic necrosis

A

Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis

39
Q

term used clinically to determine necrosis of the liver due to its pathogenesis of the lesion

A

Acute Pancreatic Necrosis

40
Q

due to overproduction of a protein known as islet amyloid polypeptide common in older cats with varying degree of glucose intolerance

A

insular amyloidosis

41
Q

inflammation of the gums or gingiva, usually caused by a bacterial infection

A

gingivitis

42
Q

formed when the bacteria that is naturally occurring in the mouth mixes with remnants of food particles

A

dental plaque

43
Q

biofilm of microorganisms (mostly bacteria, but also fungi) that grows on surfaces within the
mouth

A

dental plaque

44
Q

hard calcified deposits that form and coat the teeth and gums

A

tartar

45
Q

an oral defect that will create painful hard palate abrasion holes

A

mandibular brachygnathism

46
Q

Breeds of dog often seen with mandibular brachygnathism

A
  1. German shepherd
  2. Rottweilers
  3. Collies
  4. Standard poodles
  5. Dachshunds
47
Q

lower jaw is normal length but upper jaw is too short

A

mandibular prognathism

48
Q

dogs with these condition will lose their self cleaning ability and trap plaque and debris

A

mandibular prognathism

49
Q

Brachycephalic breeds predisposed to mandibular prognathism

A
  1. Bulldogs
  2. Pekingese
  3. Boston terriers
  4. Pugs
  5. Persian cats
50
Q

benign tumor of the tissue that holds the teeth in place

A

epulis

51
Q

tumor of the ligament that holds the tooth in and least aggressive type of epulis

A

fibromatous epulis

52
Q

epulis made up of bony matrix

A

ossifying epulis

53
Q

most aggressive and invasive of the three epulis

A

acanthomathous

54
Q

location where foreign bodies are trapped inside the mouth causing excessive salivation and obstruction

A

carnassial teeth

55
Q

A cat presents proliferative masses around the gingival margins and larger masses at the caudal part of the hard palate, biopsy reveals loaded plasma cell.

A

Plasma cell stomatitis

56
Q

cat with rodent ulcer or eosinophilic ulcer

A

feline eosinophilic granuloma complex

57
Q

most common oral tumor of cats

A

squamous cell carcinoma

58
Q

most common malignant neoplasm in dog

A

oral melanoma

59
Q

term for disorders of swallowing

A

dysphagia

60
Q

Caused by painful blisters, a swollen tongue, or a big bone lodged over the hard palate. What phase of dysphagia?

A

oral phase

61
Q

possible reasons for pharyngeal phase dysphagia

A

tonsillitis, tumors of the pharynx, or abscesses.

62
Q

occurs when the bolus has a hard time entering the esophagus due to a neurologic deficit

A

esophageal phase dysphagia

63
Q

most common cause of acquired megaesophagus

A

myasthenia gravis

64
Q

A condition where antibodies destroy their own’s body acetylcholine therefore muscle contraction does not occur

A

myasthenia gravis

65
Q

Etiologies of acquired megaesophagus

A
  1. Canine distemper
  2. Tetanus
  3. Botulism
  4. Lead poisoning
  5. inborn errors of neuronal metabolism
  6. Peripheral neuropathy
66
Q

specialized lymphoid aggregates in the gut submucosa

A

peyer’s patches

67
Q

part of intestine where peyer’s patches are most abundant

A

Ileum

68
Q

Antigens gain access to the lymphoid area of peyer’s patches through

A

Microfold cells

69
Q

most common mechanism of diarrhea

A

malabsorptive diarrhea

70
Q

diarrhea associated with villus atrophy

A

Malabsorptive

71
Q

has no villi but only crypts, functions to absorb water

A

large intestine

72
Q

etiologic agent of porcine intestinal spirochetosis

A

Serpulina pilosicoli

73
Q

disease of pigs where bacteria line up along the luminal surface of the large intestinal epithelial cells and impair absorption

A

Porcine intestinal spirochetosis

74
Q

etiologic agents of secretory diarrhea

A
  1. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
  2. Salmonella spp.
  3. Campylobacter jejuni
  4. Enterocytes
75
Q

diarrhea with mesenteric lymph nodes enlarged, lymphatics have white string-of-pearl appearance in mesentery

A

effusive diarrhea

76
Q

Other causes of effusive diarrhea

A
  1. heart failure
  2. portal hypertension
  3. hypoalbuminea
77
Q

Cirrhosis that is characterized by proliferation of fibrous tissue around the bile ducts encircling them such as those caused by fasciola gigantica

A

Biliary cirrhosis

78
Q

Cirrhosis that is mostly confined to areas at a short distance beneath the capsule

A

Glissonian cirrhosis

79
Q

Cirrhosis associated with yellow discoloration

A

Pigment cirrhosis

80
Q

Cirrhosis which there is an increase in fibrous tissue around the central vein as a result of chronic passive congestion

A

Central or cardiac cirrhosis

81
Q

Cirrhosis caused by migration of parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides and Schistosoma sp

A

Parasitic cirrhosis

AA3 Systemic Pathology (12 decks)

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