Patient care Flashcards
(69 cards)
1
Q
- Tech indicates to patient : “You better do as I say and if you don’t I will use all my weight just to hold you down whether you want to or not. So hold still”. What type of tort would this be?
A
ASSAULT - the threat of touching in an injurious way
2
Q
- If a patient is forced to have an exam after they have refused, a technologist could be involved in litigation for :
a) assault and battery
b) malpractice
c) negligence
d) delinquency
A
a) assualt and battery
SEE MERRILL’S
Green binder digestive system
Question 51
3
Q
- According to the CAMRT Code of Ethics who is responsible for carrying out the standards as written in the Code?
a) hospitals where CAMRT members are employed
b) student’s training facilities
c) each individual member of the association
d) the federal government
A
c) each individual member of the association
SEE MERRILL’S
Green binder digestive system
Question 53
4
Q
- A patient who is agitated and confused refuses to have their radiology procedure done after the technologist has thoroughly explained the procedure, the technologist should then:
a) re-explain the procedure in a louder tone of voice
b) ask the patient to cooperate for just one more minute
c) place the patient in restraints and complete the procedure quickly
d) allow the patient to be returned to his/her room
A
d) all the patient to be resturned to his/her room
Green binder digestive system
Question 54
5
Q
- What info is a technologist allowed to provide to the patient?
a) any information that is requested
b) identifying themselves to the patient
c) possible treatments
d) possible diagnosis
A
b) identifying themselves to the patient
Green binder digestive system
Question 55
6
Q
- A patient place in the Fowler’s position would most likely be having:
a) trouble breathing
b) a pelvic exam
c) an xray for examination of hiatal hernia
d) an enema tip insertion
A
a) trouble breathing
Green binder digestive system
Question 56
7
Q
- The patient is placed in which position for insertion of a speculum?
A
Lithotomy
Green binder digestive system
Question 57
8
Q
- Which of the following accompany fever?
a) anoxia
b) elevated pulse
c) decreased respiratory rate
d) cold clammy skin
A
b) elevated pulse
Green binder digestive system
Question 60
9
Q
- Which of the following vital signs are within normal limits for an adult?
a) temperature of 36-38 degrees C
b) 20-30 breaths/minute
c) blood pressure of 110/60
d) pulse of 30-60
A
a) temp of 36-38 degrees Celcius
c) blood pressure of 110/60
Green binder digestive system
Question 61
10
Q
- Micro-organisms being eliminated through the use of soaps, water friction and various chemical disinfectants is the description for
a) chemical sterilization
b) the principle of autoclave
c) surgical asepsis
d) medical asepsis
A
d) medical asepsis
Green binder digestive system
Question 64
11
Q
- What would be a safe IV infusion rate for most solutions?
a) 5-10 drops/min
b) 15-20 drops/min
c) 25-30 drops/min
d) 35-40 drops/min
A
b) 15-20 drops/min
Question 65
12
Q
- What should the oxygen minimum flow rate be when using a face mask?
a) 2 liters/min
b) 5 liters/min
c) 7 liters/min
d) 10 liters/min
A
b) 5 liters/min
Green binder digestive system
Question 66
13
Q
- Where is the central venous pressure line place and what is it used to measure?
A
vein, atrial pressure
Green binder digestive system
Question 73
14
Q
- A patient placed on reverse isolation would be one with
a) diarrhea
b) tuberculosis
c) acute respiratory infections
d) high risk for infection themselves
A
d) high risk for infection themselves
Green binder digestive system
Question 74
15
Q
- If a patient experienced urticaria and dyspnea following a contrast injection, this would likely be symptoms of :
a) anaphylactic shock
b) hypovolemic shock
c) septic shock
d) cardiogenic shock
A
a) anaphylatic shock
Green binder digestive system
Question 77
16
Q
- What personnel are permitted in the “sterile corridor” in the OR during a cholangiogram?
a. surgeon
b. radiographer
c. anesthetist
d. instrument nurse
A
a) surgeon
d) instrument nurse
Green binder digestive system
Question 79
17
Q
- A patient who is experiencing dyspnea should be positioned in what position?
a) semi-prone
b) trendelenberg
c) fowler’s
d) sim’s
A
c) fowler’s
Green binder digestive system
Question 80
18
Q
18.What are the 3 principal methods used to protect x-ray equipment operators from unecessary radiation exposure?
A
time - amount of exposure directly proportional to the time spent in a scatter radiation field
distance - increase distance = decrease dose
shielding - obvious reasons
19
Q
- What is the difference between contact and shadow shields?
A
Patient Care Book
20
Q
- Where should gonadal shielding be placed for male/female patients?
A
Male : top of shield is placed 0-1” superior to pubis symphysis
Female : lower edge of the shield is placed 0-1” superior to pubis symphysis
p. 36 patient care book
21
Q
21.The greatest risk for spontaneous abortion, fetal death and significant birth defects exist when significant levels of exposure occur during which semester?
A
First 3 months of gestation - embryo is most vulnerable to radiation injury while tissues are in the process of differentiation.
22
Q
- What is the whole body radiation dose to a pregnant woman?
A
SC35
23
Q
- TRUE/FALSE
The lady is most likely to be pregnant during the first 10 days of the menstrual cycle - with onset of menstruation considered to be day 1
A
FALSE - is least likely p. 38 - Patient Care book
24
Q
- What are the 6 moral principles, ethic principles that help to guide to right action and should be respected unless there is a compelling moral reason not to do so?
A
Beneficience, nonmaleficience, veracity, fidelity, justice, autonomy p. 63 patient care book
25
25. Physicians or health care workers should not be left alone with patients of the opposite sexe in a physical examination setting that requires undraping the patient or examining the genitalia or female breasts?
TRUE p. 64 Patient Care book
26
26. Refers to malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation - in a written fashion.
libel - p. 69
27
27. Refers to malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation - in an oral fashion
slander - p. 69
28
28. The THREAT of touching in an injurious way.
Assault
29
29. The UNLAWFUL TOUCHING of a person without consent.
Battery
30
30. It is the neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution.
negligence
31
31. What are the 7 C's of malpractive? Minimize the risk o malpractive by using these 7 C's.
Competence, compliance, charting, communication, confidentiality, courtesy, carefulness
32
32. Ergonomics - These are symptoms of what?
| Pain, numbness, tingling sensations, clumsiness, swelling weakness, loss of function, overdelopment of muscle groups
CTD CUMULATIVE TRAUMA DISORDER - Patient Care book
33
33. It is located at the mid portion of the pelvis or lower abdomen.
Centre of gravity
34
34. Is it best to push or pull heavy objects?
Push or roll p. 119 - Patient Care
35
35. TRUE/FALSE
| Elevation of a patient's head allows for easier breathing? Why?
TRUE - when the body is supine, the weight of the abdominal contents pushes the diaphragm up into the thoracic cavity and makes it difficult to take in a deep breath p. 121 - Pt Care
36
36. TRUE/FALSE
| Patients with abdominal pain must have the head elevated and a booster under the knees to relieve strain on the abdomen?
TRUE p. 121 - Patient Care book
37
37. TRUE/FALSE
Patients who are nauseated also need to have their heads elevated. how would you deal with a patient if they cannot be assisted to the Fowler's position?
Roll patient into a lateral recumbent position p. 121 - Patient Care Book
38
38. TRUE/FALSE
A circle or doughnut is an effective way type of padding to use.
FALSE - ineffective - does prevent pressure on a bony prominence but restricts circulation to the central area by placing pressure all around. Therefore distribute weight over a larger area. p. 122
39
39. TRUE/FALSE
If a patient will be in position on the x-ray table fro longer than 10 minutes, a radiolucent pad should be used.
TRUE P. 122
40
40. TRUE/FALSE
| Immobilization devices requires a physicians order?
FALSE - restraints require a physicians order (p. 123)
41
41. TRUE/FALSE
| A stockinet is used to immobilize only the legs of a patient.
FALSE - arm or legs p. 123
42
42. TRUE/FALSE
| When a patient has undergone spine trauma or spinal surgery, wheelchair transfer may be tolerable.
TRUE - when lying down patient should lie first on one side and then turn to the supine position with the knees flexed p. 131
43
43. What is the cycle of infection?
```
Infection organism
Reservoir of infection
Portal of exit
means of transmission
Portal of entry
susceptible host
```
44
44. Tuberculosis can be transmitted by which mode of transportation?
airborne droplet nuclei p. 147 - pt care
45
45. C Diff can be transmitted by which mode of transmission?
vehicle, droplet
46
46. Staqphylococcus aureas can be transmitted by which mode of transmission?
contact - p. 147 patient care
47
47. Influenza and meningitis can be transmitted by which mode of transmission?
droplet (p. 148 - Patient Care book)
48
48. Droplet transmission : these particles do not remain suspended in the air and travel only short distances, usually _______ or less.
3 feet or less
49
What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of tuberculosis and measles?
N95 mask (airborne precautions) - patient care book
50
What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of diphtheria, pneumonia, and influenza.
Surgical mask (droplet precautions) - patient care book
51
What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of MRSA and VRE?
Glove and gown (contact precautions) - Patient Care book
52
What PPE would you use to prevent transmission of SARS and varicella that causes chicken pox
N95, gloves and gown - Patient Care Book
53
What are the steps to taking off PPE :
1. untie waist belt
2. remove gloves
3. hand hygiene
4. untie neck strings from gown
5 untie mask strings - hold it by strings or rubber bands
6. remove gown
7. Hand hygiene
Patient care book
54
What does NPO stand for?
Nothing by mouth - Patient Care Book
55
Cyanotic denotes a bluish coloration in the skin indicating lack of sufficient oxygen in the tissues. Where can this most easily be seen?
mucous membrane, - lips, lining of mouth, nail beds - Patient Care Book
56
What is the difference between extravasation and infiltration?
Extravasation - fluid is outside a vessel
Infiltration - it has diffused in surrounding tissue
Patient Care book
57
How do you treat extravasation?
Apply ice packs to extravasation site for 20-60 minutes and repeat until swelling is diminished - Patient Care book
58
How high must an IV bag or bottle be hung above the vein?
45-50 cm
| Patient Care Book
59
Patient arrives to ER with severe dehydration from vomiting, diarrhea and extreme diuresis. Knowing this, the patient may be in shock. What type of shock would this describe?
Hypovolemic shock
Patient Care Book
60
Patient arrives to the ER. Dr indicates severe spinal trauma is suspected. Patient may present with what type of shock?
Neurogenic shock
| Patient Care Book
61
Patient presents to ER. After a chest CT is performed, Dr’s indicate that patient has a pulmonary embolus. This may send the patient in what type of shock?
Cardiogenic shock
Patient Care Book
62
What is epistaxis?
Nose bleed
| Patient Care Book
63
Sequencing order for diagnostic studies : p. 291 - patient care
Put in order :
(a) Radiographic exams of the biliary system
(b) Upper GI series
© Exams not requiring contrast media
(d) exams of urinary tract
(e) lower GI series (Ba Enema)
c, d, a, e, b
Patient Care Book
64
TRUE/FALSE When sequencing diagnostic procedures, thyroid assessment tests must be performed before administration of any iodinated contrast media.
TRUE - contrast media containing iodine can cause inaccurate results in thyroid tests for at least 3 weeks
Patient Care Book
65
What is Dulcolax?
Common cathartic for bowel preparation
| Patient Care Book
66
. What does PTC stand for.
Percutaneous transheptic Cholangiography
| Patient Care Book
67
During PTC, a thin long needle is introduced through the patient’s right side, through the liver and into the ___________.
Common bile duct
Patient Care Book
68
After a surgical cholecystectomy, a T shaped tube is sometimes left in the patient temporarily. The crossbars of the T extends into which biliary ducts?
hepatic and common bile ducts
Patient Care Book (p. 326)
69
During an ERCP, where is the distal end of the catheter placed?
into distal end of common bile duct through the papilla of Vater - contrast media is then injected - p. 326 and 327
Patient Care Book
