Patient Care Flashcards

(184 cards)

1
Q

A high risk procedure (written) would be one in which

A

IV iodinated contrast is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is a BE considered a high risk or low risk procedure?

A

Low risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is another name for IV injection?

A

Parenteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who writes the Patients’ Bill of Rights

A

American Hospital Association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Right to refuse medical treatment including a radiographic procedure is known as

A

Autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of patient information would be considered subjective?

A

Perceived by the affected person only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of patient information would be considered objective?

A

Visible, measurable findings obtained by medical exams, tests, or diagnostic imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Place the following exams in order that they should be completed: BE, UGI, KUB, IVU

A

KUB, IVU, BE, UGI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The threat of touching in an injurious manner

A

Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Verbally threatening a patient if he/she does not cooperate for an examination could be considered

A

Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An unlawful touching of a person without consent

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A radiograph taken against a patients will, on the wrong patient, or on the wrong body part could be considered

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When can restraints be used?

A

When ordered by a physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 D’s of negligence

A

Duty, Deviation from standards of care, Damages, Direct cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Defamation by writing or printed words

A

Libel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Defamation by spoken words

A

Slander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to a patient

A

Tort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common malpractice claim?

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When a patient is injured due to error caused by the health care provider

A

Malpractice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

7 C’s of malpractice prevention

A

Competence, compliance, charting, communication, confidentiality, courtesy, carefulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Knowing and adhering to professional standards

A

Competence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Complying with procedures and policies of the institutions

A

Compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Completely, consistently, and objectively recording

A

Charting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

With patients, patients relatives, and other health care workers

A

Communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Protecting medical information
Confidentiality
26
Proper attitude and rapport with patients
Courtesy
27
Take reasonable caution when dealing with patients
Carefulness
28
Respondeat superior meaning
Let the master answer
29
Res ipsa loquitur meaning
The thing speaks for itself
30
Used to prevent unwanted motion artifacts and ensure patient safety during imaging procedures
Positioning aids
31
Some common positioning aids
Positioning sponges, velcro straps, sandbags, head clamps, pig o stat
32
Exposure indicators, processing algorithms, brightness, contrast, cropping or masking off anatomy are all considered
Manipulation of electronic data
33
Standards of ethics were written by
ASRT
34
Standards of ethics are enforced by
ARRT
35
Mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all present registered technologists and candidates
Rules of Ethics
36
Acronym for the 5 stages of grief
DABDA
37
Responses for patients in denial
Use reflective answers and give support without being unrealistic
38
Responses for patients in stage of anger
Answers to patient questions should be of a matter of fact nature
39
Responses for patients in bargaining stage
Directions given to the patient should be clear and simple
40
Responses to patients in depression stage
Responses should be quiet and supportive
41
Responses for patients in acceptance
Show a willingness to listen to the patient as they communicate the nature of their loss
42
IV contrast restrictions dietary
Pre hydration 1 day prior, NPO 1 hour prior, post hydration
43
Reason for IV contrast dietary restrictions
Decrease burden on kidneys
44
bit depth of mammo
10, 12, 16
45
why does mammo have higher patient absorbed dose?
low kVp, high mAs
46
DEXA meaning
dual energy x-ray absorption
47
which oxygen device is considered a low flow device
nasal cannula
48
flow rate of nasal cannula
1-6 L/min of 21%-60% oxygen
49
oxygen rate of non-rebreather mask
15 L/min
50
surgical opening cut in the trachea to create an artificial airway
tracheotomy
51
when a tube is left in the tracheotomy opening, may be connected to a respirator
tracheostomy
52
meaning of -tomy
incision or cut
53
meaning of -stomy
when tube is left in opening
54
closed chest drainage removes fluid or free air from the
pleural cavity (not specifically lungs)
55
device used to measure a patients blood pressure
sphygmomanometer
56
device used for auscultation
stethoscope
57
meaning of ascultation
listening to the heart, lung, or abdominal sounds
58
normal heart rate of adults
60-100 bpm
59
normal heart rate of children
90-100
60
normal heart rate of infants
80-120
61
when is a patient considered to have tachycardia
greater than 100 bpm
62
when is a patient considered to have bradycardia
less than 60 bpm
63
when is a patient considered hypertensive
above 140 mmHg systolic, above 90 mmHg diastolic
64
when is a patient considered hypotensive
below 95 mmHg systolic, below 60 mmHg diastolic
65
normal systolic pressure for adults
110-140
66
normal diastolic pressure for adults
60-80
67
when to use carotid pulse
when patient is unconscious or unresponsive
68
when to use radial pulse
when patient is conscious or responsive, common clinical pulse
69
how is apical pulse taken
auscultated with the stethoscope over the apex of the heart
70
normal respiratory rate for adults
12-20 per minute
71
normal respiratory rate for children
30-60 per minute
72
what to do when you have a patient with abnormal vital signs?
stop procedure, stabilize patient, call for help
73
device that measures pulse rate and oxygen saturation of blood
pulse oximeter
74
medical term for rapid breathing
tachypnea
75
medical term for slow breathing
bradypnea
76
medical tern for cessation of breathing
apnea
77
FAST meaning for stroke
Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech slurring, Time to call
78
name for immobilization device collars
orthotics or othoses
79
paralysis results from cervical trauma and affects the body from the neck down (all 4 limbs)
quadriplegia
80
paralysis results from trauma to a lower portion of the spinal column and affects the lower half of the body
paraplegia
81
paralysis usually results from a stroke and its effects are limited to one side of the body
hemiplegia
82
how to move long bone fractures
provide support for proximal and distal joints to move extremity as a complete unit
83
which fracture type is usually pathologic
compressed (spine)
84
which fracture happens from weight bearing
overriding
85
which fracture is considered life threatening
compound
86
common allergic reactions are to
contrast media or latex
87
how long until irreversible brain damage occurs if proper amount of blood is not delivered to the brain
3-5 minutes
88
how to avoid excessive ventilation?
give enough breath to see the chest rise
89
First step to using AED?
Turn it on
90
compression rate for CPR
100-120 per minute
91
compression to ventilation ratio for adults
30:2 for both 1 and 2 rescuers
92
compression to ventilation ratio for children
30:2 for 1 rescuer, 15:2 for 2 rescuers
93
compression to ventilation ratio for infants
30:2 for 1 rescuer, 15:2 for 2 rescuers
94
how often to rotate compressors in CPR
every 2 minutes
95
most common medical emergency encountered by technologists
syncope (fainting)
96
non convulsive seizure that may not be apparent to the radiographer
petite mal
97
major motor seizure
grand mal, also known as tonic-clonic
98
strong pulsating volume of blood exiting a wound site
arterial blood
99
lower volume with less forceful pulsing of blood flow from wound site
venous blood
100
faint or lightheaded feeling of patients that have been recumbent for an extended period of time and are then suddenly moved into an upright position
orthostatic hypotension
101
what to do for patient with orthostatic hypotension
trendelenburg
102
medical tern for difficulty breathing or shortness of breath
dyspnea
103
an inhaler is a
bronchodilators
104
RACE fire acronym
rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish/evacuate
105
equipment sterilization involved treating items with
heat, gas, or chemicals
106
an inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment)
fomite
107
when to perform hand hygine
before and after every patient exam
108
best way to pass between sterile operators in sterile gowns
back to back (or front to front but the former is better)
109
ratio for bleach equipment disinfection
1:10 ratio with water
110
area around patient that is considered contaminated for droplet precautions
3 feet or 1 meter around area of patient
111
examples of airborne precaution measures
respiration protection and negative ventilation
112
neutropenic precations are also known as
reverse isolation
113
best predictor of possible reaction to contrast media
history of previous allergic reactions
114
rule of 5's for contrast media administration
about 5% of population experience some reaction, of this population only 5% experience a severe or life threatening reaction
115
six rights of drug administration
patient, drug, amount, route, time, documentation
116
type of injection for myelogram
intrathecal
117
type of injection for arteriogram
arterial injection
118
type of injection for arthrogram
articular injection
119
when to check patient pulse and BP when giving contrast media?
pre, during, and post contrast media injection
120
degree of angulation for inserting a needle
15 degrees
121
max volume of IV contrast for healthy adults
less than or equal to 300 mL
122
most common site for injections
antecubital vein
123
second most common site for injections
basilic vein (back of hand)
124
kVp limit for exam that uses iodinated contrast media
80 or less
125
concentration of an osmotic solution and has a relationship to the patient risk of reaction
osmolarity
126
how to reduce viscosity of contrast media
warm it up
127
what is the sulfate used for in barium sulfate
makes it less toxic
128
atomic number of iodine
53
129
atomic number of barium
56
130
double contrast barium study kVp
90-100
131
single contrast barium study kVp
100-125
132
normal creatinine value
0.7-1.3 mg/dL
133
normal BUN value
8-25 mg/dL
134
GFR normal value
90-120 mL/min/1.73m^2
135
best test to measure kidney function and determine stage of kidney disease
estimated glomuler filtration rate (eGFR)
136
when fluid infuses the tissue surrounding venipuncture site, often used interchangably with extravasation
infiltration
137
accidental infiltration of a vesicant into the interstitial tissues at the site of injection
extravasation
138
a drug capable of causing tissue necrosis
vesicant
139
a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and in unable to remove the by products of metabolism
shock
140
shock resulting from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns
hypovolemic shock
141
shock resulting from massive infection
septic shock
142
shock where patients that suffer head or spinal traumaresult in a failure of arterial resistance
neurogenic shock
143
shock resulting from cardiac failure
cardiogenic shock
144
symptoms of a contrast reaction
restlessness, increase pulse rate, pallor and weakness, cool clammy skill, hypotension accompanied with itching flushing and shortness of breath
145
if a patient survives a severe contrast reaction, when can they have IV contrast again?
never again
146
contrast reaction exhibiting nausea, vomiting, hives, itching, sneezing, extravasation, vasovagal response, fear, weakness, dizziness, sweating
mild reaction
147
response for mild reactions
monitor and comfort patient, provide a warm town for extravasation
148
contrast reaction exhibiting excessive hives, tachycardia, giant hives, excessive vomiting
moderate reaction
149
response for moderate reaction
call for medical assistance and prepare to administer antihistimine medication
150
if a patient is exhibiting difficulty breathing after contrast administration, what type of reaction could it be
severe, life threatening
151
drugs for arrhythmias (PICAX)
pronestyl, isoptin, cordarone, adenocard, xylocaine
152
drugs for allergic reactions
benadryl, decadron
153
drugs for shock (LID)
levophed, intropin, dobutrex
154
drug for seizures
dilantin
155
drug for hypoglycemia and smasmatic colon
glucagon
156
drug for hyperglycemia
insulin, metformin, glucophage
157
how is nitroglycerine administered for acute angina
sublingual
158
purpose of Swan-Ganz catheter
diagnosis of right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders
159
where is tip of Swan Ganz catheter located
pulmonary artery
160
height range above site of insertion for hanging bag (BE, IV, etc)
18 - 24 inches above
161
how to convert inches to cm
multiply inches x2.5
162
dislocation of a joint space is called
subluxation
163
best way to demonstrate compression fracture of spine
lateral
164
fracture that breaks the skin
compound
165
deviation of the head of the 4th or 5th metacarpal
Boxer's fracture
166
transverse fracture of the distal radius, associated ulnar styloid fracture, posterior displacement of hand
Colle's fracture
167
fracture with anterior dislocation of hand in relation to forearm
Smith's fracture
168
fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal
Jones fracture
169
popliteal meaning
behind the knee
170
rebreather bag used in CPR
ambu bag
171
nerve that gets impinged upon in carpal tunnel syndrome
median nerve
172
drug used for anaphylactic shock
epinephrine
173
bleeding from nose is known as
epistaxis
174
PASS acronym for fire
Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
175
any procedure that involves catheterization of urinary bladder requires the use of
sterile technique
176
most common nosocomial infection
UTI
177
how long should hand washing routine last
20 seconds
178
sterile procedure hand washing time
5 minutes
179
first move of opening a sterile tray
open away from the operator
180
what type of sterilization is autoclaving
steam sterilization
181
enema tipping position
Sims
182
most commonly used contrast in radiology
air (negative contrast) (deep breath in and hold)
183
what happens to pulse and BP when patient is undergoing anaphylactic shock
pulse increases, BP decreases
184
medical term for hives
urticaria