Pediatric Dermatology Flashcards
(200 cards)
1- You are consulted to evaluate a full-term neonate in the newborn nursery and find widespread blotchy erythematous macules, papules, and pustules. Which of the following is most likely to be found upon evaluation of a smear of one of the pustules?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Mast cells
D. Bacteria
E. Multinucleated giant cells
Correct choice: B. Eosinophils
Explanation: The stem describes the classic presentation of erythema toxicum neonatorum (ETN), which occurs in nearly half of all full term neonates. The pustules are sterile and a smear shows eosinophils. Neutrophils can be found in a smear of transient neonatal pustular melanosis, which is common in darkly pigmented neonates and presents with small pustules or residual hyperpigmented macules with a collarette of scale. Neutrophils and mast cells are not seen in (ETN). The pustules of ETN are sterile, so bacteria are not found. Lastly, multinucleated giant cells are found when performing a Tzanck smear of a vesicle/pustule in patients infected with either HSV or VZV.
2 -A 15-year-old male with mild intellectual impairment presents with multiple hyperpigmented lesions on the trunk and axillary freckling. Family history was positive for similar lesions in his mother. No ocular findings or cutaneous findings consistent with neurofibromas or plexiform neurofibromas were present. Genetic testing was negative for Neurofibromatosis Type 1. What gene mutation accounts for this patient’s condition?
A. PTPN11
B. RET
C. GNAS
D. SPRED-1
E. Merlin
Correct choice: D. SPRED-1
Explanation: This case represents Legius syndrome (Choice 4), which is due to an autosomal dominant mutation in SPRED-1. This syndrome accounts for up to 2% of all patients meeting criteria for NF1. The clinical presentation is similar to that of NF1 with multiple CALMs, axillary or inguinal freckling. Mild intellectual disability, macrocephaly are also commone features. Other NF1-associated features such as Lisch nodules, neurofibromas, NF1-specific bone lesions, optic pathway gliomas, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors are absent. PTPN11 (Choice 1) is mutated in LEOPARD syndrome and Noonan syndrome. RET (Choice 2) is mutated in several genodermatoses including MEN 2a and 2b. GNAS (Choice 3) is mutated in McCune Albright syndrome. Merlin (Choice 5) is mutated in NF2.
3- A newborn has a mottled pinkish blue appearance to the skin that does not change with temperature. Multiple rewarming attempts are futile. What is the most likely associated finding?
A. Significant full body asymmetry
B. Mild ipsilateral limb hypoplasia
C. CNS tumors
D. High-risk of superinfection
E. Severe contralateral foot hyperplasia
Correct choice: B. Mild ipsilateral limb hypoplasia
Explanation: The vignettes describes a newborn with cutis mamorata telangiectasia congenita. It is distinct from cutis mamorata which is physiologic. Patients with CMTC may have no associated abnormalities but the most common of the choices here is mild ipsilateral limb hypoplasia. Mild, ipsilateral limb hypoplasia is more likely than contralateral or severe full body asymmetry. CNS tumors and risk of infection would be highly unlikely.
4- A premature infant who is being weaned off breast milk develops vesicobullous and eczematous skin lesions and diarrhea. Which of the following is NOT another classic precipitant for this condition?
A. Parenteral nutrition
B. Stress (i.e. infection)
C. Diets with mainly cereal grains
D. Liver disease
E. Alcoholism
Correct choice: D. Liver disease
Explanation: Zinc deficiency can be seen in premature or term infants being weaned off breast milk, which is usually high in zinc content, as well as in parenteral nutrition use, alcoholism because of poor nutritional intake, malabsorption, IBD, diets high in grains containing phytate which binds zinc, and metabolic stress. Liver disease is not a precipitant for zinc deficiency.
5- A 6 month-old presents with the follwing lesions around the mouth and groin. Several bullae are also present on the fingers and toes. Which of the following laboratory values is likely to be abnormal?
A. Hematocrit
B. Calcium
C. Platelet count
D. ALT
E. Alkaline phosphatase
Correct choice: E. Alkaline phosphatase
Explanation: The most likely diagnosis is acrodermatitis enteropathica. Alkaline phosphatase is a zinc dependant enzyme that is decreased in response to low serum zinc levels. These lab values would not typically be abnormal in acrodermatitis enteropathica.
6- What is the most likely condition associated with this lesion?
A. McCune-Albright syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis Type 1
C. Tuberous Sclerosis
D. Neurofibromatosis Type 2
E. This lesion is not associated with any of the above listed conditions
Correct choice: E. This lesion is not associated with any of the above listed conditions
Explanation: The image is that of a Becker’s nevus, which is an acquired unilateral hamartomatous lesion found in adolescent males typically on the shoulder, upper chest, or back. It can be distinguished from a cafe-au-lait macule (particularly the “Coast of Maine” cafe-au-lait macule seen in McCune-Albright syndrome) by the hypertrichosis that is not present in a cafe-au-lait. It is not associated with the listed conditions. The other answer choices are not associated with a Becker’s nevus.
7- A baby boy is presents to your office with his mother who notes he has a ring of hair loss on his scalp. She notes she had a prolonged labor and that this is her first child. Their pediatrician referred him to you for further evaluation and management. On exam, you note annular alopecia. What condition is this associated with?
A. Cephalohematoma
B. Caput succedaneum
C. Sclerema neonatorum
D. Subcutaneous necrosis of the newborn
E. Cutis marmorata
Correct choice: B. Caput succedaneum
Explanation: Caput succedaneum presents as localized edema of the scalp due to labor and occurs most frequently in the setting of prolonged labor and primigravidas. On exam, annular alopecia, also known as “halo scalp ring” can be seen due to pressure necrosis. Cephalohematoma is a subperiosteal hematoma that does not cross the midline and can be associated with hyperbilirubinemia.
8- Which of the following is true regarding neonatal lupus erythematosus?
A. Most cases involve boys
B. Lesions generally resolve spontaneously by 6 months, healing with scarring
C. Photosensitivity is generally not a feature
D. 75% of mothers have symptomatic systemic lupus erythematous at the time of delivery
E. Congenital heart block may be the only manifestation of the disease
Correct choice: E. Congenital heart block may be the only manifestation of the disease
Explanation: Neonatal LE presents with annular scaling erythematous macules and plaques on the head and extremities within the first few months of life in babies born to mothers with LE, rheumatic diseases, or other connective tissue disorders. 50% of mothers are asymptomatic at delivery. Lesions resolve spontaneously by 6 months, healing without scarring. Photosensitivity may be prominent. 75% of cases involve girls. 50% have congenital heart block, which is permanent, and may be the only manifestation of the disease. Thrombocytopenia and hepatic disease are as frequent as cardiac disease. The other answer choices listed are incorrect.
9- What is the most likely diagnosis in this five year old patient?
A. Juvenile xanthogranuloma
B. Benign cephalic histiocytosis
C. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
D. Infantile hemangioma
E. Verruca
Correct choice: A. Juvenile xanthogranuloma
Explanation: Juvenile xanthogranuloma is the most likely diagnosis based on the image which depicts a yellow-to-brown papule or plaque on the back of a five year old child. Solitary lesions will regress and are not a cause for alarm. Benign cephalic histiocytosis most commonly presents in infants and manifests with multiple brown yellow papules that spontaneously regress. Langerhans cell histiocytosis presents in several cutaneous forms but is not a cause of a solitary yellow-brown papule or plaque in a 5 year old child. Infantile hemangioma and verruca do not clinically look like the lesion in the photograph.
11- A 2-month-old female has a red plaque extending from her eye down to her nostril, causing the right nostril to be mildly compressed. The infant is in no acute distress and is playful. What should you discuss with the parents?
A. The lesion will resolve in the next 3 months
B. Growth of the lesion dover the next year is expected and systemic propranolol therapy at weight-based dosing would be optimal but the patient should undergo MRI/MRA of the head, neck, and chest
C. The lesion will grow over 6 months before stopping and topical timolol gel forming solution TID as a solo treatment is all that is necessary
D. The infant has an increased risk of spina bifida
E. The infant will develop coordination and speech problems
Correct choice: B. Growth of the lesion dover the next year is expected and systemic propranolol therapy at weight-based dosing would be optimal but the patient should undergo MRI/MRA of the head, neck, and chest
Explanation: The infant has PHACES syndrome with evidence of infantile hemangioma of the eye and nose. Infantile hemangiomas tend to grow during the first year of life prior to involution. In the setting of PHACES syndrome with a large hemangioma over sensitive areas such as the eyes and nose, the patient should initiate systemic propranolol therapy and undergo MRI/MRA of the head, neck, and chest to evaluate for arterial abnormalities. Topical treatment is insufficient for the infantile hemangioma described in this vignette. The lesion will not resolve within 3 months. The infant does not have an increased risk of spina bifida and will not necessarily develop any coordination or speech problems.
12- Criteria for PHACE syndrome includes presence of a facial hemangioma >5cm + 1 major or 2 minor criteria. Which of the following is a major criterion of PHACE syndrome that could be used in combination with the large hemangioma to clinch the diagnosis?
A. Intracranial hemangioma
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Posterior segment ocular anomalies
D. Anterior segment ocular anomalies
E. Hypopituitarism
Correct choice: C. Posterior segment ocular anomalies
Explanation: Major diagnostic criteria for PHACE syndrome include anomalies of major cerebral arteriaes, posterior fossa anomalies, aortic arch anomalies/aberrant subclavian artery origin, posterior segment ocular anomalies, and sternal abnormalities (clefting, pits, papules)/ supraumbilical raphe. Intracranial hemangiomas, ventricular septal defects, anterior segment ocular anomalies and hypopituitarism are all minor criteria.
13- This healthy 2-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of the pruritic rash seen here. She had mild edema of the dorsal hands and feet and positive dermatographism on exam. All lesions were transient, lasting less than 24 hours in the same location. She was otherwise well and her parents denied any fever or systemic symptoms. What is the best diagnosis?
A. Serum sickness-like reaction
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
D. Urticaria multiforme
E. Morbilliform drug eruption
Correct choice: D. Urticaria multiforme
Explanation: The physical exam and findings suggest urticaria multiforme. The patient expresses pruritus, acral edema, positive dermatographism, and transient lesions and importnatly she is otherwise well. Serum sickness-like reaction the patient is more ill, and has had recently been exposed to antibiotics. The patient has fever, joint pain, etc.
Erythema multiforme is less pruritis, lesions are not transient, and they are often less edematous than those seen here. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is an exfoliative infectious disorder in which there is superficial desquamation. A morbilliform drug eruption will have a medication history and it will lack the annular, edematous plaques seen here.
14- Which of the following encompasses the most common extracutaneous manifestation of PHACE syndrome?
A. Structural brain anomalies
B. Cerebrovascular anomalies
C. Cardiac anomalies
D. Ocular anomalies
E. Sternal clefting
Correct choice: B. Cerebrovascular anomalies
Explanation: Haggstrom et al. observed that the most common extracutaneous findings in PHACE syndrome were abnormalities in the cerebrovasculature (91%) followed by cardiac anomalies (67%). Pediatrics; 2010
-A 4-year-old boy presents to your clinic having recently returned from visiting family in the Philippines. His parents report that he has fever, cough, and nasal congestion. On exam, you notice conjunctival injection and the lesions pictured below. He does not have a rash. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Kawasaki disease
B. Rubeola
C. Hand-Foot-Mouth disease
D. Herpangina
E. Rubella
Correct choice: B. Rubeola
Explanation: This boy is presenting with typical findings of rubeola (measles or first disease). It is important to note that in measles, an enanthem (Koplik spots are pictured in the image) precedes the development of the classic exanthem: erythematous macules and papules beginning over the forehead, hairline, and behind the ears with subsequent downward progression. The remaining listed answer choices do not display Koplik spots.
16- The infant shown in this image is at risk for which of the following complications?
A. Cleft palate
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Hypospadias
D. Imperforate anus
E. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct choice: E. Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation: This patient has a segmental infantile hemangioma on the face and should be evaluated for PHACES syndrome: posterior fossa malformations, hemangiomas, arterial anomalies, cardiac defects and coarctation of the aorta (Choice 5), eye anomalies, sternal defects and supraumbilical raphe. Work-up includes MRI/MRA of the head and neck, referral to a cardiologist, and referral to a pediatric ophthalmologist. Cleft palate (Choice 1), diaphragmatic hernia (Choice 2), hypospadias (Choice 3), imperforate anus (Choice 4) are not associated with PHACES syndrome.
17- A 20-year-old male presents with jaundice, hepatomegaly, blue lunulae, and the ocular finding as shown. What is the genetic mutation in this condition?
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene
B. α-galactosidase A (GLA) gene
C. ATP7B gene
D. Glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene
E. Cystathionine β-synthase (CBS) gene
Correct choice: C. ATP7B gene
Explanation: The correct answer is the ATP7B gene (Choice 3), which is mutated in Wilson’s disease. In this condition, there is a defect in copper metabolism leading to deposition in the liver and subsequent liver failure. Cutaneous findings include Kayser-Fleischer rings (due to copper deposition in Descemet’s membrane), blue lunulae, and pretibial hyperpigmentation. Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene (Choice 1) is mutated in phenylketonuria. α-galactosidase A (GLA) gene (Choice 2) is mutated in Fabry disease. Glucocerebrosidase (GBA) gene (Choice 4) is mutated in Gaucher disease. Cystathionine β-synthase (CBS) gene (Choice 5) is mutated in homocystinuria.
18- Which of the following is more common in the juvenile variant of the skin disease depicted here?
A. Calcinosis cutis
B. Poikiloderma
C. Anti-Jo antibodies
D. Gottron’s papules
E. Associated malignancy
Correct choice: A. Calcinosis cutis
Explanation: Calcinosis cutis is more common in juvenile dermatomyosits (compared to the adult population). The other options are not more common in pediatric dermatomyositis.
19- A 10-year-old girl presents with multiple ill-defined hypo pigmented macules and patches, ranging from 0.5 to 2 cm in diameter with fine scaling. Her lesions are located on both cheeks. Which of the following conditions describes this clinical picture, which is thought to result from a low-grade eczematous dermatitis that disrupts the transfer of melanosomes from melanocytes to keratinocytes?
A. Pityriasis lichenoides chronica
B. Pityriasis alba
C. Vitiligo
D. Tinea versicolor
E. Hypopigmented mycosis fungoides
Correct choice: B. Pityriasis alba Explanation:
Pityriasis alba frequently affects children and adolescents with AD. It is characterized by multiple ill-defined hypopigmented macules and patches, usually 0.5 to 2 cm in diameter, with fine scaling; the lesions are typically located on the face, especially the cheeks, but occasionally appear on the shoulders and arms. Pityriasis alba is most obvious in individuals with darkly pigmented skin and/or following sun exposure. It is thought to result from a low-grade eczematous dermatitis that disrupts the transfer of melanosomes from melanocytes to keratinocytes. Pityriasis lichenoides chronica: Postinflammatory hypopigmentation secondary to other dermatoses such as seborrheic dermatitis or pityriasis lichenoides chronica can occur but the distribution is more widespread in pityriasis lichenoides chronica - the lesions would not just appear on the cheeks. Vitiligo: Vitiligo is sharply demarcated and depigmented rather than hypopigmented. Tinea versicolor: Pityriasis (tinea) versicolor is typically more sharply demarcated, with small lesions that may coalesce centrally in involved areas. Hypopigmented mycosis fungoides: Hypopigmented mycosis fungoides may occasionally represent a diagnostic consideration if there is extrafacial involvement.
20- A 3-year-old boy presented with a generalized eruption of numerous tan to brown macules and papules on the trunk and limbs. He felt more itchy when he was hot or after scratching. The lesions noticeably produced an urticarial wheal after rubbing. The patient was otherwise healthy. Which of the following should be avoided in this condition?
A. Hydroxyzine
B. Prednisone
C. Morphine
D. Mupirocin
E. Cyproheptadine
Correct choice: C. Morphine
Explanation: This case describes urticaria pigmentosa, the most common childhood form of mastocytosis. Patients present with multiple light brown to red-brown macules and papules. Pruritus and flushing may be seen and Darier’s sign is positive (urticarial wheal formation after friction or rubbing). It is important for patients with urticaria pigmentosa to avoid mast cell degranulators e.g. alcohol, anticholinergics, NSAIDs, aspirin, narcotics e.g. morphine (Choice 3) and codeine, polymyxin, and systemic anesthetics. Hydroxyzine (Choice 1), prednisone (Choice 2), mupirocin (Choice 4), and cyproheptadine (Choice 5) are not mast cell degranulators.
21- What imaging study is best to confirm PHACE syndrome?
A. Cerebral ultrasound
B. MRI/MRA
C. CT Scan
D. Fundoscopy
E. Serial xray
Correct choice: B. MRI/MRA
Explanation: The best imaging test looking for associated cerebral anomalies in patients with PHACE syndrome is MRI/MRA.
22- Subcutaneous fat necrosis of the newborn has been associated with:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Hyponatremia
Correct choice: B. Hypercalcemia
Explanation: Hypercalcemia has been noted in some cases of subcutaneous fat necrosis of the newborn. Because the onset of hypercalcemia may be delated, serum calcium levels should be monitored for several months after the diagnosis. The other listed electrolyte abnormalities are not commonly reported in the setting of subcutaneous fat necrosis of the newborn.
23- A 31-year-old male with history of recurrent febrile episodes presents with the following skin findings. The gene that is mutated in this condition encodes for what type of protein?
A. Tyrosine kinase receptor
B. Protein tyrosine protein phosphatase
C. Telomerase complex
D. DNA helicase
E. Nuclear envelope protein
Correct choice: C. Telomerase complex
Explanation: The correct answer is the telomerase complex (Choice 3), as this case represents dyskeratosis congenita. Dyskeratosis congenita occurs due to mutations in TERT (AD/AR), TERC (AD), DKC1 (XLR), or TINF2 (AD) genes which encode for proteins involved in telomere maintenance. Affected patients manifest reduced telomerase activity and abnormally shortened telomeres leading to chromosomal instability and cellular replication dysfunction. Clinical features include bone marrow failure and the triad of abnormal reticulated hyperpigmentation on the face/neck/upper trunk, oral leukoplakia (premalignant), and onychodystrophy (pterygium, anonychia, longitudinal ridging/splitting). Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2 is due to a mutation in the RET proto-oncogene, which encodes for a tyrosine kinase receptor (Choice 1). Noonan syndrome is due to a mutation in PTPN11, which encodes a protein tyrosine protein phosphatase (Choice 2). Rothmund-Thompson Syndrome is due to a mutation in RecQL4, which encodes a DNA helicase (Choice 4). Progeria is due to a mutation in Lamin A, which encodes a nuclear envelope protein (Choice 5).
24- You are consulted on a 1 week-old baby girl who has developed a new rash. Birth history was uncomplicated and she was born at full-term. The team notes the neonate began to develop several indurated plaques on her back, buttocks, and thighs. What laboratory abnormality is associated with this condition?
A. Neutropenia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypercalcemia
E. Hypernatremia
Correct choice: D. Hypercalcemia
Explanation: This neonate has subcutaneous fat necrosis of the newborn, which presents with localized subcutaneous nodules on the buttocks, thighs, arms, face and shoulders. It typically occurs within the first weeks of life in healthy term infants. Calcification is common and it is associated with a profound hypercalcemia. Calcium levels should be followed until one month after all lesions have cleared. The remaining lab abnormalities are not commonly associated with subcutaneous fat necrosis of the newborn.
25- Which of the following disorders is more likely to occur in children with chronic fecal incontinence?
A. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
B. Herpes simplex infection
C. Perianal streptococcal disease
D. Granuloma gluteale infantum
E. Seborrheic dermatitis
Correct choice: D. Granuloma gluteale infantum
Explanation: Granuloma gluteale infantum, which is considered to be a form of chronic irritant diaper dermatitis, is seen more commonly in the setting of chronic fecal incontinence. Langerhans cell histiocytosis, herpes simplex infection, perianal streptococcal disease, and seborrheic dermatitis are not seen more often in the setting of chronic fecal incontinence.