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Next Gen Exam 4 > Pathophys + two pharm questions > Flashcards

Pathophys + two pharm questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the antibiotics that are commonly recommended for treatment of canine mastitis? Two answers.

A

(Cephalexin or clavamox)

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2
Q

What are the two disadvantages to using cephalexin and/or clavamox in a case of canine mastitis?

A

(They have poor coverage of E. coli and have poor penetration into the milk)

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3
Q

Why are dairy cows at the greatest risk of developing mastitis of all other species?

A

(Bc their udders are more exposed when compared to other species (such as a horse with their udder tucked between their legs))

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4
Q

What portion of the suspensory ligament is integral to keeping the teats more tucked up under a cow?

A

(The lateral → they pull the teats upward when the udder isn’t full; although can break down over time)

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5
Q

What are the two main physical mechanisms of mammary gland defense?

A

(The anatomy of the teat canal and the keratin layer of the teat canal)

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6
Q

Cellular defense of the mammary glands involves somatic cells, what are the two primary defensive somatic cells of the mammary gland?

A

(T lymphocytes → release cytokines in response to infection to recruit neutrophils; and macrophages → destroy bacteria)

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7
Q

What is the purpose of lactoferrin contained in milk?

A

(Chelates iron to keep it away from bacteria that need it)

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8
Q

Why will cows start dribbling milk after the cleaning phase of milking?

A

(Bc you’ve been stimulating their teats → oxytocin release → milk letdown → pressure in the udder that overcomes the teat sphincter and allows milk to escape the udder)

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9
Q

When foremilk stripping a cow, what are you looking for that would indicate mastitis?

A

(Garget → large, white clumps present in the milk)

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10
Q

Which quarters of the udder contain the most milk?

A

(The hindquarters)

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11
Q

When are dairy cows most susceptible to mastitis in relation to the dry period?

A

(The first and last two weeks of the dry period)

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12
Q

When are dairy cows most susceptible to mastitis in relation to lactation?

A

(The first two weeks of lactation)

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13
Q

When getting a milk sample for culturing purposes, which teats do you disinfect first, far or near?

A

(The far teats)

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14
Q

When getting a milk sample for culturing purposes, which teats do you collect from first, far or near?

A

(The near teats)

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15
Q

You are presented with a cow who has an obvious line of demarcation between pink and blue tissue on their udder with cold and slimy teats; what type of mastitis does she have?

A

(Gangrenous mastitis)

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16
Q

What are the causative agents of gangrenous mastitis in heifers? Two answers.

A

(C. perfringens and S. aureus; cows tend to just get S. aureus infections)

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17
Q

What are the causative agents of gangrenous mastitis in small ruminants? Two answers.

A

(S. aureus and P. haemolytica)

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18
Q

Will animals with gangrenous mastitis show systemic signs?

A

(Yes → tachycardia, hypo or hyperthermia, dehydrated, ruminal atony, and potentially down)

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19
Q

You are presented with a cow who is down with puffy teats and a hard, painful udder; you strip the teat and find clots in the secretions that resemble egg drop soup (yum); what bacterial infection is indicated?

A

(This is a case of peracute/severe mastitis with coliform bacteria involvement → E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacteria, etc.)

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20
Q

Coliform mastitis presents similarly to Staph mastitis, what other systemic sign might a coliform mastitic cow have that would set it apart from a staph mastitic cow?

A

Diarrhea –> d/t endotoxin

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21
Q

What is the difference between an acute and subacute mastitis in terms of the presentation of the teats and udder?

A

(Acute → teats may be puffy and affected quarter will be hard, swollen and painful with possibly edema; subacute → udder and teat can be completely normal, you would only noticed bc of the foremilk stripping and the drop in milk production)

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22
Q

How is subclinical mastitis identified?

A

(Subclinical mastitis is an increase in the somatic cell count of the milk, nothing else will be amiss → can only be detected via diagnostic tests, specifically the CMT)

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23
Q

Which contagious mastitic organism is related to chronic, subclinical infections and/or abscesses that lives on the skin of the cow and the milkers?

A

(Staph aureus)

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24
Q

What contagious mastitic organism is an obligate udder parasite and is the only organism that can be treated during the lactation period?

A

(Strep agalactia)

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25
Q

How do the clinicals signs associated with Strep agalactia and Strep dysgalactia differ?

A

(Strep agalactia → localizes in the duct system so not associated with clinical signs just increased SCC of milk; Strep dysgalactia → mild fever and doughy udder, abnormal milk)

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26
Q

What is the one pathogen that can infect the udder from the hematogenous route?

A

(Mycoplasma bovis and other species)

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27
Q

You cultured a cow’s milk and it came back as positive for Corynebacterium bovis growth, what husbandry practice should you assess at the farm in response to this finding?

A

(The teat dipping protocols → increased prevalence of Corynebacterium bovis when teat dipping is inadequate)

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28
Q

What is the major source of Streptococcus uberis infections?

A

(Bedding)

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29
Q

Most infections of environmental coliform bacteria are acquired during what period to then manifest shortly after calving?

A

(During the dry period)

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30
Q

Which of the coliform environmental bacteria is associated with green sawdust?

A

(Klebsiella spp.)

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31
Q

Which of the coliform environmental bacteria is associated with straw bedding?

A

(Escheria coli)

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32
Q

Coagulase negative staph infections are typically peracute/severe, acute, subacute, or subclinical?

A

(Subclinical)

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33
Q

What specific vector (common name) is responsible for the spread of Truperella pyogenes during the summer, causing summer mastitis?

A

(Horn flies)

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34
Q

What is the treatment for gangrenous mastitis?

A

(Remove the teat and then treat as a systemic mastitis → fluids, abx, analgesics, etc.)

35
Q

What is the one bacterial exception to the rule of treating subclinical mastitis during the lactation period is not effective?

A

(Strep mastitis)

36
Q

Which of the dips, pre or post, control environmental pathogens?

A

(Pre-dip)

37
Q

Which of the dips, pre or post, control contagious pathogens?

A

(Post-dip)

38
Q

What is the purpose of feeding cows post milking and is that more useful for preventing environmental or contagious pathogens?

A

(Allows the teat canal to close before the cows go and lay down (if they choose to) bc they eat standing up; prevents environmental)

39
Q

What is the treatment for galactostasis in cats?

A

(Warm compresses, massage, and strip the teats)

40
Q

What syndrome is associated with fat sow syndrome, prolonged farrowings, large litter size, and high postpartum fever in sows that occurs within the first 3 days of farrowing?

A

(Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome)

41
Q

What is the most common causative agent of mastitis in mares?

A

(Strep zooepidemicus)

42
Q

Vulvar discharge for how long postpartum is normal in a bitch?

A

(3-4 weeks postpartum, green immediately and then becomes reddish brown to brown; should have no odor)

43
Q

(T/F) Neutrophils and bacteria being present on cytology in the postpartum discharge is normal for a bitch.

A

(T)

44
Q

(T/F) The only normal color for milk is white.

A

(T, colostrum can be yellow-ish white but once that has passed, mature milk should be white)

45
Q

When is peak lactation for dogs?

A

(3-4 weeks postpartum)

46
Q

What does a retained placenta predispose a dam to?

A

(Metritis)

47
Q

Do small animal species have systemic illness signs when they have a retained placenta?

A

(No, will see persistence of green vulvar discharge (in a bitch) and restlessness)

48
Q

Which layers of the uterus are affected in acute metritis?

A

(All of them, endometrium and myometrium)

49
Q

Acute metritis occurs within how many days from parturition in small animals?

A

(7-10 days postpartum)

50
Q

How long is oxytocin effective in causing uterine contractions after parturition?

A

(24 hours)

51
Q

What drug can be administered for medical evacuation of fluid from the uterus in treatment of acute metritis?

A

(PGF)

52
Q

Which age of bitches are typically associated with subinvolution of placental sites/SIPS?

A

(Young, < 3 yoa, primiparous bitches)

53
Q

How long can the persistent serosanguinous vulvar discharge related to SIPS last?

A

(8-16 weeks postpartum)

54
Q

What is the treatment for SIPS?

A

(Nothing, will go into spontaneous remission; can spay if hemorrhage is severe or if there is ulceration/perforation of the uterine wall)

55
Q

Which small animal species are uterine prolapses more common in (though the incidence is still very rare)?

A

(Meow)

56
Q

What is the term for the accumulation of milk in the mammary glands without infection?

A

(Galactostasis)

57
Q

When are dogs more likely to develop acute mastitis?

A

(Anytime during lactation, no specific time more of a risk unlike in cows)

58
Q

(T/F) There is no treatment for primary agalactia.

A

(T, primary agalactia is anatomical abnormalities of the mammary gland or lack of response to physiologic stimuli)

59
Q

What is the primary clinical sign of agalactia in a dam?

A

(Puppies or kittens are not gaining appropriate weight)

60
Q

What is the purpose of administering a dopamine antagonist to dam’s with agalactia?

A

(Dopamine blocks prolactin, removing that block leads to increased milk production)

61
Q

The first ovulation typically occurs within what time period postpartum in cattle?

A

(3-4 weeks)

62
Q

Uterine involution is complete how many days postpartum in cattle?

A

(45 days)

63
Q

What is the typical voluntary waiting period for dairy cows?

A

(60 days)

64
Q

What is the typical voluntary waiting period for beef cows?

A

(At least 30 days)

65
Q

When are small ruminants usually able to breed postpartum?

A

(3 months pp (1 month after weaning))

66
Q

Estrus results in what time period post weaning in pigs?

A

(4-7 days)

67
Q

What process must occur to break down the cotyledons from the caruncles in ruminants or else the membrane will become retained?

A

(Collagenolysis)

68
Q

What is the main consequence of a retained placenta in production species?

A

(A decrease in future fertility)

69
Q

(T/F) If a cow has a retained placenta but is showing no systemic signs of infection/sickness, no treatment is required.

A

(T, takes 5-7 days to expel when the caruncles slough; if she shows signs of sickness in that time period, that indicates infection and then you should treat)

70
Q

What is the most commonly found causative agent of metritis in cattle postpartum?

A

(Trueperella pyogenes)

71
Q

How can endometritis lead to the retention of a CL which can then result in a pyometra? Two answers.

A

(Impaired endometrium unable to produce enough PGF to lyse the CL or the WBCs in the pus in the uterus produce progesterone which supports the CL)

72
Q

What is the treatment for a pyometra in cattle?

A

(PGF inj + repeated in 14 days, +/- gentle uterine lavage)

73
Q

What mineral deficiency is uterine prolapse usually associated with?

A

(Hypocalcemia)

74
Q

What is the purpose of extending the hind limbs backward in a cow with a prolapsed uterus that is lying down?

A

(Tilts the pelvis forward which will make it easier to replace the uterus)

75
Q

(T/F) Uterine prolapse is a genetic issue and cows that are affected should be culled.

A

(F, uterine prolapse is not related to genetics, can breed back if survives prolapse)

76
Q

What is the purpose of using hypertonic saline or dextrose to clean a prolapsed uterus?

A

(Reduction of edema)

77
Q

Calving paralysis is associated with damage to what nerve?

A

(The obturator nerve)

78
Q

You are presented with a down cow that has muscle twitching, showed anorexia prior to going down, cold extremities and a rapid pulse; how would you treat this cow?

A

(This cow has milk fever/hypocalcemia, treat with IV and oral calcium, cow should get up immediately with treatment)

79
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with ketosis in a postpartum, high milk production dairy cow? Two answers.

A

(Drop in milk production and feed intake, recumbency in extreme cases)

80
Q

What GI tract abnormalities are ketotic dairy cows prone to developing?

A

(RDA or LDA)

81
Q

(T/F) Metabolic diseases associated with parturition are typically prepartum for small ruminants and postpartum for cattle.

A

(T)

82
Q

Why is hygiene crucial to prevent MMA complex in sows?

A

(The most common causative agents are environmental)

83
Q

What is the treatment for noninfectious agalactia in sows?

A

(Oxytocin, only viable for a short period postpartum, and changing nutrition → if fails, cull and graft piglets to another dam)

Next Gen Exam 4 (3 decks)

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