Pathophysiology Flashcards
(176 cards)
1
Q
Ideally, when would you want a pre-surgery evaluation?
A
2-4 weeks before procedure
2
Q
T/F Informed consent is needed for a surgical procedure as well as anesthesia
A
TRUE
3
Q
What medication should be D/C’d at least 1 week prior to surgery?
A
ASA
4
Q
T/F All HTN medications should be discontinued well prior to the procedure
A
FALSE
5
Q
T/F Smoking should be stopped at least 2 weeks prior to scheduled surgery
A
TRUE
6
Q
What antibiotic therapy, if any, should be given prophylactically for any bowel surgery?
A
Neomycin and erythromycin are commonly used.
7
Q
NPO rules prior to surgery usually means nothing by mouth within ____ hours of the procedure
A
6-8 hours
8
Q
T/F A pt can take his/her medications with small sips of water up to 2 hours prior to surgery
A
TRUE
9
Q
Virchow’s triad
A
1) Stasis 2) hypercoagulability 3) intimal damage
10
Q
When should heparin be started in a pt who is at risk for DVT? How long should it continue?
A
Preoperatively and continue until the pt is ambulatory
11
Q
T/F Blood type and cross screening should be done for ALL surgical patients
A
FALSE. Just those who are at increased risk of bleeding or needing blood
12
Q
Who uses the Physical Status Classification?
A
The American Society of Anesthesiologists to determine a pts preoperative physical status
13
Q
What benzo is commonly used for pt anxiety prior to procedure?
A
Midazolam
14
Q
T/F Thorough explanation of the procedure, watching a video of it, and music therapy are all valuable ways of reducing pt anxiety prior to a procedure.
A
TRUE
15
Q
The best pre-op prophylaxis to prevent postop wound infection is ____
A
1st generation ceph
16
Q
Most common cause of postop wound infection?
A
Staph
17
Q
A pt presents with fever, erythema, induration, pain, fluctuation, warmth, and discoloration around a wound site approx. 5 days post surgery
A
Postop wound infection
18
Q
A pt has a hard, tender, red, folliculocentric nodule that has enlarged and becomes painful and fluctuant. It seems to be in a hair bearing region.
A
Furuncle. Deep necrotizing folliculitis with pus formation
19
Q
T/F For a furuncle, you can use a warm compress and/or I/D it.
A
TRUE
20
Q
A pt presents to clinic with multiple red, leaking pustules. They are EXTREMELY painful. The pt has a fever, and is malaise.
A
Carbuncle
21
Q
T/F Carbuncles are particularly common among immunocompromised patients.
A
TRUE
22
Q
Which requires abx - furuncle or carbuncle?
A
Carbuncle
23
Q
Carbuncles are commonly caused by ____
A
MRSA, MSSA, pseudomonas, candida
24
Q
A pt presents with a painful, erythematous, NON-WELL demarcated area on her lower leg. The pt has a mild fever.
A
Cellulitis
25
Treatment of cellulitis includes warm packs, elevation, and ____
An antibiotic (usually PCN or 1st generation ceph)
26
Most cellulitis is caused by ____
Staph or strep
27
A pt presents with a foul smelling wound with sloughing skin, discharge, and CREPITUS bubbles and blisters that appear to be bluish-maroon in color. He is in EXTREME pain. What is this most likely? What is the likely organism associated? How would you treat it?
Gas gangrene probably caused by clostridium perfringens. It is an EMERGENCY! Surgical debridement is necessary as well as amputation consideration. IV ABX that are broad spectrum should be administered ASAP
28
A pt presents with a purulent infection of the skeletal muscle. You note muscle edema, necrosis, and you worry about compartment syndrome. They have a fever and are complaining of muscle cramps. What might this be? What is the likely organism responsible? How would you treat it?
Pyomyositis caused by staph or GAS. You should give a broad spectrum ABX and consider surgical drainage.
29
A pt presents with what appears to be similar to cellulitis but it is EXTREMELY painful and you note crepitus and some bulla on the skin surface. What are you worried about? How would you treat it? What is the likely cause?
Necrotizing fasciitis caused by GAS, staph, or clostridium strains. Surgery is a MUST and you'd likely do a regimen of 3 ABX (1) PCN or Ceph 2) Aminoglycoside 3) Clindamycin.
30
Most common cause of abscesses?
Staph
31
15% of all hospital infections in patients?
Postop wound infection
32
Postop infections usually appear between the ____ and ____ days
5th and 10th
33
T/F Keflex is a good medication for ABX prophylaxis for postop wound infection prevention.
TRUE
34
Most common surgical infection?
Furuncle
35
What can you use to wash the sites of furuncle and carbuncle?
Hexachlorophene
36
"Brawny red"
Cellulitis
37
Crepitus myonecrosis
Gas gangrene
38
Incubation period for gas gangrene can be as short at ____ to about ____
6 hrs to 4 days
39
T/F Gas gangrene can progress several inches an hour
TRUE
40
Mortality for nec fasc is ____%
25-70%
41
Nec fasc is more common among what demographic?
DM, alcoholics, IV drug users
42
What is the most common pulmonary complication among patients who die after surgery?
Pneumonia
43
Incidence of UTI after 5 days of catheterization is near ____%
95%
44
When is a post op UTI likely to present?
48-72 hours postop
45
Risk factors for a postop hematoma include...
ASA, heparin, HTN…basically bleeding and vascular issues
46
What are indications for chest tube removal?
Less than 200mL drained per day or lung re-expansion noted on CXR
47
What test should be performed prior to inserting a radial arterial catheter?
Allen test to confirm adequate circulation
48
Fluid collection that is NOT blood or pus that is associated with surgeries involving lymph (mastectomy, groin, etc.)
Seroma
49
A partial or total tissue disruption that is common 5-8 days after procedure. Pt may hear or feel a "popping" and my see leakage from the wound. Many risk factors. Happens in 1-3% of surgery closures.
Dehiscence
50
What is it called when not only has a surgery site opened up…but all the insides are coming out?
Evisceration
51
Happening in 25% of pts who undergo abdominal surgery, this commonly causes an EARLY fever in pts as well as signs of respiratory struggle.
Atelectasis
52
T/F Atelectasis is more common in smokers, the elderly, obese, or those with preexisting lung problems.
TRUE
53
This accounts for up to 90% of all post op fevers
Atelectasis
54
T/F A person who commonly gets keloid scars will be likely to get them again after surgery.
TRUE. Duh.
55
T/F Keloid scars are most common among the whites and surgery to correct them is the best treatment.
FALSE and FALSE. More common in blacks and surgery will likely make it worse. Treat with triamcinolone topically.
56
A pt comes in with a broken femur and surgery to correct it is performed. 12-72 hours later, he is short of breath and is altered. What has likely happened?
Fat embolism
57
A pt presents with tachypnea, hypotension, and JVD. It is noted that a central line was just placed by an incompetent MD.
Air embolism
58
The death rate for a person who suffers this complication post surgery is as high as 15%. It is very common after colorectal surgery and is sometimes hard to catch.
Bowel obstruction
59
An elderly pt presents to clinic with anorexia and obstipation (initially it was watery diarrhea until it just stopped). They had surgery 10 days ago. What might this be? How would you know?
Fecal impaction. DRE
60
T/F 40% of pts have a fever after surgery
TRUE
61
Post surgery fevers - 48hrs, >3 days
Atelectasis 48hrs, wound infection >5 days
62
Surgery increases the risk of DVT by ____
21 x
63
What is the most common cause of PE?
DVT
64
A pt presents with mild fever, tachycardia, with mild edema and pain in her calf. What is it? What sign might you check for?
DVT. Homan's sign
65
A pt goes into respiratory failure > 3 day postop. < 3 days postop.
PE > 3 days. Pneumonia/aspiration/atelectasis < 3 days.
66
A pt presents with glossitis, anorexia, diarrhea, paresthesias, dementia, balance problems. What type of anemia might this be? What type of surgeries are these commonly associated with?
B12 deficiency. Gastric operations.
67
A pt presents with fatigue, tachycardia, palpitations, tachypnea on exertion, SMOOTH TONGUE, BRITTLE NAILS, SPOONING OF THE NAILS, cheilosis, and pica. What type of post surgery anemia might this be?
Iron deficiency
68
A pt presents with LUQ pain that radiates to the neck and left shoulder. You note splenomegaly and the pt appears to be displaying signs of shock.
Ruptured spleen. CT it and then prepare for splenectomy
69
A pt presents to clinic with N/V and fever. They complain of sudden and severe mid/lower abdominal pain and you note abdominal rigidity. You decide to do an abdominal XR and you see air OUTSIDE the bowel.
Perforated bowel. You need to treat shock , provide ABX, and resect, repair, drain the area.
70
A pt presents with an ABRUPT fever, rebound tenderness and DECREASED BOWEL SOUNDS. You notice their walking strangely and cry out when you perform a heel jar test.
Peritonitis.
71
An older pt presents when COLICKY abdominal pain, distention, and vomiting. You note a KIDNEY BEAN appearance on XR and a BIRDS BEAK on barium enema. What might it be? What would you do?
Volvulus. Sigmoid decompression with colonoscopy.
72
T/F An umbilical hernia should be repaired quickly to avoid strangulation
TRUE
73
Which is more likely to strangulate…a direct or indirect inguinal hernia?
Indirect
74
T/F Abdominal pain lasting >6 hours is more likely to require surgical intervention
TRUE…duh…that perhaps was the dumbest flashcard I've ever written…um…no Corb…if it lasts 4 hours then suddenly feels better it's REALLY bad. So…yes…if it lasts a long time…it's likely worse.
75
T/F 2/3 of pts with abdominal pain DO NOT need surgery
TRUE
76
Foregut abdominal pain corresponds to pain where?
Upper abdominal area
77
Hindgut abdominal pain corresponds with pain where?
Lower abdominal area
78
T/F Midgut abdominal pain is in the periumbilical area
TRUE
79
Cramps are more associated with problems with hollow viscus organs or solid organs?
Hollow viscus organs
80
T/F Continuous pain is more often associated with solid organs
TRUE
81
List 3 useful diagnostic imaging studies that can be helpful when addressing a case of acute abdomen
Ultrasound, XR (chest, abdomen upright/flat), CT
82
Pain out of proportion with PE findings in an elderly person should have you thinking possible….
Intestinal ischemia
83
T/F Obese patients usually have less severe problems than indicated by the amount of pain they are in.
FALSE. Often more severe…so be suspicious of serious problems.
84
Upper diaphragmatic pain in an elderly person? You should ALWAYS consider this on you D/DX
Lower lobe pneumonia
85
T/F Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is NOT a surgical illness.
TRUE!!!
86
T/F It is best to correct DKA in an acute abdomen patient before initiating surgery because pain may resolve with DKA resolution
TRUE!!!
87
A pt presents with well-localized pain and tenderness and systemic hypoperfusion. Should you operate?
YES
88
What are the most common causes of acute abdomen in the elderly? List 5
Acute cholecystitis, appendicitis, bowel obstruction, cancer, and acute vascular conditions.
89
Appendicitis accounts for approximately ____ of all cases of acute abdomen in children
1/3
90
What are the two most common causes of acute abdomen most often mistaken as non surgical causes?
Appendicitis and intestinal obstruction
91
A kid presents with bizarre abdominal pain and has facial flushing…what could this be.
Appendicitis. Nearly 1/2 of kids with it present with facial flushing.
92
If abdominal pain has lasted longer than ____ days and there is no fever, it is less likely to be appendicitis
3 days
93
Intestinal obstruction in a female who HAS NOT had a recent surgery is likely caused by a ____
Femoral hernia
94
Elderly or cardiac patients with severe unrelenting diffuse abdominal pain but without commensurate peritoneal signs or abnormalities on plain abdominal films may have ____
Intestinal ischemia (think vascular issues!!!)
95
This NSAID has similar potency of morphine but does not have the same respiratory S/E
Ketorolac tromethamine
96
For a DM patient, BG should be below ____ on the day of surgery
250
97
If a DM patient has a marked increase in glucose and/or insulin requirement post surgery…what might it mean?
Occult infection
98
If a pt doesn’t awaken promptly from anesthesia and who manifests CO2 retention even to the point of CO2 narcosis, accompanied by hypothermia….this could be...
Myxedema coma. Watch for increased tissue friability, poor wound healing, wound dehiscence may also occur.
99
T/F Stress doses of cortisol prior, during, and after surgery should be considered for a patient with adrenal insufficiency
TRUE
100
T/F Wounds heal VERY fast with people with adrenal insufficiency
FALSE. Expect slow wound healing
101
Between ____% and ____% of hospitalized patients are malnourished.
30% and 50%
102
T/F PPN is safer than TPN
TRUE
103
A minimum of ____ days of adequate TPN is needed for preoperative nutritional repletion.
7-10 days
104
A clear liquid diet should NOT be used longer than ____ days without supplementation
3 days
105
Clear liquid diet is foods that are liquid at what temperature?
Body temperature
106
"No added salt" means < or = ____g/day
4g/day…YUCK!
107
What type of feeding tube is for SHORT term use?
NG tube
108
With this type of feeding tube, the tube is placed endoscopically…the pt does NOT need general anesthesia.
PEG
109
Bolus feeding is usually ok with a (G-tube/J-tube)
G-tube
110
PEG, G-tube, and J-tubes are indicated generally for nutritional support longer than ____
6 weeks
111
Why would you use a J-tube and not a G-tube?
If a pt has poor gastric emptying or there is a fear of aspiration via reflux
112
What is gold standard for confirming NG placement?
Radiography.
113
GI tract NOT entered. Irrigation and primary closure, no abx.
Clean wound
114
Trauma and communication with foreign materials from outside world or gross spillage of GI contents. What type of wound is it? What would you do?
Contaminated wound. Debridment and irrigation; secondary closure; abx ancef/cefotan/oflaxacin (floxin)
115
GI Tract entered, debris present. What type of wound is it? What would you do?
Clean-contaminated wound. Irrigate and primary closure; abx therapy with cefazolin (ancef)/cefotetan disodium (cefotan)
116
Pus Present due to active intracellular or intraorgan infection (bug has colonized), pus may flow or ooze from site, fascia commonly involved, tissue may appear necrotic. What type of wound is it? What would you do?
Dirty and infected wound. Debridement, irrigation and secondary closure, abx augmenting - human bites get pcn/clindamycin (goal is to cover a broad spectrum + anerobes)
117
Human and animal bite wounds (except those on the face for cosmetic reasons) would be allowed to close via what type of wound healing?
Secondary intention
118
Tertiary intention healing
AKA delayed primary closure. This is where a wound is allowed to stay open for awhile…and then it is closed later. This should be considered with all pts who are at greater risk of infection either due to the wound or due to immunocomromise.
119
T/F Epithelialization best happens when wounds are kept dry.
FALSE. Moist.
120
Fibroplasia and matrix deposition, angiogenesis, epithelialization.
Proliferative phase of healing
121
Collagen fiber maturation, lysis and contraction.
Remodeling phase
122
Staph and strep are aerobes
Not a question…just a fact
123
Peptostrepto and clostridium are anaerobes
Also a fact
124
What are the general requirements for a surgical infection to start?
1) Infectious agent 2) susceptible host 3) closed/unperfused space
125
What are 4 ways to help prevent post surgical infection?
O2, fluid, warming, pain management (gas em, drown em, burn em, or ignore em)
126
First gen ceph (keflex) is great prophylaxis to prevent infection.
Just a fact
127
Elevated WBC, elevated BUN, and hyponatremia. Triad of what?
Nec Fasc
128
Reasons to operate include...
Involuntary guarding or rigidity, especially if spreading, Increasing or severe localized tenderness, Tense or progressive distention, Tender abdominal or rectal mass with high fever or hypotension, Rectal bleeding with shock or acidosis, Septicemia findings, Bleeding (unexplained shock or acidosis, falling hematocrit), Suspected ischemia (acidosis, fever, tachycardia)
129
Approximately ____% of operations will result in an incisional hernia
10%
130
T/F "Acute abdomen" includes traumatic disorders of the abdominal area
FALSE
131
A pt presents with signs of shock, tenderness in the LUQ and 9th and 10th ribs and has an enlarged spleen. He has radiating pain to his neck and left shoulder (positive for Kehr's sign).
Ruptured spleen
132
When would you use FAST technique?
Focused assessment with sonography for trauma - TRAUMA!!!
133
Air-fluid levels found outside the bowel
Perforated bowel
134
Pt presents with sudden onset of severe, agonizing mid/lower abdominal pain and symptoms of shock. She is N/V and has a fever and her abdomen is rigid and tender
Perforated bowel
135
A pt has acute cholecystitis…her pain may refer from the ____ to the ____
RUQ to the right thorax
136
A pt presents with RAPID ONSET OF SEVERE CONSTANT PAIN radiating from the middle upper epigastric region to her back.
Acute pancreatitis
137
A pt presents with an ABRUPT and EXCRUCIATING mid abdominal pain that radiates to her flank and back
Ruptured AAA
138
A pt presents with ABRUPT and EXCRUCIATING RLQ pain that radiates down to his grown area.
Ureteral colic
139
A pt presents with GRADUAL and STEADY pain in his RLQ and some more mild pain that shifts from there toward the mid-epigastric region
Appendicitis
140
List 2 causes of acute abdomen that present with INTERMITTENT, COLICKY, CRESCENDO pain with FREE INTERVALS
SBO, IBS (SBO Farting in a crescendo)
141
List 4 causes of acute abdomen that present with RAPID ONSET, SEVERE pain
Acute pancreatitis, mesenteric thrombosis, strangulated bowel, ECTOPIC PREGNANCY (A CUTE PA STRANGLED ECTOPIC PREGANCY)
142
List 5 causes of acute abdomen that present with ABRUPT, EXCRUCIATING pain
Biliary colic, ureteral colic, MI, ruptured AAA, rupturing (perforating) ulcer (BUMAAAR)
143
List 6 causes of acute abdomen that present with GRADUAL, STEADY pain
Acute cholecystitis, acute cholangitis, acute hepatitis, appendicitis, acute salpingitis, diverticulitis (ITIS's)
144
T/F Inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis) is almost always associated with gall stones (cholelithiasis)
TRUE
145
T/F N/V is common in up to 1/2 of cholecystitis/cholelithiasis cases
TRUE
146
What sign might be positive with cholecystitis/cholelithiasis
Murphy's
147
Abrupt onset of fever, abdominal pain, distention, rebound tenderness, diminished bowel sounds, tachycardia, restlessness, dehydration, oliguria, disorientation, refractory shock.
Peritonitis
148
T/F ¼ of patients have minimal or no peritoneal signs with peritonitis
TRUE
149
Appendicitis is most common among what age?
5-14 yrs
150
T/F Barium should be given orally in the presence of a suspected colonic obstruction
FALSE
151
T/F 95% of malignant tumors of the colon and rectum are adenocarcinomas
TRUE
152
Pt presents with LLQ pain, mass, diarrhea or constipation, fever, anorexia, and leukocytosis and BLEEDING
DiverticulOSIS ("osis" = Oh Sis…you're bleeding!)
153
Pt presents with LLQ pain, mass, diarrhea or constipation, fever, anorexia, and leukocytosis and NO BLEEDING
Diverticulitis ("ulitis" YOU LIED SIS…you're NOT bleeding!)
154
An OLDER pt presents with colicky abdominal pain that persists between spasms, abdominal distention, occasional vomiting. You note distention, tympany, rushes, high pitched bowel sounds on exam.
Volvulus
155
Most common site of a volvulus is the ____ colon followed by the ____
Sigmoid (70%) followed by the cecum (30%)
156
What do white males age 15-40 have more than other groups?
Pilonidal cyst disease.
157
Sudden onset of severe perianal pain with BRBPR during and after dedication
Hemorrhoids
158
Removal of just the breast lump + radiation
Lumpectomy
159
Removal of entire breast with nipple
Simple (total) mastectomy
160
Removal of pretty much everything in the area of the affected breast
Modified radical mastectomy
161
Pt presents with pulmonary congestion and low cardiac output. He has experienced dyspnea, poor exercise tolerance, and fatigue.
You note a "blowing” systolic murmur over the cardiac apex and radiating to the axilla and an S3 gallop.
Mitral Regurgitation
162
On PE, you note a systolic crescendo/decrescendo murmur heard best over the base of the heart and radiating up the carotid arteries.
Aortic stenosis
163
You hear a high-pitched diastolic murmur immediately after the second heart sound
Aortic insufficiency
164
People with what syndrome are particularly at risk for aortic aneurysms?
Marfan syndrome
165
___cm AAAs are palpable as a pulsatile abdominal mass
5cm
166
T/F A pt who exhibits signs of shock, peritoneal irritation, or evisceration should get an immediate laparotomy
TRUE
167
What might you be mindful of if you are doing cautery on an elderly patient?
If they have a pacemaker, it could interfere with it.
168
T/F A pt who has suffered a recent MI within 3 months of surgery will likely have their surgery delayed.
TRUE. They prefer 6 months or more.
169
T/F A person with CHF with an ejection fraction <35% will NEVER have surgery
TRUE THAT!!! According to Paul Bolin
170
With regard to respiratory disease, what do you care most about with a pts history prior to surgery?
COPD or smoking. If they smoke, get a PFT, it it's low (s, if PCO2 is above 45…hold the surgery and correct.
171
Any pt who becomes hypertensive during surgery…it is likely caused by ____ and the surgery should be ____
Stroke, stopped
172
Be cautious about EPI use with anesthesia in what patient population?
DM
173
LLQ pain with bleeding and "saw tooth" on barium
Diverticulosis
174
List 6 groups at higher risk for thromboembolism
Cancer, obesity, myocardial dysfunction, age over 45 years, and a prior history of thrombosis
175
Aged patients require (smaller/larger) doses of narcotics
Smaller
176
What should be given to a pt in myxedema coma post surgery?
Levothyroxine
