patient care: Ergonomics, Monitoring, and medical emergencies Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
What does the term “ambulatory” mean in a medical setting?
A
Able to walk and not confined to bed.
2
Q
What is the safest position for a radiographer’s feet when preparing to transfer a patient?
A
Feet approximately 12 inches apart with one foot slightly forward.
3
Q
How is stability achieved when transferring a patient?
A
By positioning the body’s center of gravity (pelvis) over its base of support.
4
Q
What should the radiographer do with a heavy object during lifting to ensure proper body mechanics?
A
Hold it close to the body.
5
Q
What is the best way to avoid back strain when lifting an object?
A
Keep the back straight and avoid twisting.
6
Q
Which muscles should be used when lifting objects: back or leg/abdominal muscles?
A
Leg and abdominal muscles.
7
Q
What should the radiographer do instead of lifting heavy objects when possible?
A
Push or roll objects instead of lifting or pulling.
8
Q
Why might a radiographer support a patient by the elbow, even if they are ambulatory?
A
Because ambulatory patients may still be unsteady and need occasional assistance.
9
Q
What should a radiographer do with patient belongings upon arrival?
A
Secure them according to policy and make a mental note of them.
10
Q
When helping a patient remove clothing, from which side should clothing be removed first?
A
From the uninjured side first.
11
Q
When dressing a patient, which side should be clothed first?
A
The injured side should be dressed first.
12
Q
Why do elderly or very thin patients benefit from a foam pad on the x-ray table?
A
To reduce pressure and protect fragile skin during long periods of lying down.
13
Q
Why does the skin of elderly patients require special care?
A
Because it bruises and bleeds easily.
14
Q
How can lumbar strain be reduced for patients during imaging?
A
By placing a pillow under the knees or supporting pressure points.
15
Q
Why must sedated or impaired patients never be left alone on the x-ray table?
A
They may be disoriented, drowsy, or even combative, posing a safety risk.
16
Q
How high should an IV bag be placed above the vein for proper flow?
A
18–24 inches above the level of the vein.
17
Q
What does swelling at an IV site usually indicate?
A
The needle/catheter is no longer in the vein and medication is infiltrating surrounding tissues.
18
Q
What should a radiographer do if IV infiltration is suspected?
A
Turn off the IV and notify the physician or nurse.
19
Q
Why might patients with a tracheostomy experience anxiety during procedures?
A
They can’t speak or clear secretions and may fear suffocation or being misunderstood.
20
Q
How can communication be supported for a patient with a tracheostomy?
A
Provide a pencil and pad for writing down questions or concerns.
21
Q
What should be done if a patient or healthcare worker is injured, even slightly?
A
Report it immediately to a supervisor and complete an incident report.
22
Q
Why is incident documentation important beyond safety?
A
It’s required for legal documentation and helps identify potential hazards.
23
Q
What are three common modes of patient transport in radiology?
A
Ambulation (walking), wheelchair, stretcher.
24
Q
Why must wheelchairs and stretchers be locked before transfer?
A
To prevent accidental movement and ensure safety during transfer.
25
What should be done with the wheelchair footrests before a transfer?
Move them out of the way.
26
Why is only one person responsible for IV lines or catheters during a transfer?
To avoid dislodgement and ensure accountability for tubing safety.
27
When transferring a patient, why should a smooth plastic board be used?
It allows for safer movement with less pulling or lifting strain.
28
When lifting heavy objects, which muscles should be used and what should be avoided?
Use leg and abdominal muscles; avoid using the back and twisting.
29
What is hypoxia?
A diminished oxygen supply to the body tissues.
30
List three causes of hypoxia.
Airway obstruction from aspiration, laryngeal edema due to anaphylaxis, emphysema or other disease processes.
31
What are three emergency responses to respiratory distress a radiographer may perform?
Heimlich maneuver, summoning the code team, checking oxygen flow.
32
What tissues are most at risk when blood oxygen is inadequate?
All tissues — they can suffer permanent damage or die without oxygen.
33
List at least three conditions where oxygen therapy may be required.
Severe anemia, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, shock.
34
What are symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply?
Dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, distention of the neck veins.
35
What position should a struggling patient be placed in to help breathing?
Semi-Fowler position (partially upright sitting position).
36
Why must oxygen be humidified?
To prevent drying and irritation of the respiratory mucosa.
37
What is the most commonly used oxygen delivery device?
Nasal cannula.
38
How far do the prongs of a nasal cannula extend into the nostrils?
About 1 cm.
39
Is a nasal cannula a high-flow or low-flow device?
Low-flow.
40
Which oxygen mask delivers a specific oxygen concentration and mixes oxygen with room air?
Venturi mask.
41
What type of oxygen mask is best for short-term therapy but becomes uncomfortable over time?
Simple face mask.
42
Which two masks are classified as low flow and deliver higher concentrations of oxygen?
→ Partial rebreathing mask and nonrebreathing mask.
43
Where are mechanical ventilators most often used, and what type of flow are they?
Critical care units; they are high-flow.
44
When might suction be required to maintain a patient’s airway?
If the patient is unconscious, has thick secretions, cannot cough effectively, or can't clear the airway.
45
Why must suction tubing use the correct diameter catheter?
Too large may occlude the airway; too small may be ineffective.
46
What must be done when suction is applied to avoid hypoxia or atelectasis?
Use correct suction technique and catheter size.
47
Where can suction equipment typically be found in the hospital?
Wall outlets or mobile units in radiology, ER, and patient rooms.
48
What must the radiographer be familiar with when suctioning is needed?
Location of equipment and replacement catheters.
49
What condition are chest tubes typically used to treat?
Pneumothorax or hemothorax (removing air or fluid from pleural space).
50
Where must the chest drainage system be kept relative to the patient?
Below the level of the patient’s chest.
51
What are the three compartments of a chest tube system?
Suction control chamber, collection chamber, and water seal chamber.
52
What is the function of the water seal chamber in a chest tube system?
Prevents atmospheric air from entering the chest cavity.
53
What is the purpose of nasogastric (NG), nasointestinal (NI), and nasoenteric (NE) tubes?
→ Feeding, removing gastric fluids, or decompressing the GI tract.
54
When can NG or NI/NE tubes be temporarily disconnected during imaging?
→ When they are single-lumen tubes.
55
Which type of GI tube must NEVER be clamped?
Double-lumen tube.
56
What is a safety precaution for a disconnected double-lumen tube during imaging?
Insert a syringe into the lumen and pin it open side up to the gown.
57
What are central venous catheters used for?
Administering meds, nutrition, blood draws, or CVP monitoring.
58
Name 4 types of central lines.
Port-A-Cath, Hickman, Raaf, and PICC.
59
Where should the distal tip of a CVC be located?
Superior or inferior vena cava near the right atrium.
60
Why should external wires be moved for a chest x-ray during tube placement?
To avoid artifacts and allow accurate diagnosis.
61
Why might urinary catheterization be needed post-op?
→ To assist in healing or eliminate urine in incontinence.
62
What’s the most common risk associated with urinary catheters?
Urinary tract infections (UTIs).
63
Which types of catheters are used for short-term vs. longer-term?
Plastic/rubber for short-term, PVC/silicone for up to 3 months.
64
Where should the urine collection container be positioned during patient transport?
Below the level of the bladder.
65
Why must backflow of urine be avoided during patient transport?
It can lead to infection.
66
Name three ways oxygen can be administered.
Nasal cannula, oxygen masks, or mechanical ventilators.
67
Why must oxygen be kept away from flames?
Oxygen supports combustion and increases fire risk.
68
What is the function of a chest tube?
To remove air or fluid from the thoracic cavity.
69
What do NG and NI/NE tubes help remove from the body?
Gastric secretions or air.
70
What contrast material use can GI tubes assist with?
Water-soluble contrast for diagnostic imaging.
71
Why must urinary collection containers be kept below bladder level?
→ To prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by backflow.
72
Why is sterile technique necessary during urinary catheterization?
→ To avoid introducing infection into the urinary tract.
73
What is the function of continual access tubes?
Long-term care for medication administration, blood draws, or nutrition.
74
What’s the first step the radiographer should take before bringing a patient to the radiographic department?
→ Review the patient’s chart.
75
List at least three key pieces of info found in the chart that assist with assessment.
Admitting diagnosis/nurse notes, x-ray prep, lab results, and need for oxygen.
76
What are two main ways the radiographer can assess a patient’s current condition in real time?
Observation and listening.
77
What three areas must the radiographer assess to provide safe and effective care?
Severity of injury, motor control, and need for equipment/accessories.
78
What questions should be asked to ensure the patient can be safely positioned for imaging?
→ Can the patient move? Can the area be imaged with less pain? Will supports improve comfort/safety?
79
What are objective signs?
Observable indicators like color, temperature, and skin moisture.
80
What does pale, cool skin in a patient indicate?
Diaphoresis (possible weakness or distress).
81
What does hot, dry skin indicate in a febrile patient?
Fever.
82
What does cyanosis (blue lips, nails, mucosa) signal?
Oxygen deficiency — urgent medical attention needed.
83
Why is it important to assess a patient's gross and fine motor control?
To avoid injury and evaluate physical capabilities for positioning.
84
What is the difference between gross and fine motor control?
Gross = large movements (walking); Fine = small precise tasks (buttoning a shirt).
85
What are subjective signs, and why are they important?
Patient-reported feelings like pain or weakness — just as important as objective signs.
86
What are the four vital signs a radiographer may assist in measuring?
→ Body temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, arterial blood pressure.
87
List at least five sites where body temperature can be measured.
→ Mouth, rectum, axilla, bladder, heart chamber, auditory canal, temporal artery.
88
What condition is indicated by an elevated body temperature?
→ Fever (often due to infection).
89
List three symptoms that may accompany a fever.
→ General malaise, increased pulse/respiratory rate, flushed/hot/dry skin.
90
What is the average normal oral body temperature for adults?
98.6°F
91
What is the rectal temperature range for adults?
99.1°F – 99.6°F
92
What is the axillary temperature range for adults?
97.6°F – 98.1°F
93
What is the normal rectal (tympanic) range for infants and kids up to age 4?
97.9°F – 100.4°F
94
What is the temperature range for children aged 5–13 years?
97.8°F – 98.6°F
95
When during the day is body temperature typically the lowest?
In the early morning.
96
What trend is seen in elderly body temperatures compared to others?
Lower than younger individuals.
97
What is the most commonly palpated pulse site?
→ Radial pulse (wrist, base of thumb).
98
List the five most readily palpated pulse points.
→ Radial, carotid, temporal, femoral, popliteal.
99
Where is the apical pulse located and how is it evaluated?
→ Apex of the heart, evaluated with a stethoscope.
100
What factors influence a person’s pulse rate?
→ Age, sex, exertion, position, and overall health.
101
Name three conditions or situations that can cause an elevated pulse rate.
→ Fever, shock, drug/alcohol use, heart disease, exertion.
102
What is the normal pulse range for men
68-75 bpm
103
What is the normal pulse range for women
72-80 bpm
104
What is the normal pulse range for children
70-100 bpm
105
What is the normal pulse range for infants
100-160 bpm
106
What is the primary purpose of respiration?
To deliver oxygen to cells and remove carbon dioxide.
107
What is the general term for difficult or labored breathing?
Dyspnea.
108
List four symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply.
→ Cyanosis, diaphoresis, retracted intercostal spaces, neck vein distention.
109
Why are sitting and semi-Fowler positions helpful for dyspneic patients?
They ease breathing by improving lung expansion.
110
Name at least four terms used to describe abnormal respiration.
→ Uneven, stridor, stertorous, tachypnea, orthopnea, oligopnea, spasmodic.
111
What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
→ 12–18 breaths per minute.
112
What is the normal respiratory rate for young children?
→ Up to 30 breaths per minute.
113
Why should respirations be counted while still holding the wrist after pulse?
→ To avoid altering the patient’s breathing pattern due to awareness.
114
What two additional characteristics should be observed when assessing respiration?
→ Pattern (even/uneven) and depth (normal, shallow, deep).
115
what's strident?
shrill grating sound
116
whats orthopnic
difficulty breathing while recumbent
117
whats oligopnic
abnormally shallow/ slow
118
What is the normal adult systolic and diastolic blood pressure range?
Systolic: 90–120 mm Hg; Diastolic: 60–80 mm Hg.
119
When is blood pressure within vessels at its highest?
During systole (ventricular contraction).
120
What equipment is used to measure blood pressure?
→ A sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope.
121
Where should the lower edge of the BP cuff be placed?
Just above the antecubital fossa.
122
What is the first sound heard during blood pressure measurement and what does it indicate?
→ The systolic pressure.
123
What does it mean if the sound becomes softer and disappears?
→ That’s the diastolic pressure.
124
What are signs of hypertension?
→ Consistently above 140/90 mm Hg; risk of cardiac, renal, and brain damage.
125
Define orthostatic hypotension.
→ A sudden drop in BP when rising from a recumbent position.
126
What are the four vital signs a radiographer should be able to assess?
→ Temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.
127
What’s the normal adult oral temperature?
→ 98.6°F.
128
How do axillary and rectal temperatures compare to oral temp?
→ Axillary is 0.5°F–1°F lower, rectal is 0.5°F–1°F higher.
129
What does the pulse represent?
→ The expansion and contraction of an artery due to blood flow.
130
What does systolic pressure represent?
→ Heart contraction (top number).
131
what is the normal systolic range
100-120
132
What does diastolic pressure represent?
→ Heart relaxation (bottom number).
133
what is a normal diastolic range
60-80
134
1. What is the difference between a side effect and a toxic effect of a medication?
A side effect is a harmless, unintended effect that may occur in some individuals. A toxic effect results from overdose, sensitivity, or poor metabolism and may require an antidote.
135
2. What is an allergic reaction?
An allergic reaction is an abnormal, acquired immune response to a substance (allergen) that usually does not trigger a response in most people.
136
3. What is required before an allergic reaction can occur?
Sensitization—the initial exposure to the allergen.
137
. Name three examples of allergic reactions.
Hay fever, eczema, bronchial asthma.
138
How can allergens enter the body?
Through contact, ingestion, inhalation, or injection.
139
Why are powdered latex gloves riskier than non-powdered gloves?
Powdered gloves release latex protein particles into the air, increasing inhalation and contact with body membranes.
140
What types of medical equipment can contain latex?
Disposable gloves, syringes, stethoscopes, catheters, tourniquets, and many others.
141
What are the three common types of reactions to latex?
Irritant contact dermatitis, Allergic contact dermatitis, Latex allergy (immediate hypersensitivity)
142
What causes irritant contact dermatitis?
Irritated, dry, itchy skin due to glove use, repeated handwashing, or chemicals. It’s not a true allergy.
143
What are symptoms of allergic contact dermatitis?
Skin blisters or rash beginning 24–48 hours after contact and spreading from the site.
144
What is latex allergy and how severe can it be?
It’s an immediate hypersensitivity that can cause life-threatening reactions like shock
145
What are mild symptoms of latex allergy
Skin redness, hives, itching
146
What are severe symptoms of latex allergy
Wheezing, difficulty breathing, and potentially anaphylaxis.
147
What’s the difference between a side effect and a toxic effect of medication?
→ A side effect is usually harmless and may not require stopping the medication, but a toxic effect is due to overdose, sensitivity, or poor metabolism and may require an antidote.
148
How is an allergy defined?
→ It’s an abnormal, acquired immune response to a substance (allergen) that normally wouldn’t trigger a reaction.
149
What must happen before a true allergic reaction can occur?
→ Initial sensitization to the allergen must occur.
150
Name at least three ways allergens can enter the body.
→ Contact, ingestion, inhalation, injection.
151
Which medical products are most associated with latex allergies in radiology?
→ Latex gloves, catheters, syringes, tourniquets, and contrast media.
152
What distinguishes irritant contact dermatitis from allergic contact dermatitis?
→ Irritant dermatitis causes dry, itchy irritation without involving the immune system, while allergic dermatitis involves delayed hypersensitivity and often causes blisters.
153
How fast can an anaphylactic reaction occur and what are early symptoms?
→ Within minutes. Early signs include itching, wheezing, throat tightness, dyspnea, and hypotension.
154
What is the radiographer’s role during an anaphylactic emergency?
→ Maintain the airway, call a code, summon the radiologist, and stay with the patient.
155
What types of latex reactions are considered true allergies?
→ Allergic contact dermatitis (delayed hypersensitivity) and latex allergy (immediate hypersensitivity).
156
What is the recommended action for patients who take metformin and are getting iodinated contrast?
→ Follow ACR guidelines: some may continue, others must hold the drug before and 48 hours after the procedure depending on kidney function.
157
What should be done for vomiting patients to prevent aspiration?
→ Provide a basin and tissues; if recumbent, turn the head to the side.
158
What is the ACR’s definition of an emergency in radiology?
→ A sudden change in a patient’s condition requiring immediate medical intervention.
159
What is the difference between a side effect and a toxic effect of a medication?
A side effect is a harmless or mild unintended reaction, while a toxic effect results from sensitivity, overdose, or poor metabolism and can be harmful or life-threatening.
160
What is an allergy, and what must happen first before an allergic reaction occurs?
An allergy is an abnormal, acquired immune response. Sensitization (initial exposure) must happen before a reaction occurs.
161
Name three ways allergens can be introduced into the body.
Contact, ingestion (e.g., food), inhalation (e.g., dust, pollen), or injection (e.g., drugs).
162
What are the three types of reactions to latex?
Irritant contact dermatitis, allergic contact dermatitis (delayed hypersensitivity), and latex allergy (immediate hypersensitivity).
163
How does irritant contact dermatitis differ from allergic contact dermatitis?
Irritant contact dermatitis is not an allergic reaction and is caused by skin irritation. Allergic contact dermatitis involves an immune response and delayed hypersensitivity.
164
Why are diabetic patients taking metformin monitored closely before contrast administration?
Because iodinated contrast agents can affect kidney function and metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis.
165
What are the two ACR recommendations for patients taking metformin?
Category 1: No need to stop metformin if eGFR is above 30 and no AKI.
Category 2: Discontinue metformin for 48 hours if AKI is present or arterial catheter is used.
166
What defines a medical emergency?
A sudden change in a patient's condition requiring immediate medical intervention.
167
How should an unsplinted fracture be handled during imaging?
Move with great care; support areas proximal and distal to the fracture site.
168
Why is it important not to remove a splint unless directed by a physician?
Removing it without supervision may cause further injury or pain; some splints are radiolucent and safe to image with.
169
What risks are associated with rib fractures?
Pain with breathing, and potential lung or heart lacerations.
170
What is the concern with pelvic fractures?
High risk of hemorrhage and injury to abdominal organs.
171
What imaging protocol should be followed for patients with possible spinal injuries?
Use a horizontal (cross-table) lateral projection; the patient should not be moved until evaluated by a physician.
172
What method is used to move a patient with spinal injury if lateral imaging is required?
Logrolling method.
173
When can a patient with a spinal injury be repositioned?
Only when a physician is present and has cleared the patient.
174
what is epistaxis
nosebleed
175
What is the best position for a patient experiencing epistaxis (nosebleed)?
Sitting or Fowler position with cold cloths applied to nose and neck.
176
What should a radiographer do if a patient is experiencing postural hypotension?
Assist the patient slowly, watch for signs of faintness or weakness.
177
What is the difference between objective and subjective vertigo?
Objective: the room spins around the person.
Subjective: the person feels like they are spinning.
178
How should patients experiencing vertigo be protected?
Use side rails and safety belts to prevent falls.
179
What are helpful positions for a patient experiencing syncope (fainting)?
Sitting down or placed in recumbent or Trendelenburg position.
180
What position helps increase blood flow to the brain during syncope?
Bending forward with the head between the knees or elevating the legs.
181
What are the radiographer's responsibilities during a convulsion?
Prevent injury, do not restrain, loosen tight clothing, move objects away, do not insert anything into the mouth.
182
What’s the difference between a petit mal seizure and a grand mal seizure?
Petit mal: brief, subtle with eye/muscle fluttering.
Grand mal: full body spasms, loss of consciousness, may fall.
183
What should the radiographer do during a grand mal seizure?
Remove objects that could cause injury, loosen clothing, and turn the head to the side to allow secretions to drain.
184
What is unconsciousness?
A state of being partially or completely unaware of external stimuli.
185
What sense is believed to be the last to go when a patient is unconscious?
hearing
186
What is typically true of patients with acute abdomen?
They usually have severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and may be in shock.
187
How is shock defined?
A general condition caused by diminished peripheral blood flow and insufficient oxygen supply to tissues.
188
What are physical signs of a patient in shock?
Pale appearance, rapid weak pulse, shallow breathing, and rapid drop in blood pressure.
189
How should a patient in shock be positioned?
Keep them warm and flat, or in the Trendelenburg position
190
What is respiratory failure?
The inability of the lungs to perform ventilatory functions.
191
What are causes of acute respiratory distress?
Impaired gas exchange or airway obstruction.
192
What are causes of chronic respiratory failure?
Diseases like emphysema, bronchitis, asthma, or cystic fibrosis.
193
What does CAB stand for in CPR?
Circulation, Airway, Breathing.
194
How many compressions per minute are recommended in CPR?
About 100 compressions per minute.
195
What follows 30 chest compressions in CPR?
Two rescue breaths.
196
What is a stroke (CVA)?
An interruption of blood supply to the brain due to occlusion or rupture of a cerebral vessel.
197
What is a TIA?
Transient ischemic attack – a mild and temporary blockage causing symptoms like blindness in one eye or weakness.
198
What symptoms suggest a more serious stroke?
Sudden loss of consciousness, hemiparesis, speech disturbance, and cool, sweaty skin.
199
What positioning should be used for a patient experiencing a stroke?
Head and shoulders elevated or lateral recumbent position with an open airway.
