Pathology Study Guide 1 Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

A disease that is caused by physicians or their treatment is known as

A

Iatrogenic

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2
Q

The term used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown is

A

Idiopathic

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3
Q

Infection contracted from the acute care facility

A

Nosocomial Infection

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4
Q

Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells, is called

A

Neoplasia

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5
Q

The Initial response of body tissues to local injury is

A

Inflammation

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6
Q

A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by a vascular occlusion is an

A

Infarct

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7
Q

Depriving tissues of oxygen and nutrients caused by an arterial vessel narrowing is referred to as

A

Ischemia

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8
Q

An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as a

A

Hematoma

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9
Q

New growths that invade and destroy adjacent structures and have the ability to spread are considered

A

Malignant

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10
Q

The study of neoplasms or tumors is called

A

Oncology

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11
Q

The major metastatic route of carcinomas is

A

Lymphatic Spread

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12
Q

The retrovirus known to contribute to AIDS is

A

HIV

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13
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteolytic Metastasis

A

Destructive

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14
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteosclerotic metastasis

A

Additive

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15
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Pneumonia

A

Additive

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16
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Callus

A

Additive

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17
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Ascites

A

Additive

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18
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Edema

A

Additive

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19
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Emphysema

A

Destructive

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20
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Pneumothorax

A

Destructive

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21
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteoporosis

A

Destructive

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22
Q

In terms of x-ray attenuation, indicate whether the following disease is considered additive or destructive,
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (Brittle Bone Disease

A

Destructive

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23
Q

What composition in technical factors should be made for Additive diseases?

A

Increase kVp

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24
Q

What composition in technical factors should be made for Destructive diseases?

A

Decrease kVp

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25
For what purpose is a CXR obtained after endotracheal tube insertion?
To verify tube placement
26
The hereditary disease process characterized by the excretion of viscous mucus blocking the air passages is know as
Cystic Fibrosis
27
A viral infection of the subglottilc region of the trachea is know as
Croup
28
Rod-shaped bacteria that have a waxy coast permitting existence outside the host for long periods will cause what disease process?
Tuberculosis
29
The general term used to describe obstruction of the airways leading to ineffective exchange of respiratory gases is known as
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
30
Thrombi that develop in the deep venous system of the lower extremity and are trapped in the lung circulation are called
Pulmonary Emboli
31
A condition. of diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume is called
Atelectasis
32
Air in the cavity surrounding the lung is known as
Pneumothorax
33
What disease process manifests its earliest signs as blunting of the normal sharp angle between the diaphragm and the rib cage?
Pleural Effusion
34
Herniation of the meninges in the lumbar of cervical region is known as
Meningocele
35
The disease process that begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane causing synovial proliferation is called
Rheumatoid Arthritis
36
The most common form of degenerative arthritis that has osteophyte development is
Osteoarthritis
37
The fluid-filled sacs located near the joints may become inflamed, which results in what disease process?
Bursitis
38
A disease process usually caused by accelerated bone resorption results in
Osteoporosis
39
Blood with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is know as
Gout
40
Primary malignant tumors arising from the bone marrow in long bones in children and young adults usually causing localized pain are indicative of what specific sarcoma?
Ewing's Sarcoma
41
The classic radiographic appearance of multiple punched-out osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the skeletal system is suggestive of what type of cancer?
Multiple Myeloma
42
Discontinuity of two or more fragments is considered a
Complete Fracture
43
A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is know as what type of fracture?
Pathologic Fracture
44
Suspected non accidental trauma is another name for
Battered Child Syndrome
45
A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 and C3 is known as a
Hangman's Fracture
46
Which imaging modality is most commonly used to demonstrate rotator cuff tears?
MRI
47
Which imaging modality is most commonly used to demonstrate tears in the meniscus of the knees?
MRI
48
What term means heat?
Calor
49
What term means pain?
Dolor
50
What term means redness?
Rubor
51
What term means swelling?
Tumor
52
Increased size of the cells
Hypertrophy
53
Loss of uniformity of individual cells
Dysplasia
54
Number of cells in the tissue increases
Hyperplasia
55
Reduction in number or size of cells
Atrophy
56
Inhalation of high concentrations of coal dust
Anthracosis
57
Long, thin fivers producing major fibrosis of the lung found in building materials
Asbestosis
58
Most common pneumoconiosis results from inhalation of silica dioxides
Silicosis
59
Approximately 45 degrees to the long axis of the bone
Oblique fracture
60
At a right angle to the long axis of the bone
Transverse Fracture
61
Compaction of bone resulting in a decreased length or width
Compression fracture
62
Encircles the bone shaft
Spiral Fracture
63
Fracture exits without angulation or separation
Undisplaced Fracture
64
Loss of contract with normal articulation
Dislocation
65
More than two fragments
Comminuted
66
Partial loss of joint continuity
Subluxation
67
Repeated stresses causing a bone response
Fatigue/Stress Fracture
68
Small Bony Fragment pulled from a prominence
Avulsion