Pathoma: Gestational Pathology Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q

The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is ____________.

A

the fallopian tube

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2
Q

What are risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Endometriosis, abdominal surgery, and PID

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3
Q

The classic presentation of ectopic pregnancy is _____________.

A

lower-quadrant abdominal pain in a woman who’s missed a period

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4
Q

Most spontaneous abortions are due to ______________.

A

chromosomal anomalies

Other causes are hypercoagulable states, infection, or toxin exposure.

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5
Q

Typically, failure of organ development causes abortions between __________, while organ hypoplasia causes abortions after ___________.

A

week 3 and week 8; after the third month

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6
Q

How is placenta previa treated?

A

Placenta previa usually indicates C-section. This is because the fetus will press on the placenta during labor and obstruct its own blood supply.

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7
Q

What pathologic sign will you see in a patient with placental abruption?

A

Bleeding on the maternal surface of the placenta

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8
Q

What is decidua?

A

Endometrium under the effects of progesterone

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9
Q

Those with placenta accreta often require what treatment?

A

Hysterectomy because of uncontrollable bleeding

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10
Q

What is the overall presentation of preeclampsia?

A

Edema, hypertension, and proteinuria in the third trimester

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11
Q

Patients with _____________ may have fibrinoid necrosis in the vessels of the placenta.

A

preeclampsia

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12
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Preeclampsia with seizures

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13
Q

Preeclampsia is thought to arise from ____________.

A

anomalies in the maternal-fetal vascular interface

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14
Q

HELLP is an example of a _______________.

A

thrombotic microangiopathy

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15
Q

What is HELLP?

A

Preeclampsia with Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets

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16
Q

Why do patients with HELLP get elevated liver transaminases?

A

The microangiopathic thrombosis occurs in the liver, which leads to ischemia.

17
Q

SIDS occurs during _______________.

A

one month to one year of age

18
Q

What are three risk factors for SIDS?

A
  • Smoking
  • Sleeping on stomach
  • Prematurity
19
Q

What is the underlying idea of hydatidiform moles?

A

Instead of growing a baby you grow abnormal placental tissue.

20
Q

What happens to the uterus in hydatidiform moles?

A

It expands as if the woman is pregnant–actually bigger than normal.

21
Q

Histologically, the classic sign of hydatidiform moles is ________________.

A

edematous villi

22
Q

What lab suggests hydatidiform mole?

23
Q

Without prenatal care, what typically happens to hydatidiform moles?

A

During the second trimester, the woman will begin passing grape-like masses.

24
Q

The “snowstorm” appearance of hydatidiform moles appears on ______________.

25
The risk of choriocarcinoma is greater in ___________ molar pregnancies.
complete
26
Which type of molar pregnancy has more edematous villi?
Complete | "They're COMPLETEly edematous."
27
In both types of molar pregnancy, there is proliferation of _______________.
the trophoblasts; in complete moles there is more proliferation, whereas in partial moles there is usually just proliferation on one side
28
Fetal parts are present in ________________.
partial hydatidiform moles
29
How are molar pregnancies treated?
D&C followed by monitoring of hCG levels (to ensure that all pieces were excised)
30
What histologically defines choriocarcinoma?
Absence of villi – that is, only trophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts
31
There are two paths to choriocarcinoma: gestational and germ cell. How are they clinically different?
Gestational choriocarcinomas typically respond to chemotherapy while germ cell ones do not.