Pediatrics Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

What are risks for vertical HIV transmission to child?

A

frequent unprotected sex, advanced HIV infection (high viral load), membrane rupture over 4 hrs before delivery without antivirals, vaginal delivery, breastfeeding, premature (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the components of the APGAR score?

A

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the TORCH infections?

A

TOxoplasmosis, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes virus type 2 (O- other like HIV, heb B, HPV, and syphillis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AAP breastfeeding guidelines?

A

-exclusive for first 6 months, then continue for at least 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the leading cause of congenital infection in the US?

A

CMV - >90% of children with congenital CMV infection have no clinical evidence of disease as newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does the APP mandate developmental screening?

A

9, 18, and 30 month checkups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the caloric requirements for 1-2 mo olds?

A
  • Term to grow 100-120cal/kg/day

- preterm 115-130cal/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should baby regain birth weight?

A

2 weeks of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What vaccines are included in Pediarix?

A

DTaP, HepB, and IPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What vaccines are in Pentacel?

A

DTap, IPV, and HIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should the infant double birth weight? triple?

A

double - 4-5 months

triple - 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are urine or serum VMA/HVA from?

A

metabolites of catecholamines (elevated in neuroblastoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the best imaging technique for an abdominal mass?

A

abdominal ultrasound (organ of origin, and solid cystic or mixed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should a child first see the dentist?

A

within 6 months of first tooth eruption or by 1 year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How tall to still be in a booster?

A

4’ 9’’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should parents discontinue using the bottle?

A

12-15 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is TIPP?

A

The Injury Prevention Program; info for preventing injuries at all ages. Website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What routine screens are done at 12 months?

A

lead and hemoglobin (for anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 core symptoms of ADHD?

A

inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should you start vision screening? hearing screening?

A

vision - 3yrs old

hearing - newborn and restart at 4 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In anorexia, deficiency of what elements leads to cardiac issues?

A

calcium and magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the mnemonic used in assessing types of pain?

A

OPQRSTAAA

-Onset, Position, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Timing, Aggravation, Alleviating, Associated symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is common range for HR and RR in 1st hour of life? 2nd?

A

1st hour - HR 160-180 and RR 60-80

2nd hour - HR 120-160 and RR 40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the primary anabolic hormone for fetal growth?

A

Insulin - insulin sensitive organ systems = heart, liver, muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the average glucose levels in a newborn?
65-71mg/dL
26
What causes transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)?
delayed clearance of fluid from lungs after birth. More common with diabetic moms or c-section
27
What are the most common forms of antibody positive hemolysis (DAT or Combs positive)?
Rh or ABO incompatibility, incompatibilities in minor blood group antigens, antibody-negative hemolysis
28
What is a prominent clinical finding in galactosemia and hypothyroidism?
jaundice
29
When does breast milk jaundice begin?
day 4-7 (physiologic jaundice appears before this); may last up to 12 weeks
30
What are the tests for newborn with sepsis?
CBC with dif, CRP, blood culture, LP with chem and cultures
31
What labs are expected with Congential Adrenal Hypoplasia (CAH)?
low sodium and high potassium, elevated 17-OH progesterone
32
Which viruses are "live"?
rota (by mouth), MMR, varicella
33
What can be the only sign of early sepsis in a baby?
elevated heart rate
34
Which bugs give positive nitrite on UA?
E. coli, Klebsiella, and Proteus spp.
35
Location/ quality of enterovirus rash?
erythematous and maculopapular; may involve palms and soles. can be petechial - commonly late summer and early fall - ex: Coxsackie = hand foot and mouth
36
What are 3 causes of strawberry tongue?
streptococcal pharyngitis, Kawasaki disease, toxic shock syndrome
37
What are causes of rash on palms and soles?
RMSF, Kawasaki disease, enteroviruses, syphilis
38
Staccato cough at 4-12 weeks?
chlamydia pneumonia
39
What bugs commonly cause acute otitis media (AOM)?
Strep pneumo (25-50%), non HiB typable (15-52%), Moraxella catarrhalis (3-20%), Strep pyogenes (
40
How much liquid is needed to replace mild-moderate dehydration?
50-100mL/kg
41
What is the pediatric ibuprofen dosing?
10mg/kg Q 6-8 hrs PO | suspension: 100mg/5mL where 5mL = 1 tsp
42
What murmur has a widely split S2?
ASD | -systolic murmur due to increased flow across a normal pulmonic valve
43
What infection is associated with 20-30% of first febrile seizures in kids?
HHV-6, Roseola
44
What is the triad of elevated BP, bradycardia, and irregular respirations? means?
Cushings triad | -increased intracranial pressure
45
Which STIs are reportable in all states?
Chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and chancroid
46
What is the drug of choice for meningococcal prophylaxis?
ciprofloxacin | alts = rifampin, ceftriaxone, and azithromycin
47
How many calories does a healthy term infant need in first 4 months?
100-110cal/kg/24hours
48
When should you screen for Autism Spectrum disorder?
18 and 24 month visits; M-CHAT
49
What syndrome is caused by inheritance of abnormal CGG repeats in FMR1 gene? Long face with large mandible, large prominent ears, and large testicles (after puberty)?
Fragile X syndrome | -with exception of Down syndrome, this is the MC genetic cause of intellectual disability
50
What heart defect is common in Turner syndrome?
coarctation of the aorta
51
What is the standard for Down syndrome lab diagnosis?
lymphocyte karyotype
52
What is FAS HgB mean?
carrier of 1 abnormal HgB gene - for Hgb S | -sickle cell trait
53
What is FAC hemoglobin mean?
carrier of 1 abnormal gene for Hgb C | -benign
54
What is FS hemoglobin mean?
both Hgb have mutations for Hgb S | -MC causing sickle cell
55
What is FSA?
sickle cell beta thallassemia
56
What are common procedures for young people with sickle cell?
tonsillectomy (Waldeyer's ring) and cholecystectomy (bilirubin gallstones)
57
In Sickle cell disease, infection with what organisms is common?
encapsulated organisms (S. pneumo, HiB, N. meningitidis)
58
What special immunization for sickle cell?
HiB and Prevnar (penumococcal) at 2, 4, and 6 months
59
What meds are used to treat Acute Coronary Syndrome in pt with SCD?
3rd generation cephalosporin and a macrolide
60
What does an S3 gallop indicate?
overloaded left ventricle - suggests CHF
61
What is the MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in kids?
minimal change disease
62
What is used to treat impetigo topically?
mupirocin
63
What drug is used to treat head lice?
Permethrin lotion 1% - may need 1-2 treatments in weekly intervals
64
Drug to treat scabies?
5% permethrin cream 2 times, 1 week apart
65
Treatment for tinea versicolor?
selenium sulfide lotion
66
Treatment for tinea capitis?
griseofulvin (oral antifungal)