Pediatric MSK conditions Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

Brachial plexus injury is usually due to traction on ______ during breech delivery of forceful traction and rotation of _____ during difficult delivery

A

shoulder; head

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2
Q

What is the most common brachial plexus injury?

A

Erb’s palsy

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3
Q

What nerve roots are involved in Erb’s palsy?

A

C5-C6

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4
Q

What position is the arm in Erbs palsy?

A
Waiter's tip - 
Shoulder - extension, internal rotation, adduction
Elbow - extension
Forearm - pronated
Wrist and fingers - flexed
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5
Q

Grasp is (lost/intact) in Erb’s palsy

A

intact

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6
Q

Is there sensory loss in Erb’s palsy?

A

YES

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7
Q

Klumpke’s palsy = injury to the ____ _____

A

lower plexus (C7-T1)

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8
Q

What are 3 major impairments in Erb’s palsy?

A
  1. paralysis or weakness
  2. muscle imbalances
  3. learned non-use - delay in motor milestones
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9
Q

____ encompasses a spectrum of pathologic hip disorders in which hips are unstable, sublimated or dislocated, and/or have malformed actabla

A

DDH

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10
Q

Normal development of the femoral head and acetabulum are _________

A

co-dependent

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11
Q

The head must be stable in the hip socket for both to form _______ and _______

A

spherically; concentrically

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12
Q

What are 2 large risk factors for developing DDH?

A
  1. breech position

2. + family history

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13
Q

DDH is clinically ______ in infancy/early childhood

A

silent

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14
Q

There is poor prognosis of DDH if unstable and morphologically abnormal by __-__ years of age

A

2-3

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15
Q

What are 4 tests to do in the screening exam for DDH?

A
  1. LLD
  2. asymmetric thigh or gluteal folds
  3. limited or asymmetrical hip abduction
  4. Barlow/Ortolani
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16
Q

In the Ortolani maneuver, a subluxed or dislocated femoral head is reduced into the acetabulum with gentle hip ________ by the examiner

A

abduction

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17
Q

In the Barlow maneuver, a reduced femoral head is gently _______ until it becomes sublimated or dislocated

A

adducted

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18
Q

The _______ maneuver is a test of laxity or instability

A

barlow

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19
Q

What is the most important clinical test for detecting newborn dysplasia ?

A

Ortolani

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20
Q

3 management strategies of DDH?

A
  1. observation
  2. bracing
  3. Sx
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21
Q

6 long term implications of DDH?

A
  1. degenerative arthritis
  2. LLD
  3. limited hip abduction
  4. pain and disability
  5. premature hip replacement
  6. avascular necrosis
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22
Q

_______ ______ = congenital disorder of collagen synthesis

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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23
Q

OI effects all _______ tissue

24
Q

What are 6 effects of OI?

A
  1. OP
  2. excessive fractures
  3. bowling of long bones
  4. spinal deformities
  5. muscle weakness
  6. ligamentous laxity
25
2 management strategies for OI?
1. bisphosphonates | 2. orthopaedics
26
PT management of OI?
function and participation!!!
27
At what age should you start to worry about toe walking?
if it persists past the age of 3
28
What are 2 differential diagnosis's for ITW?
1. autism spectrum disorder | 2. CP
29
Are males or females more likely to be ITW?
males
30
There is a ___ association between ITW and language delays, learning impairments and prematurity
+++
31
3 symptoms aside from toe walking in ITW?
1. pain in legs 2. frequent tripping / falling 3. ankle injuries
32
4 treatments for ITW management?
1. casts/braces 2. PT 3. botox-A 4. surgery
33
PT algorithm for ITW?
1. stretching 2. strengthening 3. manual therapy 4. balance/coordination exercises 5. gait training
34
_____ disease = avascular necrosis of the femoral head due to loss of blood supply
legg calve perthes disease (LCP)
35
What are 5 possible causes of LCP disease ?
1. trauma 2. transient synovitis 3. infection 4. congenital or developmental vascular irregularities 5. thrombotic vascular insults
36
Most common onset of LCP disease is ____ ages __-__ years
boys; 5-7
37
4 stages of LCP disease?
1. condensation 2. fragmentation 3. reossification 4. remodelling
38
______ = femoral head slips or is displaced from normal alignment on femoral neck
slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
39
SCFE is often associated with onset of ______
puberty
40
5 clinical presentations of SCFE?
1. pain in groin, medial thigh or knee 2. limp 3. ER of leg 4. limited hip ROM 5. inability to WB due to severe pain
41
Management of SCFE?
1. surgery; stabilize growth plate with a pin fixation 2. bedrest 3. casting 4. PT
42
Ogood-Schlatter disease (OSD) = ______ injury
overuse
43
OSD = _______ of tibial tubercle
apophysitis
44
OSD is common in boys ages __-__ years old and girls ages __-___ years old
10-15; 8-13
45
OSD management?
1. ice 2. rest 3. stretch 4. strengthen
46
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) = ______ lesion, distal femur most common
osteochondral
47
Ages of OCD?
13-17
48
Clinical presentation of OCD?
1. generalized pain which increases with activity 2. increase in pain with rotational movements 3. swelling 4. instability 5. locking
49
_____ disease = localized disorder of bone remodelling
pagets
50
__-__ % of Paget's disease is asymptomatic
70-90
51
______ disease normally involves multiple bones, especially axial skeleton
pagets
52
There is a very strong _____ link with pagets disease
familial
53
_____ = hormonal disorder that develops when your pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during adulthood
acromegaly
54
_____ is characterized by short stature
dwarfism
55
Most common type of drawfism?
achondroplasia
56
What are the 2 types of dwarfism?
1. disproportionate | 2. proportionate
57
5 clinical presentations of LCP's disease?
1. limp 2. pain 3. +ve trendelenberg 4. decreased ROM 5. muscle spasm (++ abd and IR, flexion contracture)