Pediatric trivia Flashcards
(237 cards)
1
Q
What is the order of cranial suture close?
A
- metopic
- coronal
- lambdoid
- sagittal
2
Q
What is another name for metopic carniosynostosis?
A
trigonencephaly
3
Q
What is another name for coronal craniosynostosis?
A
brachycephaly
4
Q
What is another name for lambdoid craniosynostosis?
A
turricephaly
5
Q
What is another name for sagittal craniosynostosis?
A
scaphocephaly or dolichocephaly
6
Q
Absence/dysplasia of the greater sphenoid wing should make you think?
A
NF1
7
Q
Tibial pseudo-arthrosis should make you think of what disease?
A
NF1
8
Q
Scolisois and lateral thoracic meningocele should make you think of what disease?
A
NF1
9
Q
What two fissures close prematurely with clover leaf syndrome? What else is a common finding?
A
coronal and lambdoid
hydro
10
Q
Apert and Crouzons have premature closure of what suture?
A
coronal (brachycephaly)
11
Q
Are parietal foramina benign? What causes them?
A
yes
venous anamolies
12
Q
Too many wormian bones make you think what disease?
A
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
13
Q
Too many wormian bones plus an absent clavicle should make you think what disease?
A
cleido-cranial dysostosis
14
Q
What is the mnemonic for too many Wormian Bones?
A
PORK CHOP
15
Q
What is the appearance of dermoid/epidermoid of the skull have?
A
benign appearing, sclerotic
16
Q
Where are the two classic locations for a congenital dermal sinus of the face/skull?
A
nose and occiput
17
Q
A cephalohematoma lies under what structure?
A
periosteum
18
Q
A subgaleal hemorrhage lies ON TOP of what structure?
A
periosteum
19
Q
What type of scalp hematoma can cause life threatening bleeding?
A
subgaleal hematoma
20
Q
What complication can happen to a cephalohematoma?
A
super-infection
21
Q
Supposedely, depressed fractures greater than what distance need surgery?
A
> 5mm
22
Q
What is the textook definition of a sinus pericranii?
A
“abnormal communication between an intracranial dural sinus and extracranial venous structure”
23
Q
What has a stronger association with NAT, epidurals or subdurals?
A
subdurals
24
Q
Greater than what size is needed to diagnose BESSI? What is the etiology?
A
> 5mm
immature villi
25
What is the most common cause of macrocephaly? What does this predispose to?
BESSI
subdural
26
PVL pre-disposes a child to what type of abnormality?
CP
27
How long do PVL cysts take to develop?
4 weeks
28
By what age of gestation should the germinal matrix cease to exist?
36 weeks
29
What is the definition of a grade 1 germinal matrix hemorrhage?
blood at caudo-thalamic groove
30
What is the definition of a grade 2 germinal matrix hemorrhage?
blood in vents, vents are normal size
31
What is the definition of a grade 3 germinal matrix hemorrhage?
blood in vents, vents dilated
32
What is the definition of a grade 4 germinal matrix hemorrhage?
intraparenchymal hemorrhage
33
What is the most common syndromic associated with choanal atresia?
CHARGE
34
What type of defects are associated with choanal atresia?
midline defects, SPECIFICALLY hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal
35
What are the two radiotracers for ectopic thyroid?
I-123 or Tc-MIBI
36
An enhancing nodule within a thyroglossal duct cyst should make you think what?
cancer (papillary)
37
What does a pediatric neck dermoid look like?
"sac of marbles"
38
Is phlebectasia associated with a stenosis?
no
39
Does the chin point towards or away from fibromatosis coli?
away
40
What is the most common soft tissue mass in the trachea?
subglottic hemangioma
41
What does subglottic hemangioma look like on frontal Xray?
unilateral croup
42
What is a laryngeal cleft? How are these definitively diagnosed?
communication between larynx and trachea
endoscopy
43
How many ribs are necessary to say the lungs are hyperinflated?
6 anterior or 8 posterior
44
With meconium aspiration, are lung volumes normal or high?
high
45
What additional finding is seen with meconium aspiration 20-40% of time?
ptx
46
In addition to C-section, what are two risk factors for TTN?
materal diabetes
maternal sedation
47
Surfactant deficiency can cause what two complications?
pulmonary hemorrhage
increased risk of PDA
48
Does GBS pneumonia have high or low lung volumes?
low
49
Does non-GBS pneumonia have high or low lung volumes?
high
50
Can surfactant administration mimic PIE?
yes
51
Does intra-lobar pulmonary sequestration have venous drainage to pulmonary or systemic veins?
pulmonary veins
52
Does extra-lobar pulmonary sequestration have venous drainage to pulmonary or systemic veins?
systemic
53
Is intra or extralobar pulmonary sequestration associated with other congential anamolies?
extra
54
When does extra-lobar pulmonary sequestration present? Why?
infancy
respiratory compromise
55
Do bronchogenic cysts communicate with the airway?
no
56
Which lobe is favored with congenital lobar emphysema?
left upper
57
Do CCAM/CPAM communicate with the airway?
yes
58
How is CLE treated?
lobectomy
59
Mortality rate of CDH is related to what?
degree of pulmonary hypoplasia
60
Most CDH pts have what entity?
congenital heart disease
61
Essentially all CDH patients are what?
malrotated
62
Regarding a bronchial foreign body, what side is put down?
affected side
63
Does CF have an absent or clogged vas deferens?
absent
64
What liver pathology can CF patients get?
biliary cirrhosis
65
Do men with PCD has absent vas deferns or immobile sperm?
immobile sperm
66
Does pleuralpulmonary blastoma invade the chest wall?
no
67
What complication can happen if a UVC becomes lodged in the PV?
hepatic infarct
68
What are the two positions for appropriate placement of a UAC?
high = T8-10
Low = L3 - L5
69
What is a contraindiction for a UAC?
omphalocele
70
Klinefelter syndrome is highly associated with what mediastinal mass?
"extra-gonadal germ cell tumor"
71
Rash after antibiotics should make you think which two things?
amoxicillin after mono
72
What vascular abnormality needs to be identifed prior to TEF repair?
right arch
73
How many VACTERL abnormalities need to be diagnosed in order to be VACTERL?
three
74
What is the only vascular variant that courses between the esophagus and trachea?
pulmonary sling
75
What vascular variant will produce an indentation on the anterior esophagus and posterior trachea?
double arch
76
What is a diverticulum of kommerrell?
aneurysmal out pouching of proximal origin of aberrant left subclavian
77
Corkscrew duodenum should make you think what disease?
midgut volvulus
78
How will the SMA appear in relation to the SMV during midgut volvulus?
SMA to RIGHT of SMV
79
How do Ladd's Bands present?
intermittent episodes of duodenal obstruction
80
What two time frames does hypertrophic pyloric stenosis not occur?
at birth
after three months
81
What are two two size criteria for HPS?
4 and 14 mm
82
Where does a duodenal web occur in relation to the ampulla of vater?
distally
83
How does annular pancreas present in kids?
obstruction
84
How does annular pancreas present in adults?
pancreatitis
85
Short micro-colon should make you think what?
colonic atresia
86
Long microcolon can be seen with what two diseases?
meconium ileus
distal ileal atresia
87
What is another name for meconium plug syndrome?
small left colon syndrome
88
Is meconium plug syndrome associated with CF?
no
89
Meconium plug syndrome is most often seen with what two conditions?
maternal diabetes
magnesium sulfate
90
'Sawtooth' appearance of the rectum should make you think what disease?
Hirschsprung
91
Imperforate anus patients need to be screened for what?
tethered cord
92
Are direct or indirect hernias more common in kids?
indirect
93
Pressure should not exceed what during air contrast enema?
120 mm Hg
94
How is tension pneumoperitoneum treated?
needle decompression
95
What are the two types of ectopic mucosa in a meckels diverticulum?
gastric and pancreatic
96
Is gastroschisis always on the right or left sides?
right
97
What part of the GI tract are enteric duplication cysts most commonly located?
ileal region
98
What can enteric duplication cysts cause in utero?
bowel perforation/obstruction
99
30% of enteric duplication cysts are associated with what?
vertebral anamolies
100
DIOS in CF patients often occurs due to what?
not taking enzymes
101
Other than prematurity, what is the other risk factor for NEC?
congenital heart disease
102
What causes fibrosing colonopathy? What part of the colon is effected?
pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy
right colon
103
What is the second most common cause of pancreatic insufficiency in kids?
Schwachman Diamond syndrome
104
What are the thre symptoms of Schwachman Diamond syndrome?
1. pancreatic insufficiency/diarrhea
2. eczema
3. short stature
105
Where in the pancreas are most of the beta cells located?
tail
106
Does the dorsal or ventral bud form the pancreatic tail?
dorsal
107
What is the most common pediatric neoplasm of the pancreas? Demographic?
SPEN
young girl, asian or black
108
What is an infantile hepatic hemagioma associated with?
high output HF
109
An enlarged aorta above the celiac takeoff would be indicative of what liver abnormality?
hepatic hemangioma
110
What growth factor is elevated with hepatic hemangioma of the liver?
EGFR
111
What hepatic malignancy is associated with multiple syndromes?
hepatoblastoma
112
Prematurity is a risk factor for what liver abnormality?
hepatoblastoma
113
What pediatric liver abnormality is cystic in appearance?
mesenchymal hamartoma
114
What pediatric liver abnormality is cystic in appearance?
mesenchymla hamartoma
115
What pediatric liver abnormality often has a portal vein feeding branch?
mesenchymal hamartoma
116
What does the central scar of FNH look like on T2?
bright
117
Does the central scar of FNH enhance?
yes
118
What does the central scar of fibrolamellar HCC look like on T2?
T2 dark
119
Does the central scar of fibrolamellar HCC enhance?
no
120
What is the "pissed off cousin" of the hepatic mesenchymal hamartoma?
undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma
121
What is the most common choledochal cyst?
Type I
122
What is a type 1 choledochal cust?
focal dilation of CBD
123
What type of choledochal cyst is Caroli's Disease?
Type 5
124
Is Caroli disease intrahepatic or extrahepatic?
intra-hepatic
125
What is the 'sign' for Caroli disease? What does this represent?
central dot sign
portal vein in dilated bile duct
126
What two things happen in the kidney are associated with a patient with Caroli?
polycystic kidney
medullary sponge kidney
127
What two abnormalities are seen in the liver with HHT?
cirrhosis
massively dilated hepatic artery
128
Is biliary atresia intra or extra hepatic?
extra
129
What visceral organ may be absent with biliary atresia?
gallbladder
130
Is Alagille Syndrome intra or extrahepatic atresia?
intrahepatic
131
A pediatric patient with gallstones should make you think what disease?
sickle cell
132
Is azygous continuation a left or right sided isomerism?
left
133
Is right or left sided isomerism associated with more cardiac malformations?
right
134
What causes 'pancake' adrenal gland?
renal agenesis
135
Horse shoe kidney gets trapped on what structure?
IMA
136
Renal Carcinoid is a zebra seen with what condition?
horse shoe kidney
137
Which kidney is inferior during crossed fused renal ectopia, the ectopic kidney or normally placed kidney?
ectopic
138
What changes management of UPJ obstruction?
looking for crossing vessels on CT
139
What is often the cause of death with ARPKD?
portal hypertension
140
What are the three risk factors for neonatal renal vein thrombosis?
maternal diabetes
sepsis
dehydration
141
How does neonatal renal artery thrombosis present? What is the most common cause?
acute hypertension
UAC
142
What is the definition of a ureterocele? What are ureteroceles associated with?
"intra-cystic dilation of ureter"
duplicated collecting system
143
PUV is a remnant of what structure?
wolfian duct
144
What is the pathophysiology of a hutch diverticula?
"congenital muscular defect"
145
What is the most common complication of a urachal remnant?
infection
146
Does bladder extrophy increase the likelihood of squamous cell or adenocarcinoma of the herniated bladder?
adeno
147
What osseus defect is associated with bladder exstrophy?
unfused pubic ramus
148
Does a cloacal malformation occur only in boys or girls?
girls
149
WHat renal malignancy can one be born with?
mesoblastic nephroma
150
What is the pathophysiology behind nephroblastomatosis? Might turn into what? Ultrasound until when? How often?
embrylogical crap that didnt involute
bilateral wilms
age 7-8, q3 months
151
Where does Wilms tumor most often met?
lung
152
Where does clear cell Wilms met to?
bone
153
Where does rhabdoid wilms met to?
brain
154
Multi-locular cystic nephrome cannot be differentiated from what other renal tumor?
cystic wilms
155
RCC in a kid should make you think what disease?
VHL
156
Necrosis within nephroblastomatosis should make you think what?
wilms
157
What is the buzz word for nephroblastomatosis appearance?
hypodense rind
158
Mesoblastic nephroma is essentially what on pathology?
fetal hamartoma
159
Does MCDK have micro or macro cysts? Do they communicate?
macro
do not communicate
160
What are the three main abnormalities of Beckwith Wiedemann?
1. hemi-hypertrophy
2. omphalocele
3. hepatoblastoma
161
What are the two main symptoms of Sotos syndrome?
macrocephaly
retarded
162
What are the abnormalities of WAGR syndrome?
wilms
aniridia
genital stuff
growth retardation
163
What are the three abnormalities of denys-drash syndrome?
wilms
pseudo-hermaphroditism
progressive glomerulo-nephritis
164
Biopsy wilms? Why?
never
seed tract
165
What two genital abnormalities does wilms like to pal a round with?
hypospadias
cryptorchidism
166
What is the most common pediatric bladder malignancy?
rhabdomyosarcoma
167
What is the presentation of a rhabdomyosarcoma in the scrotum?
"para-testicular mass"
168
What age must Stage 4S neuroblastoma be diagnosed under?
age 1
169
Neuroblastoms stage 4S mets are confirmed to what three locations?
1. Liver
2. skin
3. bone MARROW
170
What are the five most common causes of lucent metaphyseal lines?
congenital infection
anatomic variation
metastatic NB
earlier infection
leukemia/lymphoma
171
What calcifies, neuroblastoma or wilms?
NB
172
What invades vessels, Wilms or NB?
wilms
173
What encases vessels, Wilms or NB?
NB encases
174
What is circumscribed, wilms or NB?
wilms
175
Neonatal adrenal hemorrhage is associated with hemorrhage where else?
scrotum
176
Blue Dot Sign on physical exam is found with what disease process? Greater than what size?
testicular appendage infarction
> 5mm
177
What testicular tumor is often bilateral? What genetic condition can this be seen in?
sertoli cell
Peutz Jegher
178
What class of patients are at risk for testicular lymphoma?
immunosuppressed
179
How does testicular lymphoma look like on US?
multiple hypo-echoic masses
180
What testicular neoplasm often has elevated AFP?
yolk sac tumor
181
Are sacrococcygeal teratomas more often benign if they present younger or older?
younger
182
Are sacrococcygeal teratomas more likely to be malignant if entirely within the abdomen or pelvis?
within abdomen = more likely malignant
183
What type of sacrococcygeal teratoma is entirely within the abdomen?
Type 4
184
What type of sacrococcygeal teratoma is entirely outside the pelvis?
Type 1
185
What muscle group inserts on the iliac crest?
rectus
186
What muscle group originates from the ASIS?
sartorius
187
What muscle group originates from the AIIS?
rectus femoris
188
Which group of kids are prone to a Sinding Larsen Johannson lesion?
CP
189
What is the wimberger sign? Where is it seen?
destruction of the medial portion of the tibial metaphysis
syphillis
190
What type of neonatal medication is known to cause a periosteal reaction?
prostaglandin
191
What two bones are involved with physiological periostitis of the newborn? What part of the bone?
femur and tibia
diaphysis
192
Physiological periostitis occurs in which bone first, femur or tibia?
femur
193
What two patient populations can have osteomyelitis spread to the epiphysis?
newborns and adults
194
What is a risk factor for achondroplasia?
advanced PATERNAL age
195
What is another name for Jeune Disease?
asphyxiating thoracic dystrophy
196
What do the ribs look like with jeuene disease?
short
197
What are the four findings of Gorlin Synrome?
Bifid ribs
falx calcs
basal cell cancers
odontogenic keratocysts
198
What are the three findings of pynknodysostosos?
Osteopetrosis
wormian bones
acro-osteolysis
199
What is a sprengel deformity? When is it seen?
high riding scapula
klippel-feil
200
What syndrome possesses an omovertebral bone?
klippel feil
201
What are the three mucopolysaccharidoses?
hunter
hurler
morquio
202
What is the most common cause of death in the mucopolysaccharidoses?
cervical myelopathy at C2
203
What are the two osseus findings of NF1 in the leg?
anterior tibial bowing
pseudo-arthrosis of the distal fibula
204
What disease has an Erlenmeyer shaped femur?
gaucher
205
What do the vertebral bodies look like with Gauchers diease?
H-shaped
206
What happens to the femoral heads with Gauchers?
AVN
207
Blounts disease is not seen before what age?
two
208
What does talipes mean?
congenital
209
What does 'Equines' mean?
plantar flexed ankle
210
What does varus mean?
fore foot turned in
211
What does valgus mean in regards to the forefoot?
forefoot turned out
212
What is the latin term for high arch?
cavus
213
What is more common, osseus of fibrous coalition?
fibrous
214
DDH more common in male or females?
female
215
DDH seen with polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios?
oligo
216
Regarding DDH, the alpha angle should be less than what?
60 degrees
217
Fraying, cupping and irregularity along the physeal margin should make you think of what?
ricketts
218
What are ricketts patients at an increased risk of?
SCFE
219
Is ricketts seen in newborns?
no
220
What is it called if findings similar to ricketts are seen in a newborn?
hypo-phosphatasia
221
What is the metabolic abnormality with hypophosphatasia?
insufficient alkaline phosphatase
222
Scurvy does not occur before what age?
6 months
223
What happens to the periosteum with scurvy?
subperiosteal hemorrhage
224
What can happen to the joint spaces with scurvy?
hemarthrosis
225
What is the differential for lucent metaphyseal band?
LINE
Leukemia
Infection (torch)
Neuroblastoma met
Endocrine (scurvy, ricketts)
226
What is the pathophysiology with a tethered cord?
ischemia
227
Conus below what level would be concerning for a tethered cord?
L2
228
Conus greater than what size would be concerning for a tethered cord?
> 2mm
229
What two congenital entities can be associated with a tethered cord?
myelomeningocele
filum terminale lipoma
230
At what level, above or below, would a skin dimple need screened for a tethered cord?
gluteal crease
231
A lipomyelocele or lipomyelomeningocele is 100% associated with what other abnormality?
tethered cord
232
What is the term for a duplicated cord?
diplomyelia
233
What is the definition of diastematomyelia?
sagittal split in cord
234
What are the two associations with caudal regression syndrome?
VACTERL
Currarino triad
235
Is caudal regression syndrome associated with maternal diabetes or maternal alcoholism?
Diabetes
236
What is the Currarino triad?
1. ANTERIOR sacral meningocele
2. Anorectal malformation
3. scimitar sacrum
237
Are parietal foramina benign?
yes
