PCOL Flashcards
(300 cards)
1
Q
Mechanism of action of local anesthetics.
A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping
axonal conduction
B. Block alpha and beta receptor
C. Block neuronal firing by decreasing Ach
in the neuromuscular junction
D. Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase
enzyme
E. Inhibition of enzyme responsible for pain response
A
A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping
axonal conduction
2
Q
The following are factors that affect the
absorption of drug from the gastrointestinal (GI) track except:
A. Surface area of absorption
B. Blood flow to the site of absorption
C. Physical state of the drug
D. Concentration of the drug at the site of absorption
E. Protein binding
A
E. Protein binding
3
Q
Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in which of the following?
A. Desensitization
B. Up-regulation
C. Down-regulation
A
Desensitization
Down-regulation
4
Q
Drug that lacks intrinsic efficacy but retains affinity and competes with the agonist for the binding sites of the receptor.
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist
A
A. Competitive antagonist
5
Q
This type of drug produce its effect by binding a site on the receptor distinct from that of the primary agonist and thereby changing the affinity of the receptor for the agonist.
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist
A
C. Non-competitive antagonist
6
Q
In this type of study, participants are blinded to treatment assignment, investigators are not.
A. Double blind study
B. Single blind study
C. Masking
D. Open-label
E. Un-blinded study
A
B. Single blind study
7
Q
The neurotransmitter of all preganglionic autonomic fibers, and all postganglionic parasympathetic fibers:
A. Norepinephrine
B. Noradrenaline
C. Acetylcholine
D. A and B
E. A and C
A
C. Acetylcholine
8
Q
The release of ach and other neurotransmitters by exocytosis is inhibited by:
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Botulinum toxin
C. Reserpine
D. Metyrosine
E. Guanethidine
A
B. Botulinum toxin
9
Q
All of the following are enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine EXCEPT:
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. Monoamine oxidase
A
E. Monoamine oxidase
10
Q
Rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines:
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. COMT
A
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
11
Q
All of the following are effects of activating beta 2 receptor, EXCEPT:
A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Uterine Relaxation
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Bronchodilation
A
A. Bronchoconstriction
12
Q
All of the following are effects of activating alpha 1 receptor EXCEPT:
A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
B. Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
C. Increase contractive force of the heart
D. Glycogenolysis in the liver
E. Vascular smooth muscle constriction
A
A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
13
Q
Which of the following is a pharmacological effect of muscarinic stimulation in the cardiovascular system?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Decrease in cardiac rate
C. Positive chronotropic effect
D. Positive dromotropic effect
E. Positive inotropic effect
A
B. Decrease in cardiac rate
14
Q
All of the following are naturally occurring
chromonematic Alkaid, EXCEPT:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Muscarine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Arecoline
E. None of these
A
C. Acetylcholine
15
Q
Which of the following is/are effects of cholinomimetic drugs?
I. Stimulation of GI smooth muscle
II. Stimulation of secretion of exocrine gland
III. Bronchoconstriction
IV. Tachycardia
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
A
C. I, II and III
16
Q
Major contraindication to the use of muscarinic agonist are the following EXCEPT:
A. Asthma
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Coronary insufficiency
D. Acid-peptic disease
E. Hypertension
A
E. Hypertension
17
Q
Used in the treatment of glaucoma where it is instilled into the eye usually as a 0.5-4% solution.
A. Epinephrine
B. Eye-Mo®
C. Pilocarpine
D. Bethanecol
E. Atropine
A
C. Pilocarpine
18
Q
Most effective prophylactic agent for short (4-6 hours) exposure to severe motion, also available as transdermal patch.
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Ipratropium
D. Tiotropium
E. Varenicline
A
B. Scopolamine
19
Q
Which of the following drugs is/are classified an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
I. Pilocarpine
II. Edrophonium
III. Tacrine
IV. Atropine
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
E. IV only
A
C. II and III
20
Q
Which of the following is not an effect of anti-cholinesterase agents?
A. Stimulation of muscarinic receptor responses at autonomic effector organs
B. Stimulation, followed by depression or paralysis of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle
C. Stimulation, with occasional subsequent depression of cholinergic receptor sites in the CNS
D. All of these
E. None of these
A
E. None of these
21
Q
Intoxication with an organophosphorus anticholinesterase agent can be treated with:
A. Atropine
B. Pralidoxime
C. Malathion
D. A and B
E. B and C
A
D. A and B
22
Q
This agent is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
A. Edrophonium
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
E. Acetylcholine
A
A. Edrophonium
23
Q
All are standard anticholinesterase drugs used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis, EXCEPT:
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Ambenonium
E. Edrophonium
A
C. Atropine
24
Q
Mechanism of action of indirect acting sympathomimetics drugs:
A. Agents act directly on one or more of the adrenergic receptors thereby producing an effect
B. Increase the availability of norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (Epi) to stimulate adrenergic receptors
C. Releasing or displacing NE from sympathetic nerve varicosities
D. A and B
E. B and C
A
E. B and C
25
Metabolic precursor of NE and EPI and is also a neurotransmitter particularly important in the regulation movement.
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Oxytocin
D. Norepinephrine
E. Noradrenaline
A. Dopamine
26
These drugs play a major role only in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma (reversible airway obstruction) or chorionic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
A. Beta 1 adrenergic agonist
B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
C. Beta 1 adrenergic antagonist
D. Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist
E. Non-selective beta agonist
B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
27
Potent, non-selective beta receptor agonist with very low affinity for alpha receptors
A. Ipratropium
B. Terbutaline
C. Isoproterenol
D. Prazosin
E. Phenylephrine
C. Isoproterenol
28
This sympathomimetic drug is indicated for the short-term treatment of cardiac decompensation post cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive heart failure or acute myocardial infarction.
A. Dobutamine
B. Isoproterenol
C. Metaproterenol
D. Albuterol
E. Isoetharine
A. Dobutamine
29
Selective beta 2 agonist originally developed as a uterine relaxant.
A. Terbutaline
B. Ritodrine
C. Oxytocin
D. Prazosin
E. Salmeterol
B. Ritodrine
30
Life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate perfusion of tissues, hypotension and ultimately failure of organ systems.
A. Coma
B. Shock
C. Arrhythmia
D. Heart Failure
E. Kidney Failure
B. Shock
31
Structurally related to amphetamine, this drug is a mild CNS stimulant with more prominent effects on mental than on motor activities. This drug is also effective in the treatment of narcolepsy and ADHD.
A. Methamphetamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Clonidine
D. Methylphenidate
E. Phenobarbital
D. Methylphenidate
32
Classified as alpha 2 selective antagonist.
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Nadolol
E. Metoprolol
C. Yohimbine
33
Classified as beta 1 selective antagonist.
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Nadolol
E. Metoprolol
E. Metoprolol
34
Used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma, tumor of the adrenal medulla and sympathetic neurons that secrete enormous quantities of catecholamines.
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Metoprolol
D. Dopamine
E. Isoxuprine
A. Phenoxybenzamine
35
Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction
C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor
D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation
E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis
A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
36
Beta 2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
A. Stimulation of renin secretion
B. Fall of potassium concentration is plasma
C. Relaxation of bladder uterus
D. Uterine muscle contraction
E. Skeletal muscle relaxation
D. Uterine muscle contraction
37
Which of the following effects is associated with beta 3-receptor stimulation?
A. Lipolysis
B. Decrease in platelet aggregation
C. Bronchodilation
D. Tachycardia
E. Pilomotor smooth muscle contraction
A. Lipolysis
38
Which of the following hypnotic drug is benzodiazepine derivative?
A. Zolpidem
B. Flurazepam
C. Secobarbital
D. Ramelteon
E. Buspirone
B. Flurazepam
39
Which of the following hypnotic drug increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Zolpidem
C. Flurazepam
D. Secobarbital
E. Ramelteon
A. Phenobarbital
40
Which of the following is the mechanism of Barbiturates action?
A. Increasing the duration of the GABA gated Cl-channel openings
B. Directly activating the chloride channel
C. Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel openings events
D. Antagonist at benzodiazepine bindings sites on the GABA receptor
E. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptor but also affinity for D2 receptor.
A. Increasing the duration of the GABA gated Cl-channel openings
41
The usual cause of adverse effect/death
due to overdose of hypnotics due to:
A. Depression of the CNS
B. Heart attack
C. Hypothermia
D. Cerebral edema
E. Status epilepticus
A. Depression of the CNS
42
Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels?
I. Phenytoin
II. Carbamazepine
III. Vigabatrin
IV. Gabapentin
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. II and IV
E. IV only
B. I and II
43
Mechanism of action of phenytoin:
A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated (VG) Na+ channel
B. It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor and prolongs the opening of the Cl-channel
C. It effects on the Ca2+ currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current
D. It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the breakdown of GABA
E. Decreases the excitatory transmission by acting on the VG Ca2+ channels presynaptically
A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated (VG) Na+ channel
44
The pathophysiologic basis for anti-parkinsonism therapy is:
A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons
B. The loss of some cholinergic neurons
C. The loss of the GABAergic cells
D. The loss of glutaminergic neurons
E. Abnormal firing of neurons from the CNS
A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons
45
Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of parkinsonian disorders?
A. Phenytoin
B. Selegeline
C. Haloperidol
D. Fluoxetine
E. Aspirin
B. Selegeline
46
The mechanism of action of carbidopa is:
A. Stimulating the synthesis release, or reuptake of dopamine
B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme
C. Stimulating dopamine receptors
D. Inhibition of COMT
E. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme
47
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
B. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
D. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin
E. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes epinephrine
C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
48
A catechol O-methyl transferase inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism:
A. Carbidopa
B. Clozapine
C. Tolcapone
D. Rasagiline
E. Selegiline
C. Tolcapone
49
Mu receptors are associated with:
A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia, sedation, respiratory depression and slowed GI transit
B. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis sedation physical dependence
C. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation
D. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence
E. CNS stimulation and respiratory stimulation
A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia, sedation, respiratory depression and slowed GI transit
50
Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
A. Morphine
B. Pentazocine
C. Buprenorphine
D. Naloxone
E. Propoxyphene
A. Morphine
51
Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
A. Meperidine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Naloxone
D. Butorphanol
E. Morphine
C. Naloxone
52
The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:
A. Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
C. Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps
D. Miosis, tremor and vomiting
E. Mydriasis, diarrhea, increase urination
B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
53
Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?
A. Phenylbutazone
B. Ketamine
C. Aspirin
D. Tramadol
E. Diclofenac
C. Aspirin
54
Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following except:
A. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX
B. Main adverse effects at antithrombotic doses are gastric upset (intolerance) and gastric and duodenal ulcers
C. It inhibits platelet aggregation
D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia
E. Epidemiologic studies suggest that long term use of aspirin at low dosage is associated with a lower incidence of colon cancer
D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia
55
A drug that inhibit HMG-CoA reductase. It also reduces cholesterol synthesis and up regulate low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on hepatocytes.
A. Fenofibrates
B. Colestipol
C. Ezetimibe
D. Atorvastatin
E. Niacin
D. Atorvastatin
56
A vasodilator that also inhibits plates function by inhibiting adenosine uptake and cGMP phosphodiesterase activity.
A. Dipyridamole
B. Abciximab
C. Clostazol
D. Anistreplase
E. Streptokinase
A. Dipyridamole
57
The mathematical product of peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) and cardiac output (CO).
A. Hypertension
B. Blood Pressure
C. Hypotension
D. Vascular pressure
E. Afterload
B. Blood Pressure
58
Recommendation on dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH).
A. High intake of fruits
B. Low fats dairy products along with reduced content of dietary cholesterol saturated fat and total fat
C. The diet is rich on potassium and calcium and low in sodium
D. High intake of vegetables
E. All of these
E. All of these
59
Recommend Blood Pressure Targets for patient with heart failure
A. <150 / <90
B. <140 / <90
C. <140 / <80
D. <160 / <90
E. <130 / <80
E. <130 / <80
60
Increase the excretion of Na+, CI+ and H2O by inhibiting Na+ /Cl+ ion exchange in the early part of the distal tubule:
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Loop diuretic
C. Potassium Sparring diuretics
D. Aldosterone Antagonists
E. Osmotic diuretics
A. Thiazide diuretics
61
Drug that antagonize angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor subtype, which decrease systemic vascular resistance.
A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan
E. Losartan
62
Reduce both resting and exercise heart rate, cardiac output and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure
A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan
C. Metoprolol
63
Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by interfering with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) activity
A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan
D. Captopril
64
A condition of chronic excess total body iron caused either by an inherited abnormality of iron Absorption or by frequent transfusion to treat certain types of hemolytic disorders:
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia
A. Hemochromatosis
65
A Deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally large. Results from either folate or vitamin B12 deficiency
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
66
A deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally small. Often caused by iron deficiency.
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
67
An abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood; patients with this condition are susceptible to serious infection
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia
D. Neutropenia
68
A form of megaloblastic anemia resulting from deficiency of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by gastric mucosal cell and required for intestinal absorption of vitamin B12
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia
E. Pernicious anemia
69
Required for biosynthesis of heme and heme-containing proteins, including hemoglobin and myoglobin
A. Deferoxamine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic Acid
D. Ferrous sulfate
E. Filgrastim
D. Ferrous sulfate
70
Stimulates G-CSF receptors expressed on mature neutrophils and their progenitors for the treatment of neutropenia:
A. Deferoxamine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Ferrous sulfate
E. Filgrastim
E. Filgrastim
71
An endogenous anticlotting protein that irreversibly inactivates thrombin and factor Xa. Its enzymatic action is markedly accelerated by the heparins
A. Antithrombin III
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
C. Clotting cascade
D. Prothrombin
E. A and B
A. Antithrombin III
72
A protein complex on the surface of platelets. When activated, it aggregates platelets primarily by binding to fibrin.
A. Antithrombin III
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
C. Clotting cascade
D. Prothrombin
E. A and C
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
73
Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of unfractionated heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors; prolonged when drug effect is adequate
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aptt) test
B. Clotting cascade
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
D. Platelet test
E. Coagulase test
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aptt) test
74
Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin; prolonged when drug effect is adequate
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (apt) test
B. Clotting cascade
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
D. Platelet test
E. Coagulase test
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
75
Which of the following are classified as thrombolytic agents?
I. Streptokinase
II. Warfarin
III. T-PA derivatives
IV. Heparins
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. II and IV
E. IV only
C. I and III
76
What is the bactericidal concentration of ethanol and isopropanol by volume in water?
A. 60 – 90%
B. 30 – 50%
C. 70 – 99%
D. 80 – 100%
E. 10 – 20%
A. 60 – 90%
77
It is a destruction of marked reduction in number of activity of microorganisms.
A. Antisepsis
B. Decontamination
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization
E. Pasteurization
B. Decontamination
78
It contains 2% Iodine and 2.4% NaI in alcohol and is the most active antiseptic for intact skin
A. Iodophors
B. Povidone iodine
C. Tincture of Iodine USP
D. Iodine solution
E. Both A and B
C. Tincture of Iodine USP
79
A phenolic disinfectant that cause cerebral edema and convulsions in premature infants.
A. O-phenyl phenol
B. P-Amylphenol
C. O-benzyl-P-Chlorophenol
D. Heptachlorophene
E. Hexachlorophene
E. Hexachlorophene
80
The following has an excellent efficacy on infection caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia except:
A. Penicillin
B. Dapsone
C. Atrovaquone
D. Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E. None of these
A. Penicillin
81
First line drug in treating early stage of infection caused by West African trypanosomiasis
A. Pentamidine
B. Melarsoprol
C. Metronidazole
D. Iodoquinol
E. Tetracycline
A. Pentamidine
82
It inhibits topoisomerase II and has a side effect of alopecia and myelosuppression
A. Irinotecan
B. Etoposide
C. Paclitaxel
D. Vinblastine
E. Vincristine
B. Etoposide
83
The FDA approved a novel, oral and highly selective small molecule inhibitor of BRAFV600E last August 2011 and has a highly promising activity in metastatic melanoma. What drug is this?
A. Lomustine
B. Camustine
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Vemurafenib
E. Etoposide
D. Vemurafenib
84
It is an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic produced by Steptomyces tsukabaensis
A. Cyclosporine
B. Tacrolimus
C. Temsirolimus
D. Cycloserine
E. Sirolimus
B. Tacrolimus
85
What class of Gastrointestinal drugs are most effective agents for the treatment of non-erosive and erosive reflux disease and extra-esophageal manifestation of reflux disease?
A. NSAID
B. H2 receptor antagonist
C. Proton Pump inhibitor
D. Prostaglandin analogs
E. H1 receptor antagonist
C. Proton Pump inhibitor
86
The following are common preparation of natural plant products which are bulk forming laxatives except
A. Psyllium
B. Methylcellulose
C. Polycarbophil
D. A and B
E. None of these
C. Polycarbophil
87
It is the most commonly used osmotic laxative and should not be used for prolonged periods for patient with renal insufficiency due to the risk of hypermagnesemia
A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Milk of Magnesia
C. Furosemide
D. A and B
E. Mannitol
D. A and B
88
It is effective in reducing nocturnal acid but is less effective against stimulated secretion
A. H2 receptor antagonist
B. PPI
C. Sucralfate
D. Laxative
E. Diuretic
A. H2 receptor antagonist
89
Ondansetron and Granisetron block which receptor site?
A. 5HT3
B. 5HT1A
C. 5HT1B
D. 5HT1C
E. 5HT4
A. 5HT3
90
These are example of amides:
I. Lidocaine
II. Bupivacaine
III. Cocaine
IV. Prilocaine
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
91
High Plasma concentration of local anesthetics result from rapid absorption, thus causing:
I. Sedation
II. Light headedness
III. Auditory disturbances
IV. Restlessness
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
92
Selective Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor include:
I. Venlafaxine
II. Sertraline
III. Duloxetine
IV. Citalopram
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I and III
E. II and III
D. I and III
93
Which pair is mismatch?
I. Butyrophenone – Haloperidol
II. Atypical antipsychotics – Clozapine
III. Thioxanthene – Thiothixene
IV. Phenothiazine – Chlorpromazine
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
E. None of these
E. None of these
94
Which of the following is NOT true about opioids?
I. Opioid analgesics may prolong labor
II. Opioids contract biliary smooth muscle
III. Opioid analgesics stimulates release of ADH, Prolactin and Somatropin
IV. Opioids causes mydriasis
A. I, II, III and IV
B. IV only
C. III only
D. I only
E. II only
B. IV only
95
Which of the following is mismatch?
I. Factor I – Fibrinogen
II. Factor XII – Fibrin-Stabilizing factor
III. Factor XI – Prothrombin
IV. Factor X – Stuart power factor
A. III only
B. IV only
C. I and II
D. II, III and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
A. III only
96
The deficiency of factor IX can cause hemophilia B and Christmas Disease. Hemophilia A is also known as Christmas Disease.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are wrong
A. Only the 1st statement is correct
97
The following are non-selective COX inhibitor EXCEPT:
I. Diclofenac
II. Celecoxib
III. Meloxicam
IV. Ibuprofen
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV
E. IV only
B. II and III
98
It is a peptide antibiotic and is considered as a non-biologic DMARD
A. Cycloserine
B. Cyclosporine
C. Chloroquine
D. Abatacept
E. Azathioprine
B. Cyclosporine
99
It is the active metabolite of phenacetin
I. Acetaminophen
II. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol
III. N-acetylcysteine
IV. ASA
A. IV only
B. I only
C. I and II
D. III only
E. I, II, III and IV
C. I and II
100
It is the most common form of hyperthyroidism
A. Myxedema coma
B. Subacute thyroiditis
C. Ophthalmopathy
D. Grave’s disease
E. None of these
D. Grave’s disease
101
This is the sudden acute exacerbation of all of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis presenting as a life-threatening syndrome
I. Myxedema coma
II. Grave’s disease
III. Thyroid Storm
IV. Thyrotoxic crisis
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. III and IV
E. III and IV
102
A syndrome of thyroid enlargement without excessive thyroid hormone production
A. Non-toxic goiter
B. Thyroid neoplasms
C. Neonatal Grave’s Disease
D. Myxedema coma
E. Thyroiditis
A. Non-toxic goiter
103
What is the route of administration of methyltestosterone?
I. IM
II. IV
III. Oral
IV. Transdermal
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I only
D. III only
E. None of these
D. III only
104
It is a chemotherapeutic drug which is a folic acid analog that binds with high affinity to the active catalytic site of dihydrofolate reductase:
A. Cisplatin
B. Dacarbazine
C. Methotrexate
D. Vincristine
E. Gemcitabine
C. Methotrexate
105
A catechol-o-methyltransferase inhibitor
A. Selegiline
B. Entacapone
C. Pergolide
D. Ropinirole
E. Rotigotine
B. Entacapone
106
The combination of these are the most effective for H. pylori associated ulcers:
I. Antibiotic
II. PPI
III. H2 receptor blocker
IV. Prostaglandin analogs
A. Antibiotic and PPI
B. PPI and H2 receptor blocker
C. H2 receptor blocker and prostaglandin analogs
D. Antibiotic and H2 receptor blocker
E. Antibiotic and prostaglandin analog
A. Antibiotic and PPI
107
It is the most common leukemia in adults.
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
E. None of these
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
108
What type of organ transplant rejection occurs within hours and cannot be stopped with immunosuppressive drug and occurs due to performed antibodies against the donor organs?
A. Acute
B. Accelerated
C. Hyperacute
D. Chronic
E. Superficial
C. Hyperacute
109
The hallmark of this type of diabetes is selective beta cell destruction and severe or absolute insulin deficiency
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. All of these
A. Type 1
110
This is the main form of leukemia in childhood, and it is the most common form of cancer in children
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
E. None of these
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
111
Its generic name is Imiquimod and it is used in the treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults. Available as 5% cream.
A. Protopic
B. Aldara
C. Elidel
D. Zovirax
E. Denavir
B. Aldara
112
Podophyllum resin, an alcoholic extract of mandrake root or May apple is used in the treatment of:
A. Condyloma Acuminatum
B. Psoriasis
C. Photophobia
D. Lichen simplex chronicus
E. Cushing’s syndrome
A. Condyloma Acuminatum
113
A combination of levodopa and MAO-A inhibitors could lead to this condition:
A. Hypertensive Crisis
B. Alopecia
C. Memory Loss
D. Hyperactivity
E. GI bleeding
A. Hypertensive Crisis
114
This is also known as manic-depressive illness
A. Anxiety
B. Bipolar Disorder
C. Obstructive-compulsive disorder
D. ADHD
E. None of these
B. Bipolar Disorder
115
This vitamin enhances the extracerebral metabolism of levodopa
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B9
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B6
116
PGE1 analog used to treat erectile dysfunction:
A. Alprostadil
B. Misoprostol
C. Dinoprostone
D. Epoprostenol
E. Prostin E2
A. Alprostadil
117
Which of the following is an example of piperidine type of phenothiazines?
I. Thioridazine
II. Piperacetazine
III. Mesoridazine
IV. Carphenazine
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and III
118
PGE1 analog used as treatment and prophylaxis of NSAID-included gastric ulcer and is also an abortifacient drug.
A. Alprostadil
B. Misoprostol
C. Dinoprostone
D. Epoprostenol
E. Prostin E2
B. Misoprostol
119
Drug for the treatment of gout which blocks xanthine oxidase thereby decreasing the production of uric acid:
A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. C and D
E. C and D
120
Drug for gout which increase urinary excretion of uric acid (inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in the proximal tubule):
A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. Probenecid
E. Probenecid
121
Drug for the treatment of gout that disrupts the inflammatory cycle, which inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis of uric acid crystals:
A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. Probenecid
B. Colchicine
122
NSAID that inhibits COX enzyme thereby reducing the production of prostaglandins. May caused cholestatic hepatitis, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia
A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. Probenecid
A. Indomethacin
123
Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunostimulants?
I. Filgastrim
II. Cyclosporine
III. Aldesleukin
IV. Interferon Alfacon-1
V. Prednisone
A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. II and V
E. II and III
B. I, III and IV
124
Medium to large vessel vasculitis seen in children; symptoms include conjunctivitis, rash, erythema of the palms and soles, coronary aneurysms, and strawberry tongue:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Hirsutism
E. Malignant Osteoporosis
C. Kawasaki disease
125
A syndrome characterized by polyuria, polydipsia and hypernatremia and is caused by inadequate production of vasopressin:
A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia
B. Central diabetes insipidus
126
Painful erythematous subcutaneous nodules seen in patient with a high level of mycobacterial antigens.
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Hirsutism
E. Malignant Osteoporosis
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
127
Chemotherapeutic drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking synthesis of nucleoside phosphates inhibiting DNA synthesis:
A. Tacrolimus
B. Methotrexate
C. Thalidomide
D. Azathioprine
E. Cyclophosphamide
B. Methotrexate
128
Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunosuppressants?
I. Filgastrim
II. Cyclosporine
III. Aldesleukin
IV. Interferon alfacon-1
V. Prednisone
A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. II and V
E. II and III
D. II and V
129
Immunosuppressant drug that binds to FK binding protein and form a complex that inhibits calcineurin
A. Tacrolimus
B. Methotrexate
C. Thalidomide
D. Azathioprine
E. Cyclophosphamide
A. Tacrolimus
130
Drug that inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis via cross-linking of these molecule. Used as chemotherapy for solid tumor malignancies
A. Tacrolimus
B. Methotrexate
C. Thalidomide
D. Azathioprine
E. Cyclophosphamide
E. Cyclophosphamide
131
A rare syndrome of growth hormone (GH) excess in adults characterized by abnormal growth of tissues (particularly connective tissue) metabolic, and cardiac dysfunction
A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia
A. Acromegaly
132
Pituitary tumor that secretes excessive amounts of prolactin and is associated with a syndrome of infertility and galactorrhea
A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia
D. Prolactinoma
133
A syndrome of GH excess in children and adolescents with open long bone epiphyses that results in excessive height
A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia
C. Gigantism
134
Somatostatin receptor agonist used in the treatment of acromegaly and several other hormone-secreting tumors
A. Ocreotide
B. Pegvisomant
C. Somatropin
D. Leuprolide
E. Bromocriptine
A. Ocreotide
135
Dopamine D2 receptor agonist used in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia and Parkinson’s disease
A. Ocreotide
B. Pegvisomant
C. Somatropin
D. Leuprolide
E. Bromocriptine
E. Bromocriptine
136
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogs for ovarian suppression
A. Ocreotide
B. Pegvisomant
C. Somatropin
D. Leuprolide
E. Bromocriptine
D. Leuprolide
137
Antagonist of vasopressin V1a and V2 receptors used as a treatment of hyponatremia in hospitalized patients:
A. Desmopressin
B. Conivaptan
C. Atosiban
D. Oxytocin
E. Ganirelix
B. Conivaptan
138
Agonist of vasopressin V2 receptors for the treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus:
A. Desmopressin
B. Conivaptan
C. Atosiban
D. Oxytocin
E. Ganirelix
A. Desmopressin
139
Antagonist of oxytocin receptor:
A. Desmopressin
B. Conivaptan
C. Atosiban
D. Oxcytocin
E. Genirelix
C. Atosiban
140
Protein synthesized in the liver that transport thyroid hormone in the blood
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Thyroxine
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TB
141
A protein synthesized in the thyroid gland; its tyrosine residues are used to synthesize thyroid hormones:
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Thyroxine
B. Thyroglobulin
142
The anterior pituitary hormone that regulates thyroid gland growth, uptake of iodine and synthesis of thyroid hormone:
A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Thyroxine
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
143
Which of the following listed below are key feature of hypothyroidism?
I. Sensation of being cold
II. Reduced appetite
III. Weight loss
IV. Tachycardia
V. Drooping of eyelids
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and V
D. II and III
E. III and IV
C. I, II and V
144
Which of the following listed below are key features of thyrotoxicosis?
I. Sensation of being cold
II. Reduced appetite
III. Weight loss
IV. Tachycardia
V. Drooping of eyelids
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and V
D. II and III
E. III and IV
E. III and IV
145
Drug that inhibits thyroid peroxidase reactions, iodine organification, and peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A. Methimazole
B. Propranolol
C. Lugol’s Solution
D. Potassium iodide
E. Levothyroxine
A. Methimazole
146
Inhibition of B receptors and inhibition of conversion of T4 to T3 used in the management of thyroid storm
A. Methimazole
B. Propranolol
C. Lugol’s Solution
D. Potassium iodide
E. Levothyroxine
B. Propranolol
147
Partial or complete loss of adrenocortical function, including loss of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function:
A. Addison disease
B. Adrenal suppression
C. Cushing’s Syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Adrenocorticoids
A. Addison disease
148
A metabolic disorder caused by excess secretion of adrenocorticoid steroids, which is most commonly due to increased amount of ACTH
A. Addison disease
B. Adrenal suppression
C. Cushing’s Syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Adrenocorticoids
C. Cushing’s Syndrome
149
Strong agonist at mineralocorticoid receptors and moderate activation of glucocorticoid receptors. Used to manage adrenal insufficiency in Addison’s Disease
A. Prednisone
B. Fludrocortisone
C. Mifepristone
D. Spironolactone
E. Ketoconazole
B. Fludrocortisone
150
Pharmacologic antagonist of mineralocorticoid receptor and weak antagonist of androgen receptors, may cause gynecomastia
A. Prednisone
B. Fludrocortisone
C. Mifepristone
D. Spironolactone
E. Ketoconazole
D. Spironolactone
151
All of the following are true about CNS drugs, EXCEPT:
I. Water solubility is an important characteristic of most CNS drug
II. CNS drugs readily cross the placental barrier and enter the fetal circulation
III. Almost all CNS drugs require metabolism to more water soluble form for their elimination
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
A. I only
152
Which of the following drugs are classified as benzodiazepine?
I. Alprazolam
II. Clonazepam
III. Diazepam
IV. Thiopental
V. Phenobarbital
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. IV and V
D. I and II
E. II and V
A. I, II and III
153
Which of the following drugs are classified as barbiturates?
I. Alprazolam
II. Clonazepam
III. Diazepam
IV. Thiopental
V. Phenobarbital
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. IV and V
D. I and II
E. II and V
C. IV and V
154
Binds of GABAA receptor subunits to facilitate chloride channel opening and increase frequency
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Antipsychotics
E. Antiseizure
A. Benzodiazepines
155
Bind to GABAA receptor sites (distinct from benzodiazepines), facilitate channel opening and increased duration
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Antipsychotics
E. Antiseizure
B. Barbiturates
156
Antagonist at benzodiazepine sites on GABAA receptor
A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin
D. Flumazenil
157
Activates MT1 and MT2 receptors in suprachiasmatic nucleus used for the treatment of sleep disorder
A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin
A. Ramelteon
158
Partial agonist at 5-HT receptors and possibly D2 receptors used for generalized anxiety states:
A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin
B. Buspirone
159
NAD+ -dependent enzymes, found mainly in the liver and gut which accounts for the metabolism of low to moderate doses of ethanol.
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system
C. Monoamine oxidase
D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
E. Catechol-o-methyl transferase
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
160
Severe form of alcohol withdrawal whose main symptoms are sweating, tremor, confusion, and hallucinations:
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
161
A syndrome of craniofacial dysmorphia, heart defects and mental retardation caused by the teratogenic effects of ethanol consumption during pregnancy:
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
162
The characteristic syndrome of insomnia, tremor, agitation, seizures, and autonomic instability engendered by deprivation in an individual who is physically dependent on ethanol
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
163
A syndrome of ataxia, confusion, and paralysis of the extraocular muscles that is associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
E. Acute alcohol toxicity
164
The most common medical complication of chronic alcohol abuse
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Lung Disease
D. Liver Disease
E. Cancer
D. Liver Disease
165
NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist that is also US-FDA approved for treatment of alcoholism:
A. Naltrexone
B. Acamprosate
C. Disulfiram
D. Methanol
E. Ethylene glycol
B. Acamprosate
166
Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor used adjunctively in some treatment program for alcoholics. If ethanol is consumed by a patient who has taken this drug, acetaldehyde accumulation leads to nausea, headache, flushing and hypotension:
A. Naltrexone
B. Acamprosate
C. Disulfiram
D. Methanol
E. Ethylene glycol
C. Disulfiram
167
Poisoning of this substance result in toxic levels of formate, which causes characteristics visual disturbance plus coma, seizures, acidosis and death due to respiratory failure
A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Ethylene Glycol
D. Diazepam
E. Thiamine
B. Methanol
168
BDZ receptor agonist that facilitates GABA mediated activation of GABAA receptors used in the prevention and treatment of acute ethanol withdrawal syndrome
A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Ethylene Glycol
D. Diazepam
D. Diazepam
169
Vitamin administered to patients suspected of alcohol dependence to prevent the Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Riboflavin
C. Thiamine
D. Folic acid
E. Niacin
C. Thiamine
170
Nonselective competitive antagonist of opioid receptors used to reduce risk of relapse in individuals with alcohol-used disorder:
A. Acamprosate
B. Disulfiram
C. Fomepizole
D. Ethanol
E. Naltrexone
E. Naltrexone
171
Inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents conversion of methanol and ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites. Used as an antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning:
A. Acamprosate
B. Disulfiram
C. Fomepizole
D. Ethanol
E. Naltrexone
C. Fomepizole
172
Tonic phase (less than 1min) involves abrupt loss of consciousness, muscle rigidity, and respiration arrest; clonic phase (2-3 min) involves jerking of body muscles, with lip or tongue biting, fecal and urinary incontinence; formerly called grand mal:
A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
173
Impaired consciousness (often abrupt onset and brief), sometimes with automatisms, loss of postural tone, or enuresis; begin in childhood (formerly, petit mal) and usually cease by age 20 yrs:
A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus
C. Absence seizures, generalized
174
A series of seizures (usually tonic-clonic) without recovery of consciousness between attacks; it is a life-threatening emergency:
A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus
E. Status epilepticus
175
Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of an antiseizure drug?
I. Sodium channel blockade
II. GABA-related mechanism
III. Calcium channel blockade
IV. Alpha receptor blockade
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
E. III and IV
D. IV only
176
Which of the following is a preferred drug for the treatment of absence seizures?
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Ethosuximide
D. Diazepam
E. Clonazepam
C. Ethosuximide
177
Stage of anesthesia where the patient has decreased awareness of pain, sometimes with amnesia. Consciousness may be impaired but is not lost.
A. Stage1: Analgesia
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
E. Stage5: Delirium
A. Stage1: Analgesia
178
Stage of anesthesia where the patient develops severe respiratory and cardiovascular depression that requires mechanical and pharmacologic support
A. Stage1: Analgesia
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
E. Stage5: Delirium
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
179
Stage of anesthesia where the patient appears to be delirious and excited. Amnesia occurs, reflexes are enhanced, and respiration is typically irregular, retching and incontinence may occur.
A. Stage1: Analgesia
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage4: Medullary
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
180
Anesthesia produced by a mixture of drugs, often including both inhaled and intravenous agents
A. Maximum anesthesia
B. Balanced anesthesia
C. General anesthesia
D. Inhalation anesthesia
E. Optimal anesthesia
B. Balanced anesthesia
181
The alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic that is required to prevent a response to a standardized painful stimulus in 50% of patients
A. Maximum alveolar concentration
B. Optimal anesthetic dose
C. Minimum alveolar concentration
D. Standard alveolar concentration
E. Anesthetic alveolar concentration
C. Minimum alveolar concentration
182
Which of the following drugs listed below is classified as inhaled anesthetics?
I. Halothane
II. Thiopental
III. Ketamine
IV. Enflurane
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. III and IV
E. I and V
C. I and IV
183
Which of the following drug listed below is classified as intravenous anesthetic?
I. Halothane
II. Thiopental
III. Ketamine
IV. Enflurane
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. III and IV
E. I and V
B. II and III
184
This drug produces a state of “dissociative anesthesia” in which the patient remains conscious but has marked catatonia, analgesia, and amnesia.
A. Midazolam
B. Thiopental
C. Ketamine
D. Morphine
E. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
185
Centrally acting a2 -adrenergic agonist that has analgesic and hypnotic actions when used intravenously:
A. Phenylephrine
B. Dexmedetomidine
C. Prazosin
D. Clonidine
E. Minoxidil
B. Dexmedetomidine
186
Barbiturate that is used for induction of anesthesia and for short surgical procedure:
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Thiopental
C. Halothane
D. Midazolam
E. Ketamine
B. Thiopental
187
Long-acting ester local anesthetic:
A. Tetracaine
B. Procaine
C. Benzocaine
D. Bupivacaine
E. Lidocaine
A. Tetracaine
188
All of the following are clinical use of local anesthetic EXCEPT:
A. Used for minor surgical procedures often in combination with vasoconstrictors such as epinephrine
B. Used in spinal anesthesia and to produce autonomic blockade in ischemic conditions.
C. Slow epidural infusion at low concentrations has been used successfully for postoperative analgesia
D. Oral and parenteral form of local anesthetic are sometimes used adjunctively in neuropathic pain states
E. Used as a component of balance anesthesia
E. Used as a component of balance
anesthesia
189
Neuromuscular paralysis that results from pharmacologic antagonism at the acetylcholine receptor of the end plate:
A. Depolarizing blockade
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
C. Stabilizing blockade
D. A or C
E. B or C
E. B or C
190
Neuromuscular paralysis that results from persistent depolarization of the end plate:
A. Depolarizing blockade
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
C. Stabilizing blockade
D. A or C
E. B or C
A. Depolarizing blockade
191
Which of the following drug can reverse the blockade brought about by non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
A. Neostigmine
B. Succinylcholine
C. Tubocurarine
D. Atropine
E. Acetylcholine
A. Neostigmine
192
Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
A. Tubocurarine
B. Baclofen
C. Cyclobenzaprine
D. Dantrolene
E. Diazepam
D. Dantrolene
193
Which of the following listed bellows are signs of Parkinsonism?
I. Rigidity of skeletal muscle
II. Akinesia
III. Flat facies
IV. Tremor at rest
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III
E. All of these
E. All of these
194
A progressive neurologic disease characterized by shuffling gait, stooped posture, resting tremor, speech impediments, movement difficulties and an eventual slowing of mental processes and dementia
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis
A. Parkinsonism
195
An inherited adult-onset neurologic disease characterized by dementia and bizarre involuntary movements:
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis
B. Huntington Disease
196
A neurologic disease of unknown cause that presents with multiple tics associated with snorting, sniffing and involuntary vocalization (often obscene):
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis
C. Tourette’s syndrome
197
An inherited (autosomal recessive) disorder of copper accumulation in liver, brain, kidneys, and eyes; symptoms include jaundice, vomiting, tremors, muscle weakness, stiff movements, liver failure and dementia
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis
D. Wilson’s disease
198
Strategies of drug treatment of parkinsonism involve which of the following?
I. Increasing dopamine activity in the brain
II. Decreasing muscarinic cholinergic activity
III. Neuromuscular blockade
IV. Increasing acetylcholine activity
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III only
E. III and IV
B. I and II
199
Drug that does not cross the blood-brain barrier but inhibits dopa decarboxylase in peripheral tissues used in combination with levodopa for the treatment of parkinsonism
A. Reserpine
B. Selegeline
C. Carbidopa
D. Pramipexole
E. Ropinirole
C. Carbidopa
200
Non-ergot which has high affinity for dopamine D3 receptor which is effective as monotherapy in mild parkinsonism and can be used together with levodopa in more advanced disease:
A. Reserpine
B. Selegeline
C. Carbidopa
D. Pramipexole
E. Ropinirole
D. Pramipexole
201
Dummy medicine containing no active ingredient (or alternatively, a dummy surgical procedure, diet or other kind of therapeutic intervention), which the patient believes is (or could be, in the context of a controlled trial) the real thing.
A. Prodrug
B. Orphan drug
C. Lead drug
D. Placebo
E. Experimental drug
D. Placebo
202
To avoid bias, clinical trials are performed using the following study design, EXCEPT:
A. Un-blinded study
B. Controlled
C. Randomized
D. Double Blind
E. B and C
A. Un-blinded study
203
Lethal dose for 50% of the population divided by effective dose for 50% of population is called:
A. Meta-analysis
B. Therapeutic range
C. Therapeutic index
D. Potency
E. Efficacy
C. Therapeutic index
204
All of the following are true regarding drug therapeutic index EXCEPT:
A. Unsatisfactory as a measure of drug safety
B. Based on animal toxicity data, which may not reflect forms of toxicity or adverse reactions that are important clinically
C. It takes no account of idiosyncratic toxic reactions
D. Provided a measure of the margin of safety of a drug, by drawing attention to the relationship between the effective and toxic dose
E. None of these
E. None of these
205
Refers to an eclectic group of drugs that are used for non-medical purposes. It includes drug of abuse to enhance athletic or other performance, as well as those taken for cosmetic purposes or for purely social reasons:
A. Recreational drugs
B. Non-medical drugs
C. Prescription drugs
D. Lifestyle drugs
E. Performance drugs
D. Lifestyle drugs
206
Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indications but also be used for other ‘lifestyle’ purposes:
A. Orlistat
B. Minoxidil
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine
E. Cannabis
A. Orlistat
207
Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indication that can also be used to satisfy ‘lifestyle choices’ or to treat ‘lifestyle disease’
A. Orlistat
B. Minoxidil
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine
E. Cannabis
B. Minoxidil
208
Used mainly to achieve rapid weight loss before weighing in and also to mask presence of other agents in urine by dilution:
A. Anabolic agents
B. Hormones and related agents
C. Diuretics
D. Stimulants
E. Narcotic analgesic
C. Diuretics
209
Anthelminthic drug that acts by inhibiting the polymerization of helminth B-tubulin, thus interfering with microtubule-dependent functions such as glucose uptake:
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
E. Benzimidazoles
E. Benzimidazoles
210
Anthelmintic drug act by changing the parasite such that it becomes susceptible to the host’s normal immune responses. It may also interfere with helminth arachidonate metabolism.
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
E. Benzimidazoles
A. Diethylcarbamazine
211
These class of antifungal agents inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 3A enzyme, lanosine 14a-demethylase, which is responsible for converting lanosterol to ergosterol, the main sterol in the fungal cell membrane:
A. Echinocandins
B. Amphotericin
C. Flucytosine
D. Azoles
E. Griseofulvin
D. Azoles
212
These class of antifungal agents inhibit the synthesis of 1,3-B-glucan, a glucose polymer that is necessary for maintaining the structures of fungal cell walls. In the absence of this polymer, fungal cells lose integrity and lyse.
A. Echinocandins
B. Amphotericin
C. Flucytosine
D. Azoles
E. Griseofulvin
A. Echinocandins
213
Potential and actual clinical uses/indications of cannabinoids antagonists include which of following?
I. Obesity
II. Tobacco Independence
III. Drug addiction
IV. Alcoholism
V. Parkinson's disease
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. IV and V
D. I, II, III and IV
214
Potential and actual clinical uses/indications of cannabinoids agonists include which of the following?
I. Neuropathic pain
II. Glaucoma
III. Drug addiction
IV. Alcoholism
V. Head injury
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and V
C. II, III and IV
D. II, IV and V
E. V only
B. I, II and V
215
Primary autonomic mechanism for blood pressure homeostasis involves sensory input from carotid sinus and aorta to the vasomotor center and output via the parasympathetic and sympathetic motor nerves
A. Stepped care
B. Baroreceptor reflex
C. Positive feedback
D. Negative feedback
E. RAAS
B. Baroreceptor reflex
216
Hypertension caused by a diagnosable abnormality, eg aortic coarctation, renal artery stenosis adrenal tumor, etc.
A. Primary hypertension
B. Essential hypertension
C. Secondary hypertension
D. A or B
E. A or C
C. Secondary hypertension
217
An accelerated form of severe hypertension associated with rising blood pressure and rapidly progressing damage to vessels and end organs. Often signaled by renal damage, encephalopathy, and retinal hemorrhages or by angina, stroke, or myocardial infarction. Also called malignant hypertension.
A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Essential hypertension
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Rebound hypertension
E. Secondary hypertension
E. Secondary hypertension
218
Elevated blood pressure (usually above pretreatment levels) resulting from loss of antihypertensive drug effect
A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Essential hypertension
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Rebound hypertension
E. Secondary hypertension
D. Rebound hypertension
219
Important diuretic usually used in severe hypertension and hypertensive emergencies:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Osmotic diuretics
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
E. ACE inhibitors
A. Loop diuretics
220
Blockade of calcium channels, release of nitric oxide, opening of potassium channels (which leads to hyperpolarization) and activation of D1 dopamine receptors are the major mechanisms of action of what class of antihypertensive drugs?
A. Diuretics
B. Angiotensin antagonists
C. Vasodilators
D. Sympathoplegics
E. ACE inhibitors
C. Vasodilators
221
Newer drug in the antihypertensive group and inhibits renin's action on its substrate, angiotensinogen. It reduces the formation of angiotensin I and, in consequence angiotensin
A. Captopril
B. Losartan
C. Aliskiren
D. Enalapril
E. Minoxidil
C. Aliskiren
222
Industrial disease caused by chronic exposure to vasodilating concentrations of organic nitrates in the workplace; characterized by headache dizziness, and tachycardia on return to work after 2 days absence:
A. Sunday disease
B. Monday disease
C. Angina
D. Nitrate disease
E. Worker's disease
B. Monday disease
223
Rapidly progressing increase in frequency and severity of anginal attacks; an acute coronary syndrome that often heralds imminent myocardial infarction.
A. Classic angina
B. Prinzmetal's angina
C. Angina of effort
D. Atherosclerotic angina
E. Unstable angina
E. Unstable angina
224
Angina precipitated by reversible spasm of coronary vessels, often at rest:
A. Classic angina
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Angina of effort
D. Atherosclerotic angina
E. Unstable angina
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
225
Filling pressure of the heart, dependent on venous tone and blood volume; determines end-diastolic fiber length and tension:
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Intramyocardial fiber tension
D. Myocardial revascularization
E. Coronary pressure
A. Preload
226
Force exerted by myocardial fibers especially ventricular fibers at any given time which also serves as a primary determinant of myocardial O2 requirement:
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Intramyocardial fiber tension
D. Myocardial revascularization
E. Coronary pressure
C. Intramyocardial fiber tension
227
Which of the following is the fundamental physiologic defect seen on patients with heart failure?
A. Irregular heartbeat
B. Increase in cardiac output
C. Decrease in cardiac output
D. Tachycardia
E. Bradycardia
C. Decrease in cardiac output
228
Cardiac glycosides were formerly considered as 1st line drug in the treatment of heart failure. What is the mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides?
A. Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme
B. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C. Inhibition of renal sodium transporter
D. Inhibition of Na+/K- ATPase
E. Proton pump inhibition
D. Inhibition of Na+/K- ATPase
229
Which of the following class of drug is not use in the treatment of heart failure?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
C. Beta blockers
D. Vasodilators
E. Calcium channel blocker
E. Calcium channel blocker
230
Which of the following drug belongs to phosphodiesterase inhibitors?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Milrinone
C. Furosemide
D. Losartan
E. Captopril
B. Milrinone
231
Hormone that stimulates insulin secretion and inhibit gastric secretion and motility:
A. Gastrin
B. Secretin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. GIP
E. Motilin
D. GIP
232
Hormone that stimulates pancreatic ductal cell H₂O and HCO3 secretion
A. Gastrin
B. Secretin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. GIP
E. Motilin
B. Secretin
233
This drug block mast cell degranulation by suppressing release of mediators of immediate bronchoconstriction (early response) and reducing eosinophil recruitment causing airway inflammation:
A. Albuterol
B. IgE antibody
C. Theobromine
D. Cromolyn
E. Theophylline
D. Cromolyn
234
An acute or chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by the presence of 1 or more areas of pruritus (severe itching), erythema (redness) scaling (dry exfoliative shedding), macules (discoloration) papules (pimples), or vesicles (blister-like sacs):
A. Alopecia
B. Eczema
C. Psoriasis
D. Scabies
E. Urticaria
B. Eczema
235
This drug/s can worsen psoriasis and should be avoided by the patients
I. Beta blockers
II. Topical steroids
III. Systemic steroids
IV. Vitamin analogs
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
E. I and IV
B. I and III
236
Deficiency of water-soluble niacin (nicotinic acid) or its amide (nicotinamide) will result in which of the following?
A. Ophthalmoplegia
B. Cyanosis
C. Swollen, congested and bleeding gums
D. Dietary deficiency or impaired Absorption
E. Multiple perifollicular Hemorrhages
D. Dietary deficiency or impaired Absorption
237
The mainstay of pharmacologic therapy for scabies is the use of topical scabicides. Example of topical scabicides includes which of the following?
A. Ivermectin
B. Tacrolimus
C. Dapsone
D. Permethrin
E. Sulfasalazine
D. Permethrin
238
Absorption of this vitamin is impaired by mineral oil, neomycin and cholestyramine:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
A. Vitamin A
239
Carbenicillin, piperacillin, and ticarcillin display improved activity against gram negative organisms and are usually used in combination with aminoglycosides in patients with febrile neutropenia and in those with hard to treat nosocomial infections caused by strains of Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Citrobacter, Serratia Bacteroides fragilis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. These drugs belong to which class of antibiotics?
A. Aminopenicillins
B. Antipseudomonal penicillins
C. Beta lactamase inhibitors
D. Beta lactamase resistant penicillins
E. Cephalosporins
B. Antipseudomonal penicillins
240
Clavulanate, sulbactam and tazobactam are B lactamase inhibitors and are used only in combination with B-lactam antibiotics, which creates a product that has extended activity against B lactamase-producing strains. Which of these B-lactamase inhibitors is usually used in combination with the antibacterial drug Piperacillin?
A. Sulbactam
B. Clavulanate
C. Tazobactam
D. A or B
E. B or C
C. Tazobactam
241
Common adverse effect experienced in taking B-lactamase resistant penicillins
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Maculopapular rash
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
E. Bleeding, hyperkalemia, hypernatremia
A. Hepatotoxicity
242
Common adverse effect experienced in taking extended-spectrum penicillins (high doses):
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Maculopapular rash
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
E. Bleeding, hyperkalemia, hypernatremia
E. Bleeding, hyperkalemia, hypernatremia
243
Which of the following are the broadest spectrum B-lactam antibiotics?
A. Penicillins
B. Cephalosporins
C. Carbapenems
D. Aminoglycosides
E. Monobactam
C. Carbapenems
244
A monobactam antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis and is resistant to most B-lactamases
A. Gentamicin
B. Tetracycline
C. Clindamycin
D. Aztreonam
E. Vancomycin
D. Aztreonam
245
A glycopeptide antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to cell wall phospholipids and inhibiting polymerase and transpeptidation, which leads to cell wall lysis:
A. Gentamicin
B. Tetracycline
C. Clindamycin
D. Aztreonam
E. Vancomycin
E. Vancomycin
246
An oxazolidinone derivative that binds to ribosomal subunits and interferes with bacterial protein synthesis. The drug is intended for treatment of multidrug-resistant gram-positive cocci, particularly as an alternative in infections caused by vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus, multidrug resistant S Pneumonia (including vancomycin ceftriaxone resistant) and MRSA or methicillin resistant S. Epidemidis.
A. Doxycycline
B. Linezolid
C. Dalfopristin
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Sulfasalazine
B. Linezolid
247
Broad-spectrum bactericidal antibiotics that inhibit DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV (essential for Duplication, transcription, and repair of bacterial DNA), target various aerobic gram-positive (eg. methicillin-resistant and B lactamase-producing Staphylococcus species, S Pneumoniae) and gram-negative (eg, H. Influenzae, M. Catarhalis, P. Aeruginosa, Legionella, Chlamydia) organisms:
A. Tetracyclines
B. Quinolones
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Sulfonamides
E. Cephalosporins
B. Quinolones
248
A polyene antifungal agent that binds to ergosterols in fungal plasma membranes, interferes with membrane function, and causes cell death:
A. Amphotericin B
B. Flucytosine
C. Griseofulvin
D. Caspofungin
E. Ketoconazole
A. Amphotericin B
249
All of the following are true regarding combination chemotherapy, EXCEPT:
A. Provides higher and more durable response rates
B. Only agents with demonstrated activity as monotherapy against the specific type of tumor should be selected
C. All agents within the regimen should have same mechanisms of action (which often has additive or synergistic effects)
D. To minimize unacceptable toxicity, agents should not have overlapping adverse effects.
E. To optimize efficacy and minimize resistance, the optimal dose and schedule of the drugs should be used.
C. All agents within the regimen should have same mechanisms of action (which often has additive or synergistic effects)
250
One of the oldest and most studied antineoplastic drug related to folic acid that acts by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase
A. Mercaptopurine
B. 5-Fluorouracil
C. Methotrexate
D. Cytarabine
E. Gemcitabine
C. Methotrexate
251
Combination oral contraceptives contain both estrogen and progestin and prevent pregnancy through the following mechanisms, EXCEPT:
A. They inhibit ovulation via a negative feedback mechanism on the hypothalamus, which alters the normal pattern of FSH and LH secretion by the anterior pituitary
B. Alteration of the tubal transport of the sperm, egg, and fertilized ovum through the fallopian tubes
C. Inducing an environment in the endometrium that is unfavorable for Implantation
D. Changing the cervical mucus and rendering it unfavourable for sperm penetration even if ovulation occurs
E. Inhibition of binding to estrogen receptor that leads to a disruption in the negative feedback of estrogens on the hypothalamus and pituitary, a subsequent increase in secretion of GnRH and gonadotropins
E. Inhibition of binding to estrogen receptor that leads to a disruption in the negative feedback of estrogens on the hypothalamus and pituitary, a subsequent increase in secretion of GnRH and gonadotropins
252
Drug for parkinsonism that acts by binding to dopamine receptors and mimic the action of dopamine:
A. Amantadine
B. Selegiline
C. Biperiden
D. Bromocriptine
E. Levodopa
D. Bromocriptine
253
Drug for parkinsonism that acts by increasing the dopamine release and reduces dopamine reuptake into dopaminergic nerve terminals of substantia nigra neurons
A. Amantadine
B. Selegiline
C. Biperiden
D. Bromocriptine
E. Levodopa
A. Amantadine
254
A neurodegenerative disorder characterized by progressive impairment of short-term memory and other memory, language, and thought processes:
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington disease
C. Tourette syndrome
D. Alzheimer's disease
E. Stroke
D. Alzheimer's disease
255
Which of the following class of drugs listed below is/are included in pharmacologic management options in Alzheimer disease?
I. Cholinesterase inhibitors
II. Muscarinic agonists
III. Beta blockers
IV. Dopamine agonist
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. II and IV
B. I and II
256
Primary treatment options for patients with hyperthyroidism include which of the following?
I. Thioamides
II. Radioactive iodine
III. Surgery
IV. Adrenergic antagonists
V. Iodides
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
E. IV and V
C. I, II and III
257
Adjunct to primary treatment options for patients with hyperthyroidism include which of the following?
I. Thioamides
II. Radioactive iodine
III. Surgery
IV. Adrenergic antagonists
V. Iodides
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
E. IV and V
E. IV and V
258
Preferred treatment option for children, pregnant women, and young adults with uncomplicated Graves’ disease
A. Thioamides
B. Radioactive lodine
C. Surgery
D. Adrenergic antagonists
E. Iodides
A. Thioamides
259
This drug is used to treat Cushing syndrome when dose limiting side effects occur with ketoconazole, and it can be used in combination with other agents. It reduces cortisol production by inhibiting 11-B hydroxylation, the final step in glucocorticoid synthesis
A. Metyrapone
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Progesterone
D. Aldosterone
E. Estradiol
A. Metyrapone
260
Oral antihyperlipidemic agents which is contraindicated with Type 1 DM, pregnancy or breast feeding, severe hepatic or renal dysfunctions, and severe acute comorbidities or surgery
A. 1st gen sulfonylureas
B. 2nd gen sulfonylureas
C. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
D. Biguanide
E. Meglitinides
A. 1st gen sulfonylureas
261
Which of the following drugs is a meglitinide?
I. Glimepiride
II. Repaglinide
III. Acarbose
IV. Nateglinide
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. II and IV
D. I and III
262
The historical mainstay of therapy in type 2 DM, used as monotherapy or with insulin or other oral agents, act mainly by stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic B cells, enhancing B-cell sensitivity to glucose, and reducing glucagon release. They work only if B cells are functioning
A. Thiazolidinediones
B. Meglitinides
C. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
D. Sulfonylureas
E. Biguanide
D. Sulfonylureas
263
2nd gen sulfonylureas have greater potency, fewer drug interactions and have better pharmacokinetic profiles compared to older class 1 gen sulfonylureas. Which of the following drugs listed below belongs to 2nd gen sulfonylureas?
I. Glimepiride
II. Tolbutamide
III. Glipizide
IV. Acetohexamide
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. II and IV
D. I and III
264
This drug binds to Ach receptors and block Ach from binding to open cation channels, thus preventing depolarization:
A. Physostigmine
B. Curare
C. Succinylcholine
D. Hemicholinium
E. Nifedipine
B. Curare
265
This drug blocks acetyl cholinesterase from degrading acetylcholine to choline and acetate, prolonging action of acetylcholine:
A. Physostigmine
B. Curare
C. Succinylcholine
D. Hemicholinium
E. Nifedipine
A. Physostigmine
266
This group of drug elicit vasoconstriction and mydriasis and is also used as nasal decongestants and in eye examinations:
A. B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
B. B2-Adrenoceptor agonists
C. A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
D. A1-Adrenoceptor agonists
E. Mixed a and B agonist
D. A1-Adrenoceptor agonists
267
These drugs stimulate bronchodilation and are used to treat asthma:
A. B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
B. B2-Adrenoceptor agonists
C. A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
D. A1-Adrenoceptor agonists
E. Mixed a and B agonist
B. B2-Adrenoceptor agonists
268
Alpha-antagonist (non-selective, Irreversible) drug used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma:
A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Yohimbine
D. Phenoxybenzamine
269
Mixed a/B antagonists drug used in hypertension during pregnancy:
A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Yohimbine
C. Labetalol
270
B-non selective antagonist drug indicated in the treatment of angina, hypertension, cardiac dysrhythmias, anxiety, tremor and glaucoma
A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Yohimbine
B. Propranolol
271
Which adrenoreceptor mediates relaxation of smooth muscle increase glycogenolysis and increase heart rate and force?
A. Alpha1 (a1)
B. Alpha2 (a2)
C. Beta1 (B1)
D. Beta2 (B2)
E. Dopamine1 (D1)
D. Beta2 (B2)
272
Which of the following steps/processes in autonomic transmission is affected by the drug tranylcypromine?
A. Action potential propagation
B. Transmitter synthesis
C. Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter
D. Transmitter storage
E. Receptor activation or blockade
E. Receptor activation or blockade
273
Which of the following steps/processes in autonomic transmission is affected by the drug Vesamicol and Reserpine?
A. Action potential propagation
B. Transmitter synthesis
C. Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter
D. Transmitter storage
E. Receptor activation or blockade
D. Transmitter storage
274
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effects of cholinomimetic drug on major organ systems?
I. Sphincter muscle of iris – constriction (mydriasis)
II. Sinoatrial node – Decrease in rate (negative chronotropy)
III. Blood vessels – Dilation via release of EDRF from endothelium
IV. Skeletal muscle – Activation of neuromuscular end plates, contraction
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
E. IV only
C. II, III and IV
275
A partial agonist at N receptors which is used for smoking cessation
A. Bethanecol
B. Muscarine
C. Varenicline
D. Neostigmine
E. Physostigmine
C. Varenicline
276
Inhibitors of the gastric H+ K+ -ATPase and considered as the most potent suppressors of gastric acid secretion:
A. H2- receptor antagonists
B. Proton pump inhibitors
C. Antacids
D. Cytoprotectants
E. Bismuth compounds
B. Proton pump inhibitors
277
Long-term use of this H2-receptor antagonist at high doses decreases testosterone binding to the androgen receptor and inhibits a CYP that hydroxylates estradiol. These effects can cause galactorrhea in women and gynecomastia, reduced sperm count, and impotence in men:
A. Famotidine
B. Nizatidine
C. Histamine
D. Ranitidine
E. Cimetidine
E. Cimetidine
278
This drug inhibits the pepsin-mediated hydrolysis of mucosal proteins that contributes to mucosal erosion and ulcerations:
A. Misoprostol
B. Sucralfate
C. Rebamipide
D. Carbenaxolone
E. Lansoprazole
B. Sucralfate
279
An octapeptide analog of somatostatin that is effective in inhibiting the severe secretory diarrhea brought about by hormone-secreting tumors of the pancreas and the GI tract. Its mechanism of action appears to involve inhibition of hormone secretion, including serotonin and various other GI peptides
A. Ondansetron
B. Dronabinol
C. Hyoscine
D. Ocreotide
E. Promethazine
D. Ocreotide
280
Prototypical 5HT3-receptor antagonist used for chemotherapy induced emesis
A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondasentron
C. Tropisetron
D. Dronabinol
E. Granisteron
B. Ondasentron
281
A naturally occurring cannabinoid that can be synthesized chemically or extracted from the marijuana plant, Cannabis sativa. It is a useful prophylactic agent in patients receiving cancer chemotherapy when other antiemetic medications are not effective:
A. Dexamethasone
B. Ondasentron
C. Scoploemine
D. Dronabinol
E. Granisteron
D. Dronabinol
282
The drug of choice for drug-resistant P falciparum malaria. This drug is associated with toxicities including cinchonism, hypoglycaemia, and hypotension when it is given at full therapeutic or excessive doses
A. Primaquine
B. Choloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Proguanil
E. Pyrimethamine
A. Primaquine
283
It is used primarily for the terminal prophylaxis and radical cure of P. vivax and P. ovale (relapsing) malarias because of its high activity against their latent tissue forms. In contrast with other antimalarials, it acts on tissue stages (exoerythrocytic) of plasmodia in the liver to prevent and cure relapsing malaria.
A. Primaquine
B. Choloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Proguanil
E. Pyrimethamine
A. Primaquine
284
Mechanism of resistance in cancer chemotherapy include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Decreased DNA repair
B. Formation of trapping agents
C. Change in enzyme targets
D. Decreased activation of prodrugs
E. Decreased drug accumulation
A. Decreased DNA repair
285
5-Fluorouracil, methotrexate. gemcitabine and 6-mercaptopurine belong to which group of anticancer drugs?
A. Alkylating agents
B. Antimetabolites
C. Natural products
D. Antitumor antibiotics
E. Hormonal
B. Antimetabolites
286
A highly basic positively charged peptide that antagonize the effect of warfarin
A. Argatroban
B. Hirudin
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
E. Dabigatran etexilate mesylate
D. Protamine sulfate
287
Advantages of oral direct thrombin inhibitors include predictable pharmacokinetics and bioavailability, which allow for fixed dosing and predictable anticoagulant response, and make routine coagulation monitoring unnecessary. Which of the following is the first oral direct thrombin inhibitor approved by the US FDA?
A. Dabigatran
B. Streptokinase
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Heparin
E. Hirudin
A. Dabigatran
288
A specific irreversible thrombin inhibitor from leech saliva that is now available in recombinant form as lepirudin:
A. Argatroban
B. Bivalirudin
C. Hirudin
D. Rivaroxaban
E. Warfarin
C. Hirudin
289
A diuretic agent which is also used as a treatment for glaucoma:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Amiloride
D. Acetazolamide
E. Tolvaptan
D. Acetazolamide
290
Natrixam, a drug used in the treatment of hypertension is marketed with a generic name of:
A. Amlodipine and HCTZ
B. Amlodipine and Indapamide
C. Amlodipine and Rosuvastatin
D. Amlodipine and Erythromycin
E. Amlodipine and Erythromycin
B. Amlodipine and Indapamide
291
A newly developed drug in the management of diabetes which is used as adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 DM. It is marketed under the brand name, Invokana:
A. Canaglifozin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Perampanel
D. Agmatine sulfate
E. Anastrozole
A. Canaglifozin
292
The generic name of Rapamune, a drug which serves as a prophylaxis of organ rejection in patients receiving renal transplant:
A. Tacrolimus
B. Sirolimus
C. Tamsulosin
D. Ramipril
E. Renapril
B. Sirolimus
293
This drug inhibits the Na/Cl transporter in the distal convoluted tubule resulting to modest increase in NaCl excretion, some K wasting, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, and decreased urine Ca:
A. Mannitol
B. Conivaptan
C. Acetazolamide
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Furosemide
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
294
Trump plus a newly developed drug which is indicated to treat moderate to severe pain is a combination of
A. Paracetamol and Caffeine
B. Paracetamol and Tramadol
C. Paracetamol and Mefenamic acid
D. Paracetamol and Chlorphenamine maleate
E. Paracetamol and Codeine
B. Paracetamol and Tramadol
295
Which of the following describes 2nd generation H1 -antihistamines?
A. Example of 2 generation antihistamines include Chlorpheniramine and Cyclizine
B. Common effect of first-generation H1 antagonists is sedation.
C. Some 2nd generation H1 antihistamines possess serotonin-blocking and adranoreceptor blocking action
D. Second-generation H1 antihistamines are used mainly for the treatment of allergic rhinitis and chronic urticaria
E. 2nd generation H1 antihistamines are less expensive compared to 1st gen H,1antihistamines
D. Second-generation H1 antihistamines are used mainly for the treatment of allergic rhinitis and chronic urticaria
296
It is the newly marketed Live attenuated Dengue tetravalent vaccine developed by Sanofi-pasteur:
A. Pneumovax 23
B. Biothrax
C. Dengvaxia
D. Denguevaxx
E. Tetravax
C. Dengvaxia
297
H1-antagonist that possess an alpha-receptor blocking action:
A. Diphenydramine
B. Promethazine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Fexofenadine
E. Cyproheptadine
E. Cyproheptadine
298
A gaseous signaling molecule that readily diffuses across cell membranes and regulates a wide range of physiologic and pathophysiologic processes including cardiovascular, inflammatory, and neuronal functions:
A. NO
B. N2O
C. NO2
D. NO3
E. N2O3
A. NO
299
Leukotriene-receptor inhibitor used in the treatment of asthma:
A. Albuterol
B. Zileuton
C. Cromolyn
D. Alprostadil
E. Montelukast
E. Montelukast
300
All of the following are correct statements
regarding COX-1 and COX2 enzyme, EXCEPT:
A. COX-2 is an immediate early-response gene product that is markedly up-regulated by shear stress, growth factors, tumour promoters, and cytokines
B. COX2 is the major source of prostanoids in inflammation and cancer
C. Traditional NSAIDs are selective for COX-2
D. COX-1 generates prostanoids for “housekeeping” such as gastric epithelial cytoprotection
E. Indomethacin and sulindac are slightly selective for COX-1
C. Traditional NSAIDs are selective for COX-2
