Patient Presentations Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

Abnormal protein causing neurodegenerative disorders. “Spongiform” degeneration. Polymorphic changes on chromosome 20, at residue 129. 100% fatality.

A

Prion diseases

PrPsc

Normal has more alpha, is soluble, present on cell surfact. PrPsc is more beta, insoluble, present in vacuoles.

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2
Q

Most common prion disease

A

CJD

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3
Q

Prion disease with **early onset and longer course. **

A

familial fCJD

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4
Q

A 60 y/o patient comes in with behavioral changes, disordered sleep, and vision/motor changes. Patient’s family complains of **rapid cognitive decline. **

A

sCJD

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5
Q

A patient from Papua New Guinea comes to you “shivering”, saying he ate a family member 40 years ago. Your examination reveals tremors, ataxia, and _amyloid plaques in the brain. _

A

Kuru

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6
Q

True/false: Scrapie, a disease where sheep scrape their coats and do excessive lip-smacking, have hopping gait and seizures . . . is NOT transmissible to humans.

A

True

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7
Q

When “mad cow disease” gets transmitted to humans, it is called . . .

A

nvCJD

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8
Q

You do a lymphoid biopsy of your patient’s tonsils and discover PrPsc. What disease most likely caused this?

A

Your patient probably ate a cow and got infected with nvCJD

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9
Q

Your 28 y/o patient presents with bizarre psychiatric and behavior symptoms. You order an EEG and MRI and see a pulvinar sign as well as **florid plaques. **The diagnosis is confirmbed by biopsy of lymph tissue.

A

nvCJD

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10
Q

What disease is NOT destroyed by UV light, EtOH, disinfectants, ammonia . . . and can be transmitted by transplants or contaminated neurosurgical instruments.

A

iatrogenic CJD

MUST: USE DISPOSABLE instruments or steam autoclave, bleach, etc

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11
Q

You see a large brick-shaped DNA virus. It is most likely a

A

poxvirus

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12
Q

List 4 major poxviruses

A

smallpox, monkeypox, moluscum contagiosum, orf

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13
Q

A patient comes in with a history of malaise, high fever, vomiting, and severe HA. She says that 2-3 days later, a vesicular rash appeared on her face, palms and soles. When you examine her, you find lesions on her trunk with umbilicated centers. All of the lesions are in the same stage of development.

A

smallpox

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14
Q

Airborne and contact precautions

  • disease is communicable from onset until 7-10 days.
  • isolate until scabs separate
A

smallpox management

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15
Q

A child comes in from a rural tribe in Africa. He presents with a rash that looks like small-pox, but you notice he has puffy cheeks (**lymphadenopathy). **Upon further questioning, he says that he and his pet monkey were playing with a rat.

A

monkeypox

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16
Q

Your patient presenting with a vesicular rash works at a zoo where they train prairie dogs and gambian giant rats. What disease is your top differential?

A

monkey pox

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17
Q

You are examining an HIV patient, and discover multiple umbilicated skin papules that measure >1cm. When you open a lesion, is contains *white, waxy curd-like core. *

A

molluscum contagiosum

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18
Q

A patient comes into your office with reddish nodules on their hands. They work at a slaughter house _(sheep and goats). _

A

Orf, will self-heal in 3-6 weeks.

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19
Q

An 18 y/o male presents with purulent discharge, dysuria, and urethritis. He reports unprotected sexual activity a week ago. You suspect gonorrhea. How do you treat?

A

Single dose cephalosporin.

**Widespread penicillin resistance. **

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20
Q

“arthritis-dermatitis syndrome”, characterized by *asymmetrical polyarthritis and tenosynovitis. *Also may have hemorrhagic papules and pustules.

A

disseminated gonorrhea

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21
Q

You suspect your patient has gonorrhea. What specific kind of media should you ask the lab to use?

A

Thayer martin

but nucleic acid probes are most commonly used for diagnosis.

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of NGU urethritis?

A

chlamydia

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23
Q

What causes a

  • *proctitis:** rectal strictures, fistulae, abscess
  • *reactive arthritis:** immune mediated ASEPTIC arthritis
A

chlamydia

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24
Q

In this disease, there is an asymptomatic papule/ulcer that occurs 3-30 days post infection. Days to weeks later, there is adenopathy with progress to an **inflammatory mass. **

A

Lymphogranuloma Venerum

Chlamydia

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25
What is the best test for diagnosing Chlamydia?
rapid swab, Nucleic acid amplification test
26
What would you give the following for? **azithro **_1g single dose_ **doxy **_100 mg bid, 7-14 days_
27
Your pregnant patient presents with **thick yellow vaginal discharge**, and *vulvovaginal irritation.* You are most worried about what complications?
Likely trichomonas - premature rupture of membranes - low birth weight
28
Diagnosis of trichomonas
wet prep
29
What STI would treat with **metronidazole** 2g single dose or 500 mg BID for a week?
trichomonas and bacterial vaginosis (week)
30
Your patient complains of a **tender papule** on the genitals. They said it became **pustular** and **formed a painful ulcer. ** Upon exam, you find *tender inguinal lymph nodes. *When you do a culture, you discover gram - rods in a *"school fish pattern"*
Chancroid
31
Your _sexually active 20 y/o_ female patient presents with increased *vaginal discharge* that has a **"fishy odor".** The gram stain shows **"clue cells"** and you also do a vaginal swab.
bacterial vaginosis
32
Your _25 y/o patient_ comes in saying that a _month_ ago he noticed a **painless papul**e on his mouth. It eventually eroded and *went away 4 weeks later*. Yesterday, he noticed a **maculopapular rash on his palms and soles.** They are starting to coalesce and form **condylomata lata. **
primary syphilis (inital inoculation) becoming secondary syphilis
33
What stage of syphilis is characterized by neurologic disease (**endarderitis obliterants** \>\> multiple infacts, progressive neurlogical deficits, seizures).
tertiary
34
What does PARESIS stand for in tertiary syphilis?
parenchymatous disease ## Footnote **P**ersonality **A**ffect **R**eflexes **E**yes (argyll robinson) **S**ensorium **I**ntellect **S**peech
35
what is tabes dorsalis?
demyelination of dorsal root ganglia
36
UNILATERAL deafness, CN VII and VIII palsies, aortitis/aneurysm formation, gummas ARE ALL SEEN WITH
tertiary syphilis
37
When is RPR testing for syphilis most reliable?
secondary phase ## Footnote **confirmatory tests are FTA-ABS and MHA-TP**
38
A positive VDRL is proof of . . .
CNS involvement in syphlis
39
How do you treat syphilis?
PENICILLIN IM injections (extremely painful)
40
Most likely cause of epiglottitis? ## Footnote ***Characteristic drooling, dysphonia***
H. influenzae type b Treat with ampicillin and ceph
41
True/false: you should use prophylaxis in household contacts who are **\<4 y/o** if their sibling has epiglottis
TRUE
42
Why do adults usually not get croup? ## Footnote ***characteristic inspiratory stridor***
B/c airway is bigger. Most likely caused by parainfluenza (also RSV)
43
Characteristic "steeple sign" and spasmodic cough is seen with?
croup
44
Acute localized otitis, is usually caused by
staph aureus
45
otitis externa "swimmer's ear" is usually caused by? also "Malignant" otitis externa affecting elderly and diabetics?
pseudomonas
46
What is the most common cause of otitis media?
strep pneumo ALSO H. flu, moraxella, mycoplasma, viruses
47
Etiology of sinusitis? 50% of cases caused by
**strep pneumo and H flu. ** nosocomial more likely staph and gram neg. immunocompromised is gram neg and fungi.
48
A productive cough on **most days** during at least _3 consecutive month_s for more than **2 consecutive years. **
**chronic bronchitis definition**
49
At what ANC is the risk of infection significant?
\<500
50
What are opportunistic pathogens in **_defective cellular immunity?_**
Bacteria: *listeria, myobacterium, nocardia, legionella, salmonella* Fungi: *cryptococcus, histoplasma, coccidioidis, pnerumocystis* Virus: *VZV, HSV, CMV* Helminths: *strongyloides*
51
When do you see defects in **_humoral immunity?_**
agammaglobulinemia, multiple myeloma, CLL, hypogammaglobulinemia, splenectomized patients, sickle cell ## Footnote **offending organisms are ENCAPSULATED** *strep pneumo, H flu, niesseria*
52
Should you treat a neutropenic patient empirically if fever is the only symptom?
yes
53
What should you consider when selecting antimicrobial treatment for neutropenic patients?
**gram neg coverage is mandatory**
54
An HIV patient is at risk for what when their CD4 \<200?
PCP
55
An HIV patient is at risk for what when their CD4 count is \<100?
Cryptococcal, MAI, CMV, toxoplasma, Cryptosporidium
56
How is a genital HSV lesion different in an HIV patient?
the lesions may coalesce
57
List two cutaneous infections that can occur in an HIV patient
1. bacillary angiomatosis **cutaneous and visceral (liver) disease buy bartonella henselae** 2. molluscum contagiosum **warts (poxvirus), umbilicated lesions**
58
Your HIV patient describes **progressive visual loss, blurring and "floaters." **What is the most likely diagnosis?
CMV retinitis
59
What disease can cause **acalculous cholecystitis** in an HIV patient?
CMV and cryptosporidium \*CMV can also affect the entire GI system
60
What causes ascending weakness and loss of reflexes, flaccid paralysis in an HIV patient? **polyradiculopathy**
CMV
61
When should you being prophylaxis for PJP?
CD4 \<200 BACTRIM \*note *also protects against toxoplasma*
62
When should you begin prophylaxis for MAI in an HIV patient?
CD4 \<100 ## Footnote **azithro**
63
When should you give prophylactic isoniazid to HIV patients?
*all with a positive PPD or close contacts of a patient with TB*
64
adminisitration of pre-formed antibodies to treat or prevent infection =
**passive immunization**
65
stimulation of an immune response by administration of antigens =
**active immunization** **"vaccination"**
66
IgG and IgM Route of admin: SQ, ID, IM
**Systemic immunity**
67
IgA Route of admin: oral, intranasal
mucosal immunity
68
What is a component that increases the immune response to an antigen called?
adjuvant
69
Which age category does not respond well to polysaccharide vaccines?
infants \*b/c need T-cell help. Wait until 2 yrs
70
The minimal interval between priming and boosting with vaccines
4 months
71
Response: - **recruit T-cell help** - high antibody response - induce immunlogic memory
**T cell dependent response** vs no immune memory, only B cell response
72
Conjugating polysaccharides to larger carrier proteins . . .
recruites helper T cells
73
True/false: **_live viral vaccines should NOT be given during pregnancy or to immunocompromised hosts. _**
true
74
All persons \>6 months, annually should get . . .
the **flu shot** **_Children \<9 yrs_** should receive **_2 doses_** the first time, separated by **4 weeks.**
75
the LAIV
- quadrivalent - intranasal - use in 2-49 yrs **note: history of asthma/wheezing is contraindication**
76
Which vaccine should be given to the following: **- age \>65** **- asplenia ** **-2 wks before splenectomy** **- CSF leaks** **- chronic illness (diabetes)** **- long-term care residents** **- immunocompromised: HIV, chronic steroids, malignancy**
pneumococall vaccine NOT approved for children \<2
77
which penumococcal vaccine should be given to infants?
pneumococall CONJUGATE vaccine
78
What is the difference between Gardasil and cervarix?
Gardasil is **quadrivalent** Cervarix just 16 and 18 males: gardasil only
79
List examples of beta-lactams ## Footnote **cell-wall synthesis inhibitors**
penicillins, cephalosporins ## Footnote *inhibit enzymes that cross-link peptidoglycan side chains*
80
List an example of a glycopeptide ## Footnote **cell wall synthesis inhibitors**
vancomycin ## Footnote *inhibit extension of peptidoglycan chain*
81
List classes of inhibitors of protein sythesis:
macrolides tretracycline aminoglycosides oxazolidinones (linezolid)
82
List inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis
fluoroquinolones rifampin
83
List inhibitors of metabolism
sulfonamides trimethoprim
84
Which antibiotics - require good host immune response - slower response - for less serious infections
**bacteriostatic**
85
What kind of antibiotic should be used in immunocompromised?
bacteriocidal
86
What should you do after isolating bacteria in culture?
do susceptibility testing ## Footnote *MIC, E-test, disc*
87
True/false: the concentration of antibiotic should be greater than MIC.
true
88
What is an example of an antibiotic that cannot cross the BBB?
aminoglycoside
89
Which antibiotics have the highest CSF conc?
3rd gen cephalosporins
90
Which antibiotics should be avoided in pregnancy?
Tetracycline: discolored teeth Tigecycline: teratogenic Amioglycoside: hearing abnormalities Fluoroquinolones: cartilage defects
91
What antibiotics are safe in PG?
1. penicillins (except ticarcillin) 2. cephs 3. erythomycin/azithro 4. dapto/clindamycin 5. amphotericin B
92
Rapid acetylators are more common in
asians
93
Which drugs inhibit P450 metabolism?
macrolides azoles protease inhibitors cipro
94
What category are the following potential bioterrosism agents: **anthrax** **plague** **tularemia** **smallpox** **viral hemorrhagic fever** **botulinum toxin**
category **A**
95
What category are the following potential bioterrosism agents: ## Footnote **brucellosis, psittacosis** **Q fever** **Typhus** **Burkholderia** **Viral encephalitis** **Food/water safety** **staph enterotoxin B** **Ricin** **C. perfringens**
category B
96
What category are the following potential bioterrosism agents: ## Footnote **nipa virus** **hantavirus**
Category C
97
why would you suspect a bioterrorism incident?
- epidemic curve that rises and falls during a short period of time - clusters of patients arriving from a single locale
98
What kind of isolation precuations should you use with smallpox?
contact and airborne
99
A patient comes in with a **small papule** that has progressed to a *_necrotic ulcer with eschar_*. The patient says that the lesion is **painless. **What are you suspecting?
anthrax
100
Illness characterized by fever, fatigue, chest pain, and non-productive cough. After 1-3 days, abrupt onset of **respiratory distress** and **hemorrhagic mediastinitis.**
inhalation anthrax
101
What is empiric treatment of anthrax?
cipro or doxycycline \*if pregnant, give penicillin/amox
102
Post-exposure prophylaxis for anthrax includes . . .
antibiotics by gavage, for 30 days vaccine on days 1, 15
103
A 28 m/o male with a prior **history of eczema** presented with generalized papulovesicular rash on the face, neck, and upper extremities. Progressed to **umbilicated lesions.** Had contact with father (military) who had received smallpox vaccine 21 days earlier.
Eczema vaccinatum
104
What are the three most common **bacterial causes of **meningitis?
*strep pneumo, H flu, n. meningitidis*
105
Which hepatitis viruses cause acute hepatitis?
A through E
106
Which hepatitis viruses cause chronic hepatitis?
B,C, and D
107
Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted through the fecal/oral route?
A and E
108
Which hepatitis can cause fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy? 3rd trimester
Hepatitis E
109
Which hepatitis requires HBV to replicate?
Hepatitis D
110
What is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis?
Group B strep. ## Footnote *onset first week of life, pneumonia*
111
How do you prevent GBS and neonatal sepsis?
screen women late in PG give antibiotics to GBS + during labor
112
What is the most common cause of _late onset_ neonatal sepsis?
**coagulase negative staph.** * onset AFTER frist week of life* * meningitis most common presentation*
113
What neonatal infection presents with **hearing loss, **microcephaly, **periventricular calcifications?**
CMV
114
What neonatal infection presents with **cataracts, blueberry muffin baby, heart defects, etc?**
Rubella
115
Hydrops fetalis d/t fetal anema and CHF can be caused by which infection during PG.
parvovirus B19
116
What should you suspect if your pregnant patient says that she ate raw meat and changed the cat litter box?
**toxopasmosis** _TRIAD:_ chorioretinitis intracranial calcification hydrocephalus
117