PCMII Midterm Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

What goes in the S portion of the SOAP note?

A
CC
OLDCAAARTS
PMH, PSH
Meds, Alls
SH, FH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What goes in the O portion of soap note?

A

VS

Heart, Lungs, OSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is in O portion of a SOAP note?

A

CC: x3 diff diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What goes in the P portion of the SOAP note?

A
Any OMT done or planned
Any med recommendations
Followup
Immunizations
Life style changes
Screenings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who is given the influenza vaccine?
What type of vaccine do pregos get?
What type do >65 y/o get?

A

Give vaccine >6 months old
Pregos- inactivated influenza vaccine
>65 y/o- high does inactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many doses of Tdap do you give?
When do you give boosters?
What about pregos?

A

One dose of Tdap
Booster every 10 years of TD
Tdap for every pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many doses of varicella vaccine?
Who is contraindicated?
When do you give varicella zoster shot?

A

2 doses of varicella unless you have chickenpox
Don’t give to pregos or immunocompromised pt
Give varicella zoster at age 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When do you begin giving HPV vaccines?
How many doses?
When do you stop for males and females?

A

Begin at age 11
3 doses
Male-21
Female-26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who do you give the pneumococcal vaccine to?

When do you give the second dose?

A

Age 65, smokers, living in nursing home, or kidney problems

Second dose 5 years after vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who do you give the Hep A vaccine to?

Who do you give the Hep B vaccine to?

A

Hep A- homosexual males or travel to area affected by hep A

Hep B- health care workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who do you screen for abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

Age 65-74 if they ever smoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who do you screen for alcohol misuse?

What do you provide?

A

Screen >18 y/o

Provide behavioral counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do you begin mammograms?

How often?

A

Start at age 50, then every 2 years until 75 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do you begin and stop doing pap smears?

A

Begin at age 21 and do every 3 years until 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At what ages do you screen for colorectal cancer?

A

Age 50-75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who do you screen for diabetes?

A

Age 40-70 if overweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What age do you screen for HIV?

A

Age 15-65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the order of the physical exam for an abdominal exam?

A

Inspect
Auscultate
Percuss
Palpate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 4 quadrants of the abdomen?

What are the 9 regions?

A

Quadrants- R and L upper and lower

Regions-R and L hyochondriac and epigastric, R and L lumbar and umbilical, R and L iliac and hypogastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Grey Turners sign?

What is Cullen Sign?

A

Grey Turner- ecchymosis around the flank

Cullen sign- ecchymosis around the umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do striae possibly indicate?

A

Cushings syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does caput medusae indicate?

A

Portal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
Auscultation of abdomen:
How frequent are normal bowel sounds?
What does absent sounds indicate?
What do dec soudns indicate?
What do inc sounds indicate?
What do high pitched sounds indicate?
A
Normal- 5 to 34 clicks per minute
Absent sounds- obstruction or ischemia
Dec sounds- peritonitis
Inc sounds- diarrhea 
High pitched- early obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When ascultating the abdomen what vasculature do you listen do?

A

Renal, abdominal aorta, common iliac, and femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Tympanic percussion = Dullness percussion = Resonant percussion = Hyperresonant percussion =
Tympanic- air filled Dull- solid Resonant- hallow organ Hyperresonant- pneumothorax
26
Explain percussion of liver? | Explain percussion of the spleen?
Liver- 6-12 cm at R mid clavicular line | Spleen- left ribs 6-12 at mid axillary line
27
What is rebound tenderness of palpation? What does it indicate?
Pain when releasing pressure | Peritoneal inflammation
28
What is abdominal ridigity and what causes it?
Hard abdomen due to involuntary abdominal contraction
29
What is Rovsings sign? What does it indicate
RLQ pain when applying P on L side | Indicates appendicitis
30
Where is mcburneys point?
1/3 of way from ASIS to umbilicus and indicates where appendix is usually located
31
What is murphys sign of the gallbladder?
When palpating R costal margin for gallbladder it is pain or cessation of inhalation and indicates acute cholecystitis
32
What is Courvosiers sign of the gallbladder?
Palpate large non tender gallbladder | Indicates pancreatic cancer
33
What are shifting oulines for ascites?
Percuss from tympany to dullness supine then lateral recumbent and if borders change so tympany is on top then it may be ascites
34
What is fluid wave of ascites?
Assistant places ulnar aspects along midline at top and bottom Then tap flank on one side and feel for impulse on other side If other side impulse is felt then maybe ascites
35
What is the Psoas test for abdomen? What does a positive test indicate?
Flex hip against R | If abdominal pain then appendicitis
36
What is the obturator test for abdomen? What does a positive test indicate?
Flex hip and knee over opposite knee | Pain may indicate appendicitis
37
What is lloyds punch and what does it indicate?
Apply force on posterior aspect of kidney region | Pain indicates kidney infeciton
38
What does a positive heel strike test indicate?
Appendicitis
39
What does chovsket sign indicate? What is it?
Tap facial nerve and it triggers facial muscle twitches | Indicates hypocalcemia/hypoparathyroidism
40
What is trousseaus sign and what does it indicate?
Inflate BP cuffs leads to muscle spasm | Indicates hypocalcemia/hypoparathyroidism
41
Bones, groans, and stones are complaints associated with?
Hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism
42
What are thyroid hormone levels associated with hypothryoidism vs hyperthryoidism
Hypo- elevated TSH and low T4 T3 | Hyper- low TSH and high T4 and T3
43
What are some signs and symptoms of cushings disease?
Moon face, buffalo hump, trunk obesity, striae
44
Explain mechanics of OA, AA, and typical C spine
OA- modified type 1 (main F/E) AA- rotation only Typical C spine- modified type II and I
45
What makes the anterior and posterior triangle of the neck
Ant triangle- SCM, mandible, midline | Post triangle- SCM, traps, clavicle
46
When palpating the thryoid Soft indicates Firm indicates Tender indicates
Soft- GD Firm- hashimotos Tender- thyroiditis
47
What is ROM of C spine
Flex- 45-90 Extend- 70-90 Rotate 70-90 SB- 20-45
48
``` Explain muscle strength testing of: C1 C2-4 C5 C6 C7 C8 T1 ```
``` C1- rotate head C2-4- elevate scapula C5- abduct shoulders C6- flex elbow and extend wrist C7- extend elbow and flex wrist C8- flex finger T1- abduct finger ```
49
Explain dermatomes from C1- T1
``` C1-4 from head to shoulder C5- shoulder and upper arm C6- lateral forearm and 6 shooter C7- middle finger C8- medial forearm T1- medial upper arm ```
50
DTR spinal n. Biceps Brachioradialis Triceps
Biceps- C5 Brachioradialis- C6 Triceps- C7
51
What is a compression neuropathy?
MSK or myofascial tissue is compressing a nerve leading to pain and paresthesia
52
What is the compression, distraction, and spurling test? What may it indicate?
Compression- axial load Distraction- relieve pain Spurlings- compress in neutral, extension, and SB/rotated
53
What are the boundaries of the thoracic outlet?
Manubrium, t1, and first rib
54
What is found within the thoracic outlet?
Brachial plexus, subclavian a/v
55
What are the zones of the thoracic oulet?
Scalene triangle Costoclavicular space Retropectoralis minor
56
What is the EAST test? What may it indicate
Abduct and externally rotate shoulders 90 and flex elbow 90 Then open and close fist for 3 min Pain may indicate compressed subclavian a
57
What is adson test? What may it indicate?
Abduct, extend, and externally rotate arm while monitoring radial pulse Have patient look at arm to evaluate rib have patient look forward to evaluate scalene Indicates one is compressing subclavian a
58
What is wrights hyperabduction test? What does it indicate
Abduct shoulder fully and apply some extension while monitoring radial pulse for any change Indicates pec minor compression of thoracic outlet
59
What is the costoclavicular test and what does it indicate
Extend shoulder and apply caudad force on superior ascpect of shoulder while monitoring radial pulse Change in pulse indicates compression by the clavicle and first rib
60
Explain nuchal ridigity | Explain brudzinskis
Rigidity- supine then flex head to chest to evaluate any stiffness which may indicate subarachnoid inflammation Brudzinkis- when doing ridigity it causes the patients hips and knees to flex which indicates subarachnoid inflammation
61
Posture evaluation Slumped over- Erect-
Slumped over- depression, muscle spasm, or to relieve pressure Erect- relieve hernia or spinal stenosis
62
What is a spinal step off? What may it indicate
An abnormally prominent or recessed spinous process that may indicate spondylolisthesis
63
What is the ROM of lumbar spine
Flex- 40-90 Extend- 20-45 SB- 15-30 Rotate- 3-18
64
``` Explain muscle evaluation of: L1-3 L4 L5 S1 ```
L1-3- hip flexion L4- knee extension L5- Dorsiflex/heel walk S1- plantarflex/ toe walk
65
DTR Patellar Achilles
Patellar- L4 | Achilles- S1
66
Explain straight leg raise and contralateral straight leg raise for lumbar spine and why you do both
Straight leg raise- flex hip and extended knee where pain usually appears between 30-60, greater than 70 is mechanical issue and indicates disc hernia Contralateral leg raise- do straight leg raise of not affected leg to see if it recreates symptoms in affected leg Straight leg is sensitive but contralateral is specific for disc herniation
67
What is hoovers sign?
Place hand under unaffected legs heel then have patient flex hip of affected leg against resistance Should feel heel push If it doesnt- function weakness or malingering
68
Explain thomas test and what it indicates
While supine hold one knee to chest and let other fall over table to evaluate if it extends fully Indicates psoas contracture
69
What is gaenslens test and what does it indicate?
One hip off with leg extending down and other hip and knee pulled to chest Evaluates SI joint problems
70
What is stork test and what does it indicate
Standing, have patient flip one hip and knee then have them extend back for pain Indicates pars fracture
71
Whiplash is a combo of what two actions in what is refered as a what type of injury
Whiplash= hyperextend and hyperflex | Inertia injury
72
Does hyperextension or hyperflexion in whiplash do more damage and why?
Hyperextension because the chin/chest limits hyperflexion
73
What is the most commonly affected muscle of whiplash?
SCM
74
What ligament does hyperextension/flexion in a whiplash injury affect in the vertebra?
Hyperextension- anterior longitidunal | Hyperflexion- posterior longitudinal
75
Torticolis- Laterocolis- Anterocolis- Retrocolis-
Torticolis- rotation Laterocolis- SB Anterocolis- flex Retrocolis- extend
76
Is congenital or adult torticolis more common?
Adult
77
What is scoliosis and what plane does the injury occur in?
Abnormal lateral curvature of spine in coronal plane
78
How do you name a scoliosis?
The side of convexity (what side the curve points to)
79
What form of scoliosis is most common?
Double major curvature
80
Idiopathic scoliosis Infantile- ages, gender, side, when to refer Juvenile- age and when to refer Adolescent- age, gender, progression
Infantile- age 0-3, M>F, L>R, angle over 35 Juvenile- age 4-9, angle over 20 Adolescent- age 10, most common, M=F, F progress more
81
What are some related symptoms of congenital scoliosis?
Urinary, cardiac, and spinal dysraphia (spine doesn't close along midline and leads to club feet)
82
What are conditions associated with neuromuscular scoliosis?
Polio, duchenes, cerebral palsy
83
What are conditions associated with syndromic scoliosis?
Marfans, elhlers danlos, and neurofibromatosis
84
When do you generally begin screening for scoliosis?
Age 10
85
How do you measure cobbs angle and what is the gold standard angle for scoliosis and when to refer
Superior aspect of most superior vert involved in curvature Inferior aspect of most inferior vert involved in curvature Make right angles from both lines to create angle 10 degrees for scoliosis and 20 to refer