Patient care Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

in _____ the U.S. Advisory commission on consumer protection and quality health care adopted a consumers Bill of Rights

A

1998 (replaced by patient care partenership)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

on march 23, 2010 the _____ was signed into law as a way of putting consumers back in charge of their health care

A

Affordable care act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the HIPAA Privacy act was first signed into law in _____ and created national standards to protect individuals medical records and other personal health information

A

1996 (in april 2001 the department of health and human services enacted the HIPAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ are the rules of conduct enforced by a controlling authority

A

laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____ are laws that affect the individual rather than society as a whole

A

civil laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ laws are enacted and enforced by federal or state legislators to help maintain the governmental right to uphold social order and protect individuals rights

A

statutory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ law is a form of law made by administrative agencies appointed by the president or government

A

administrative (federal agency ex. OSHA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ law is court made law based on custom and usage

A

common (most malpractice laws are court made laws)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A _____ is a wrongful act, other than breach of contract for which the law provides a remedy

A

Tort (can by intentional or unintentional)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

examples of intentional torts are?

A

assault, battery, invasion of privacy, and false imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_____ is the most common type of unintentional tort

A

negligence; failure to use responsible care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

to prevail in a medical malpractice action, an injured person (the plaintiff) must prove the following 4 elements

A

duty (standard of care), breach (failure to meet standard of care), harm, and causation (failure of SOC was actual cause of injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does resipsa loquitur mean?

A

the thing speaks for itself (the evidences tells all)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_____ consent is given by the patient either in writing or verbally

A

express

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_____ consent is neither written or spoken by the patient, but understood from the circumstances surrounding the procedure

A

implied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_____ is a dereliction from ones medical professional duty that results in injury, loss or damage

A

medical malpractice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describes the procedure, clearly states risks and benefits, discusses possible outcomes/problems, discusses alternative treatments

A

informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

negligences is based on what 5 doctrines of liability?

A

master-servant, ostensible agency, borrowed servant, captain of ship, and resipsa loquitur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is respondeat superior

A

“let the master answer” the employer is held liable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

under the _____ doctrine, a hospital or healthcare facility can be held liable for a negligence, if the sonographer is a contractor

A

ostensible agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

under the _____ theory, all actions of hospital employees where attributable to the patients attending physician, physician was liable

A

borrowed servant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the _____ doctrine was in effect in operating rooms and held that the head surgeon was liable for all negligent actions of his or her surgical team

A

captain of the ship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ is a court document that requires a witness to appear and testify or to produce documents or papers pertinent to a pending controversy, under penalty

A

subpoena (served if you are involved in a lawsuit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

_____ is a system of valued behaviors and beliefs that govern proper conduct and character to ensure protection of individuals rights

25
_____ has developed both a code of ethics and practice standards of sonographers
the society of diagnostic medical sonography
26
_____ is the study of duty, moral obligation, and taking the right action
deontology (do your duty regardless of outcome)
27
_____ is the study of evidence of the design and purpose of nature
teleology (believes an act is right if used to bring good outcome)
28
_____ is the duty to promote and to act in the best interest of the patient and society
beneficence (would still give live transplants)
29
_____ is the primary credo of the health professions: "above all do no harm"
nonmaleficence (would give someone else transplant)
30
what are the 4 aspects of vital signs as indicators of functioning of the body?
temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure
31
as a part of the assessment of vital signs, the sonographer should observe the patients total condition such as
color, skin temp, and patient feelings and reactions
32
the _____ is the beat of the heart that can be felt as a vibration within the walls of the arteries
pulse (most common site is the radial artery; wrist)
33
_____ and _____ can cause a weak, thready pulse, where as _____ can produce a bounding pulse
shock and hemorrhage; fever
34
what is the normal pulse for an adult and newborn?
adult- 60 to 65 bpm newborn- 120 to 140 bpm child- 100 to 120
35
the oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange that occurs in the lungs is referred to as _____
respiration
36
what is normal respiration in an adult?
16 to 20 breaths per min
37
note difficultly in breathing (_____) or change in the patients color (______)
dyspnea; cyanosis or pallor
38
_____ is the pressure that circulating blood exerts against arterial walls
blood pressure; highest when heart contracts (systolic) lowest between beats at rest (diastolic)
39
what is normal adult blood pressure?
less than 120/80 mmHg; prehypertension to 139/89; stage 1 hypertension 140/90; stage 2 is 160/100; hypotension is 80/50; even if only one reading is off
40
_____ measures the oxygen concentration in arterial blood
pulse oximeters; normal is 95% - 100%
41
with an IV, nausea, vomiting, rapid breathing, or an increase pulse rate are signs of _____
circulatory overload
42
with _____ immediately report any rapid increase in the amount of material being suctioned
NG tubes
43
the _____ devices are the nasal cannula or nasal prongs, nasal catheter, or simple oxygen mask
low-flow
44
_____ is a low flow device identified by the presence of a bag, which must remain constantly inflated by 1/3
partial rebreathing or reservoir mask
45
the water level in the humidifying chamber should be high enough so that it _____ as the oxygen goes through it
bubbles
46
a _____ catheter is a system used to provide temporary or permanent drainage of urine
retention or indwelling (most common is folly)
47
when handling bed pans and urinals and their contents follow medical _____, standard precautions, and blood borne _____ standards
aseptic, pathogen
48
if the patient feels nauseated, turn his or her head well to one to prevent _____ of vomit
aspiration
49
if the appearance resembles dark _____ it is evidence of undigested blood
"coffee grounds"
50
in january 2012, the _____ issued the National Patient safety goals (NPSGs) to promote specific improvement in patient safety
organizations (JCAHO)
51
use at least _____ ways to identify patients
2
52
take a _____ immediately before preforming a procedure, and right patient
timeout
53
the most institutions, _____ must be ordered by a physician or change nurse and cannot be arbitrarily applied
restraints
54
_____ is the use of correct movement during the performance of any activity
body mechanics
55
when moving a patient be sure your feet are a _____ width apart to provide a strong base of support, stand with one foot slightly forward for balance and have the toes of the leading foot _____ in the direction of the activity
shoulder; point
56
the use a gait belt, place the belt around the patients _____, over clothing with its buckle in front
waist
57
when moving patient on to scanning table adjust the bed to _____ hight for the most comfortable position
elbow; remove any pillows and have them bend their knees
58
when turning patients toward you place one hand on the patients shoulder and the other on the _____ and pull the patient toward you
hip