Patrol DPE

Question 1

If pursuit or emergency driving above the speed limit is determined to be necessary, what factors must be considered?

Answer 1

Degree of danger to the public, weather and road conditions, pursuit vehicle characteristics, present and potential vehicle and pedestrian traffic, present and potential roadway obstacle, experience/training of the pursuit vehicle operator, dangerous or potential dangerous intersections along the route, facilities located along the pursuit route (schools, hospital, shopping centers), reason for the pursuit

Question 2

What respond code is used to respond to alarm activations?

Answer 2

Code 2

Question 3

At the AFRL if a test area light in inoperable, off, and no warning flag or sign exists, how will you treat the test area?

Answer 3

Treat the test area as AMBER

Question 4

At the AFRL, what does a GREEN test area light mean?

Answer 4

Indicates the area is free of hazardous operations or materials

Question 5

At the AFRL, what does a AMBER test area light mean?

Answer 5

Indicates a hazardous condition exists

Question 6

At the AFRL, what does a RED test area light mean?

Answer 6

Indicates a highly hazardous condition or operations is occurring in the test area

Question 7

At the AFRL, if entry into a test area marked with a RED light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

Answer 7

Contact the Site Operations Control Center and request an escort and approval by a Test Conductor

Question 8

During non-duty hours at the AFRL, under what circumstances by a patrolman enter a test area controlled by an AMBER light?

Answer 8

Patrolman may enter the area if suspicious or unauthorized activity is suspected.

Question 9

During duty hours at the AFRL, if entry to a test area marked with an AMBER light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

Answer 9

Contact the Site Operations Control Center to request access

Question 10

At the AFRL, which test areas will not be entered?

Answer 10

Test Area I-30 (Propellant Lab), Area I-39 (Toxic Fuel Farm), Area I-38 (Environmental Storage Complex), and Area I-40 (Liquid Propellant Storability Complex)

Question 11

What actions will the patrolman take if building 8451/Chemical Lab or building 8471/Electric propulsion Lab are found unsecured?

Answer 11

Do not enter the building, notify the ECC, and maintain a safe distance until the facility manager arrives.

Question 12

Who may authorize off-base pursuits?

Answer 12

Flight chief or higher authority

Question 13

What are the four types of vehicle passes that allow POV’s on the flightline?

Answer 13

AFFTC FM 5436 (white pass with red number, blue pass, green pass) and AFFTC FM 5292 red pass

Question 14

What actions will be taken when an individual attempts to drive a POV onto the flightline without a vehicle pass?

Answer 14

Deny entry and direct the individual to Base Ops to obtain one

Question 15

When the alternate ECC is activated, which patrol will stand up and man the alternate ECC until properly relieved?

Answer 15

Sierra 2

Question 16

When a pursuit begins, what information should be relayed by the patrolman to the ECC?

Answer 16

Location, direction, speed of travel, reason for pursuit, vehicle description, license number of occupants, traffic conditions

Question 17

True or False: Patrols are authorized to engage in vehicle pursuits with additional passengers such as prisoners, witnesses, suspects, or ride along participants, as long as the patrolman receives permission from the flight sergeant?

Answer 17

False

Question 18

During a vehicle pursuit, if the violator should abandon his vehicle and flee on foot, what actions will the patrolman take?

Answer 18

Remove the patrol vehicle ignition keys, quickly check the violator’s vehicle for occupants, and give location, description of the care and its occupants, as well as the suspects direction of travel to the ECC

Question 19

Why should patrolman ensure to turn their emergency lights and sirens off prior to arriving on scene?

Answer 19

Emergency lights and sirens may alert the suspect, and put SF personnel, victims or bystanders in peril

Question 20

The 412 SFS will provide armed escorts for funds transfers over what amount?

Answer 20

$25,000

Question 21

During a funds escort what things will SF personnel never do?

Answer 21

Carry funds containers, provide transportation, and have access to funds

Question 22

While conducting building checks what actions should you take if you discover a building with signs of forced entry?

Answer 22

Take cover in a position to observe the building, contact BDOC, and wait for backup to arrive. Once backup has arrived devise a plan and clear the building.

Question 23

While conducting building checks what actions should you take if you discover an unsecure building?

Answer 23

Take cover in a position to observe the building, contact BDOC, and wait for the building custodian and backup to arrive. Once backup has arrived devise a plan and clear the building

Question 24

What circumstance will the AF FM 3545A, Incident Report, be filled out for unsecured buildings?

Answer 24

When items are missing, there are signs of forced entry, or a protection level asset

Question 25

What form will be used to record the names of people who enter and exit crime scenes?

Answer 25

AF FM 1109 Visitor Log

Question 26

If while questioning a complainant, witness, or victim at a crime scene you begin to suspect someone of committing a crime what actions should you take?

Answer 26

Advise the individual of their rights prior to any questioning

Question 27

If evacuation is required during a major accident what direction will personnel be directed to evacuate?

Answer 27

Upwind or crosswind towards a point designated by the IC

Question 28

What are the curfew hours for juveniles on EAFB?

Answer 28

2300-0600 Sunday through Thursday 2400-0600 Fridays and Saturdays

Question 29

Under what circumstances may juveniles be outside their quarters after curfew?

Answer 29

When in the company of a responsible adult older than 21 having the care, custody and charge of the juvenile or when proceeding directly to or from any authorized base or social activity.

Question 30

What authority does Rule 302(b) of the MCM and Article 7(b) of the UCMJ give to security forces members?

Answer 30

The authority to apprehend individuals.

Question 31

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 1?

Answer 31

By observing all applicable traffic laws, and without the use of emergency lights or sirens

Question 32

True or False: If the patrolman becomes aware of circumstances unknown to ECC, the patrolman may upgrade his/her response to Code 2 or Code 3?

Answer 32

True

Question 33

Calls requiring immediate response to non-life threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

Answer 33

Code 2

Question 34

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 2?

Answer 34

By observing all applicable traffic laws and using emergency lights only.

Question 35

Calls require immediate response to life-threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

Answer 35

Code 3

Question 36

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 3?

Answer 36

By utilizing emergency lights and sirens

Question 37

If responding to a call that could put SF personnel, victims, or bystanders in peril, when should responding patrols turn their emergency lights and sirens off?

Answer 37

Turn them off at a safe distance from the scene

Question 38

What gives security forces personnel the authority to administer oaths to suspects, subjects, witnesses, and victims?

Answer 38

Article 136(b) of the UCMJ

Question 39

What four types of legislative jurisdiction apply to military installations and facilities?

Answer 39

Exclusive, Concurrent, Proprietary, and Patial

Question 40

What type of legislative jurisdiction gives the federal government sole authority to legislate?

Answer 40

Exclusive

Question 41

Which type of legislative jurisdiction exists when both federal and state governments retain all their legislative authority?

Answer 41

Concurrent

Question 42

Which type of legislative jurisdiction has the military exercise the rights of property owner only?

Answer 42

Proprietary

Question 43

Which type of legislative jurisdiction gives both the federal and state governments some authority, but neither has exclusive power?

Answer 43

Partial

Question 44

Which article of the UCMJ states exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction?

Answer 44

Article 2

Question 45

Which article of the UCMJ states that the UCMJ applies in all places and there is no restriction on where the case may be heard?

Answer 45

Article 5

Question 46

What four authorities do Security Forces members have?

Answer 46

Detain, Apprehend, Report, and Correct

Question 47

What does the Assimilative Crimes Act allow?

Answer 47

Allows for the adoption of state law in the absence of applicable federal law

Question 48

What is probable cause?

Answer 48

Reasonable belief that an offense has been or is being committed and the person to be apprehended committed or is committing it

Question 49

What is reasonable belief?

Answer 49

There is reliable information that reasonable, prudent person would rely on, which makes it more likely than not that something is true.

Question 50

What are the five ways SF members can establish reasonable belief?

Answer 50

SF member actually sees the person commit the crime, member gets the description from another SF member, member receives statement by a reliable person, a superior in the member's chain of command orders an apprehension, or a complainant or victim identifies the alleged perpetrator

Question 51

What are apprehensions based upon?

Answer 51

Probable cause

Question 52

For minor offenses, who may you release civilian offenders to?

Answer 52

Military sponsor, a relative or friend, or on their own recognizance

Question 53

What is the definition of custody?

Answer 53

The restraint of free movement

Question 54

Prior to asking any questions related to an offense under investigation, what must the SF member do?

Answer 54

Advise suspects of their rights against self-incrimination

Question 55

Active duty military will be advised of their rights in accordance with what?

Answer 55

Article 31 of the UCMJ

Question 56

Civilian personnel will be advised of their rights against self-incrimination in accordance with what?

Answer 56

Fifth Amendment of the Constitution

Question 57

Suspects on verified active orders will be advised their rights IAW what?

Answer 57

Article 31

Question 58

What is a spontaneous utterance?

Answer 58

When an individual contacted by SF personnel voluntarily make an incriminating statement

Question 59

Search authorizations will be completed via what form?

Answer 59

AF FM 1176 Authority to Search and Seize

Question 60

What is a search affidavit?

Answer 60

A statement of probable cause supporting the request for authorization to search and seize

Question 61

Who gives on base search authority

Answer 61

Installation Commander or Military Magistrate

Question 62

What is the definition of search?

Answer 62

An examination of a person, place, or thing with a view toward discovery of a crime or criminal intent

Question 63

What is a search incident to apprehension

Answer 63

SF may search incident to apprehension the space within the apprehended person's immediate control

Question 64

SF members seizing or receiving an item of evidential property will ensure to immediately record an affix what form to the property?

Answer 64

AF FM 52 Evidence tag

Question 65

Who is given the property receipt portion of the AF FM 52?

Answer 65

The person relinquishing the property

Question 66

In the event of evidence is explosive in nature, such as bulk explosives or military ordnance, who will SF contact for guidance to the safe handling, packaging, and storage of the explosives

Answer 66

EOD

Question 67

What form provides a log of visitors or personnel entering an area which the entry or exit is controlled

Answer 67

AF FM 1109 Visitor Register Log

Question 68

Which form is used to take written statements from suspects or accused persons, witnesses, or complainants?

Answer 68

AF FM 1168 statement

Question 69

Which form is used to obtain authorization to search and seize?

Answer 69

AF FM 1176

Question 70

What form is used to record investigations of major traffic accidents?

Answer 70

AF FM 1315 Accident Report

Question 71

What form is used to provide SF with information about pick-up orders or to place a restriction order on a military member?

Answer 71

AF FM 1361

Question 72

Which form is used to document when an individual consents freely and voluntarily to a search of their person or property?

Answer 72

AF FM 1364

Question 73

What form is used to acquire authority to make an apprehension in a private on-base dwelling?

Answer 73

AF FM 3226

Question 74

Which form is used to collect information on suspicious people or individuals contacted during routine operations who do not require any other administrative action?

Answer 74

AF FM 3907

Question 75

What three sources does military jurisdiction come from?

Answer 75

US Constitution, Federal Statutes, and International Law

Question 76

What articles of the UCMJ are punitive articles?

Answer 76

Articles 77-134

Question 77

Which copy of the DD FM 1408 is given to the violator or affixed to the vehicle if the operator is not present?

Answer 77

Pink Copy

Question 78

Which copy of the DD FM 1408 is used by the SF member to record details about the instructions issued to the violator, names of witnesses, and can be used to refresh the patrol members memory if the ticket is contested

Answer 78

Yellow copy

Question 79

Which copy of the DD FM 1408 is submitted through the channels to the violator's commander for action to be taken against the violator?

Answer 79

White copy

Question 80

Which form is used when it is determined an offender will be prosecuted for a minor offense before a U.S. magistrate

Answer 80

CVB 1805

Question 81

Which copy of the CVB 1805 will be forwarded by S5-R to the Central Violations Bureau?

Answer 81

White copy

Question 82

Which copy of the CMV 1805 is given to the violator

Answer 82

Yellow copy

Question 83

Which form is used to record tests and observations made of someone suspected of being involved in an incident where alcohol or drugs may be a factor?

Answer 83

DD FM 1920

Question 84

What information will be relayed to BDOC when an SF member initiates a traffic stop?

Answer 84

Stop location, vehicle description, license number, number of occupants, and reason for stop

Question 85

What type of report informs higher headquarters that an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2, or 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site?

Answer 85

Covered Wagon

Question 86

What is the definition of a PL 1 resource?

Answer 86

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the US or catastrophic consequences for the nation

Question 87

List two examples of a PL 1 resource

Answer 87

Nuclear Weapons, Aircraft designated to transport POTUS

Question 88

What is the definition of a PL 2 resource?

Answer 88

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in significant mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US

Question 89

List three examples of a PL 2 resource

Answer 89

None nuclear alert forces, expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems, or equipment, vital computer facilities, or intelligence gathering systems critical to US operational capability

Question 90

What is the definition of a PL 3 resource

Answer 90

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US

Question 91

List two examples of a PL 3 resource

Answer 91

weapons systems capable of being on alert status; selected command, control, and communications facilities, systems and equipment; intelligence gathering systems not critical to US operation capability

Question 92

What is the definition of a PL 4 resource

Answer 92

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction would adversely affect mission capability

Question 93

Under what circumstances is a vehicle considered abandoned?

Answer 93

If it is known the legal owner has departed the base by way of PCS orders, separation, or retirement; vehicle has expired or missing state registration; if the owner doesnt respond to abandon vehicle notices; or if the vehicle appears to be abandoned

Question 94

Which form is placed conspicuously on POV's that are considered to be abandoned

Answer 94

DD FM 2504

Question 95

How much time does an owner of a vehicle marked with an abandoned vehicle notice have to remove the vehicle before impoundment action is initiated?

Answer 95

3 days

Question 96

How much time do vehicle owners have to remove their vehicles that are left disabled on roadways or at an accident site before they are towed at the owners expense

Answer 96

24 hours

Question 97

Which code is used to check for outstanding wants and warrants on a person or vehicle?

Answer 97

Code 4

Question 98

What are three types of child abuse?

Answer 98

Physical, Sexual, Neglect

Question 99

How are duress words used

Answer 99

Used during normal conversation to indicate duress

Question 100

How often will duress words be changed

Answer 100

Every six months from the date of issue or when compromised

Question 101

TDY personnel may be granted unescorted entry into restricted areas when in possession of their home base RAB and an EAL authenticated by who?

Answer 101

Security Forces Supervisor (E-5/GS-7 or above)