Pediatrics CNS Flashcards
(155 cards)
- In mild-moderate hypoxic brain injury in a full term neonate typically spares:
A. Watershed areas
B. Parasagital cortex
C. Deep grey matter structure
D. Subcortical white matter
E. Frontal lobes
C. Deep grey matter structure
The brainstem, cerebellum and deep grey structures are spared in mild-moderate ischemia. Severe hypoxic injury involves the ventral and lateral thalamus, posterior putamen, perirolandic regions and corticospinal tracts.
- A 7-year-old boy with a well mother and father develops a progressive deterioration in vision, loss of hearing, optic disc pallor and ataxia. Mental deterioration is also noted. CT shows symmetric low densities in the occipitoparietal temporal white matter with thin curvilinear enhancing rims. MR shows hypodensity on T1 and bilateral hyperintense confluent areas. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adrenomyloneuropathy
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
C. Friedreich’s ataxia
D. Ataxia telangiectasia
E. Spongiform leukodystrophy
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
Features describe adrenolukodystrophy, an X linked recessive condition. Patients also have adrenal gland insufficiency with increased pigmentation and raised Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) levels.
- The absence of which of the following indicates a diagnosis of Dandy-Walker variant rather than Dandy-Walker malformation?
A. Dysgenesis of the corpus callosum
B. Holoprosencephaly
C. Cerebellar heterotopia
D. Enlargement of the posterior fossa
E. Cerebellar gyri malformation
D. Enlargement of the posterior fossa
The other features are common to both.
(CNS) 8. A CT brain of a 25-year-old male with a head injury but no focal neurology shows no acute abnormality. A thin cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) density is noted between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles in the midline. Which is the diagnosis?
A. Cavum septi pellucidi
B. Cavum vergae
C. Cavum veli interpositii
D. Colloid cyst
E. Arachnoid cyst
A. Cavum septi pellucidi
Occurs in 80% of term infants and 15% of adults. Rarely may dilate and cause obstructive hydrocephalus.
- MRI brain in a neonate shows multiple abnormalities including an anterior interhemispheric fissure adjoining a high riding third ventricle, an enlarged foramen of monro and a sunburst gyral pattern. An interhemispheric cyst is also seen. Which is the diagnosis?
A. Arachnoid cyst
B. Agenesis of the corpus callosum
C. Prominent cavum septum pellucidi and vergae
D. Chiari II malformation
E. Dandy-Walker malformation
B. Agenesis of the corpus callosum
Absence of septum pellucidum, corpus callosum and cavum septum pellucidi, and wide separation of the lateral ventricles, are other features of agenesis of the corpus callosum.
- Ovoid areas of increased echogenicity are seen on US of a neonate. Which of the following favours choroid plexus rather than germinal mature haemorrhage?
A. Tapering toward cardiothalamic grove
B. Inferolateral to floor of frontal horn
C. Bulbous enlargement of cardiothalamic groove
D. Location anterior to foramen of Monro
E. Low birth weight and premature neonate
A. Tapering toward cardiothalamic grove
Prematurity and low birth weight are amongst risk factors for GMH. Chord plexus is attached to inferomedial aspect of ventricular floor, tapering toward cardiothalamic groove and never anterior to the foramen of Monro.
(CNS) 17. Which of the following associations favour Chiari I rather than Chiari II malformation?
A. Klippel-Feil anomaly
B. Myelomyeocele
C. Dysgenesis corpus callosum
D. Absence of septum pellucidi
E. Excessive cortical gyration
A. Klippel-Feil anomaly
Syringohydromyelia, hydrocephalus, malformation of small bones and spine are also associations of Type I Chiari malformation.
(CNS) 25. A combination of subependymal nodules, giant cell astrocytomas, white matter lesion and retinal phakomatoses suggests:
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. NFI
C. NF2
D. Sturge-Weber syndrome
E. Von Hippel-Lindau
A. Tuberous sclerosis
These are all features of tuberous sclerosis.
(CNS) 31. A patient with a genetic condition and known bilateral renal cysts undergoes MRI brain showing a cystic lesion with mural nodule. This finding is associated with:
A. VHL
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Sturge-Weber
D. Heritary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia (HHT)
E. Neurofibromatosis
A. VHL
1/3 haemangioblastomas are purely solid, 1/3 are cystic with mural nodes and 1/3 are cystic with a more complex solid component.
(CNS) 32. Tram track gyriform calcification is most likely to be seen in:
A. NF I
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Von Hippel-Lindau
D. HHT
E. Sturge-Weber
E. Sturge-Weber
Other features include cerebral atrophy with thickening of skull vault and surface enhancement, enlarged choroid plexus and enlarged medullary/subependymal veins. Choroid angiomas may be present.
1) A finding of bilateral meningiomas in a child suggests a diagnosis of which of the following phakomatoses?
a. neurofibromatosis type 1
b. neurofibromatosis type 2
c. von Hippel-Lindau disease
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
e. tuberous sclerosis
b. neurofibromatosis type 2
The phakomatoses are neuroectodermal disorders with skin and central nervous system manifestations.
Neurofibromatosis type 2 (central neurofibromatosis) accounts for only 10% of cases, type 1 accounting for 90%.
Although the hallmark finding of type 2 is bilateral acoustic schwannomas, multiple meningiomas, particularly in a child, should bring the diagnosis to mind.
A mnemonic for remembering the associations is MISME (multiple inherited schwannomas, meningiomas and ependymomas), and tumours may be seen in the brain or spinal cord.
In the spine, multiple nerve sheath tumours are often located in the cauda equina.
Skin manifestations are seen relatively infrequently, unlike in the more common type 1.
@#e (CNS) 2) A child who undergoes MR of the brain for clinically apparent facial abnormalities is shown to have a defect of midline cleavage of the brain. What structure is abnormal or absent in all forms of holoprosencephaly, and therefore is the most sensitive indicator of a midline cleavage abnormality?
a. falx cerebri
b. third ventricle
c. fourth ventricle
d. corpus callosum
e. septum pellucidum
e. septum pellucidum
Holoprosencephaly is failure of the primitive brain to cleave into two hemispheres, and is commonly associated with midline facial abnormalities (ranging from cyclopia to hypertelorism) and absence of many intracranial midline structures.
There are three types, the most severe being the alobar form, which shows no cleavage at all, with absence of the falx cerebri and third ventricle, fusion of the cerebral hemispheres and thalami, and a single large lateral ventricle.
The semilobar form has variable cleavage with a partially formed falx, rudimentary third ventricle, and variable cleavage of the thalami, lateral ventricles and cerebral hemispheres.
In the lobar type of holoprosencephaly, brain formation may be nearly normal, but the septum pellucidum is always absent, as in all forms. The falx, corpus callosum and ventricular system may be normal in the lobar type.
6) A 6-year-old boy presents with learning disability, seizures and a facial rash. MRI of the brain shows several cortical lesions with low signal on T1W and high signal on T2W images. They show no enhancement with administration of intravenous gadolinium. Low-signal subependymal nodules are identified on all sequences. Subsequent renal ultrasound scan demonstrates multiple, bilateral hyperechogenic lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. neurofibromatosis type 1
b. Sturge-Weber syndrome
c. von Hippel-Lindau disease
d. tuberous sclerosis
e. metachromatic leukodystrophy
d. tuberous sclerosis
Tuberous sclerosis is a member of the phakomatoses, a group of neuroectodermal disorders characterized by coexistence of skin and central nervous system tumours.
The classic clinical triad of seizures, learning disability and adenoma sebaceum (a facial rash) is seen in approximately half of presenting patients.
Imaging findings seen on MRI and sometimes CT are periventricular nodules, which often calcify, and ‘cortical tubers’, which represent brain parenchymal hamartomas. These lesions are low signal on T1 and high signal on T2W images, and typically do not enhance. Enhancement of a lesion suggests associated giant cell astrocytoma, which is most commonly seen at the foramen ofMonro, where it may obstruct, causing hydrocephalus.
Common associations are renal angiomyolipoma, bone abnormalities and spontaneous pneumothorax.
(CNS) 22) What is the most sensitive sign on non-contrast CT for detecting early hydrocephalus?
a. cortical sulcal effacement
b. uncal herniation
c. enlarged third ventricle
d. enlarged fourth ventricle
e. enlarged temporal horns of the lateral ventricles
e. enlarged temporal horns of the lateral ventricles
In many cases of hydrocephalus due to subarachnoid haemorrhage, the temporal horns of the lateral ventricles become dilated sooner than the frontal horns.
Dilatation of the temporal horn is often particularly conspicuous, as it is frequently not visualized at all on CTof normal brains.
Uncal herniation is herniation of the medial temporal lobe into a subtentorial location, where it may exert pressure on the brain stem and is a late sign of raised intracranial pressure, often presenting with oculomotor nerve palsy resulting in a fixed dilated pupil.
23) MRI of the brain in a premature baby reveals ischaemic lesions adjacent to the trigone of the lateral ventricle. What is the most likely insult to have caused these appearances?
a. prolonged partial asphyxia
b. acute profound asphyxia
c. germinal matrix haemorrhage
d. rupture of a choroid plexus cyst
e. venous sinus thrombosis
a. prolonged partial asphyxia
There are three patterns of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.
Periventricular leukomalacia occurs in watershed areas of arterial distribution. It is caused by prolonged partial asphyxia in preterm or term babies.
Acute profound asphyxia causes lesions in the deep grey matter, hippocampus and dorsal brain stem.
Lastly, there is multicystic encephalomalacia that follows devastating encephalopathy and generalized brain oedema.
(CNS) 27) A 22-year-old man with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome presents with headaches, vomiting and ataxia. CT of the brain demonstrates an abnormality in the posterior fossa. What are the most likely findings?
a. cystic lesion with an enhancing mural nodule
b. multiple ring-enhancing lesions with surrounding oedema
c. gyriform cortical calcifications
d. multiple calcified subependymal nodules
e. hypodense, ill-defined mass with central necrosis and marked surrounding oedema
a. cystic lesion with an enhancing mural nodule
Haemangioblastomas are the most commonly recognized manifestation of von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. They usually occur in the cerebellum and may be multiple in up to 15% of cases.
Patients also commonly develop renal cell carcinoma, and difficulty may occasionally arise in distinguishing metastases from multiple haemangioblastomas.
Typical features are of a cystic mass in the hemisphere or vermis, with an enhancing mural nodule, though entirely solid lesions may also occur. Calcification is not a feature.
Gyriform cortical calcifications are a feature of Sturge-Weber syndrome, and usually occur in the temporoparieto- occipital region.
Calcified subependymal nodules (hamartomas) are a feature of tuberous sclerosis.
A hypodense, ill-defined mass with central necrosis and marked surrounding oedema is a classic appearance of a glioblastoma multiforme.
32) Of the choices below, which best describes the pattern of normal myelination of the brain in the first 9 months of life?
a. cranial to caudal, posterior to anterior, deep to superficial
b. cranial to caudal, anterior to posterior, deep to superficial
c. cranial to caudal, posterior to anterior, superficial to deep
d. caudal to cranial, posterior to anterior, deep to superficial
e. caudal to cranial, anterior to posterior, superficial to deep
d. caudal to cranial, posterior to anterior, deep to superficial
Myelination is an important feature of the maturation of the normal central nervous system. It is a dynamic process that begins in utero and continues after birth in a predetermined manner. It is well demonstrated on MRI, where initially white and grey matter show the reverse signal characteristics to those seen in the adult brain, with the white matter appearing of lower signal on T1 and higher signal on T2 than grey matter.
As myelination occurs, the white matter gains fat content and so becomes of higher signal on T1 and lower signal on T2 than grey matter, with completion at around 9 months. The process progresses caudal to cranial, posterior to anterior, and deep to superficial, beginning with the brain stem and cerebellum, then the basal ganglia, with the final areas to mature being the peripheral cortical white matter.
(CNS) 32) An 18-month-old toddler presents with progressive gait disturbance, motor developmental delay and muscle weakness. Biochemical tests show abnormally low levels of arylsulphatase A enzyme in peripheral blood leukocytes and urine. MRI demonstrates symmetrical, confluent areas of high signal on T2W images affecting the periventricular and cerebellar white matter, corpus callosum and corticospinal tracts with sparing of the subcortical U fibres. The periventricular abnormality shows a striped ‘tigroid’ pattern. There is no enhancement with administration of intravenous gadolinium. What is the most likely condition?
a. Alexander’s disease
b. Canavan’s disease
c. acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
d. mucopolysaccharidosis
e. metachromatic leukodystrophy
e. metachromatic leukodystrophy
Dysmyelinating diseases (leukodystrophies) are a wide spectrum of inherited neurodegenerative disorders affecting myelin in the brain and peripheral nerves.
Most fall into one of three categories: lysosomal storage diseases, peroxisomal disorders and diseases caused by mitochondrial dysfunction.
The most common, metachromatic leukodystrophy, is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme arylsulphatase A, which leads to accumulation of sulphatides in tissues.
It usually manifests as a late infantile subtype in children at 12–18 months of age, and is characterized by motor signs of peripheral neuropathy followed by deterioration in intellect, speech and coordination, leading to death within a few years.
On T2W MRI, symmetrical confluent areas of high signal intensity are seen in the periventricular white matter with sparing of the subcortical U fibres.
Sparing of the perivascular white matter gives a striped or tigroid appearance to the periventricular area of abnormality, particularly well seen in the centrum semiovale.
Other sites often affected are the corpus callosum, internal capsule and corticospinal tracts.
(CNS) 35) A 9-month-old boy presents to the paediatric neurologist with general developmental delay, left-sided weakness from birth and tonic-clonic seizures. MRI performed under anaesthetic reveals a thin cleft containing CSF extending from the right lateral ventricle to the cortical surface of the right frontal lobe. The margins of the cleft are opposed and lined with heterotopic grey matter that shows polymicrogyria. Which disorder of cortical formation is described?
a. porencephaly
b. schizencephaly
c. holoprosencephaly
d. lissencephaly
e. hemimegalencephaly
b. schizencephaly
The development of the cerebral cortex takes place in three stages: cell proliferation, cell migration and cortical organization.
Schizencephaly is a disorder of the final stage where there is a CSF-containing cleft lined with grey matter (which is often polymicrogyric) connecting the subarachnoid CSF space with the ventricular system.
Differentiation can be made from the cyst or cavity of porencephaly, by the presence in schizencephaly of a lining of heterotopic grey matter, whereas a porencephalic cyst is lined by white matter.
To result in schizencephaly, the insult must involve the entire thickness of the cerebral hemisphere during cortical organization, as in injuries due to prenatal infection, ischaemia or chromosomal abnormalities.
Clinical presentation varies but often includes developmental delay, motor impairment and seizures.
51) A 12-year-old girl presents with altered sensation in the upper and lower limbs. Clinical assessment demonstrates weakness of the lower limbs with reduced pain and temperature sensation. MRI shows syringohydromyelia and tonsillar ectopia of 7 mm with the fourth ventricle in normal position. No myelomeningocele is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Chiari I malformation
b. Chiari II (Arnold-Chiari) malformation
c. Chiari III malformation
d. Dandy-Walker syndrome
e. diastematomyelia
a. Chiari I malformation
Chiari I malformation is characterized by tonsillar ectopia. The fourth ventricle is elongated but normal in position. It is associated with syringohydromyelia, hydrocephalus and malformations of the skull base.
Chiari II (Arnold-Chiari) malformation is characterized by hindbrain abnormalities, with caudal displacement of the fourth ventricle. A lumbar myelomeningocele is seen in over 95% of cases.
Chiari III malformation is rare and has a high cervical/low occipital meningomyelo-encephalocele. Survival beyond infancy is unusual.
In Dandy-Walker syndrome, there is enlargement of the posterior fossa with cystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle and abnormalities of the cerebellar vermis.
Diastematomyelia results in sagittal splitting of the spinal cord into two hemi-cords, and is sometimes associated with a myelomeningocele.
(CNS) 63) A 20-year-old male patient has an MR scan of his spine for investigation of back pain. He has low IQ and multiple skin patches. The MR scan shows bilateral branching tubular paraspinal masses, with widening of the intervertebral foramina and posterior scalloping of the vertebral bodies. A sharply angulated kyphosis is present at the thoracolumbar junction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. neurofibromatosis type 1
b. neurofibromatosis type 2
c. tuberous sclerosis
d. Marfan’s syndrome
e. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
a. neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type 1 (peripheral neurofibromatosis or von Recklinghausen’s disease) is a multisystem disorder affecting the majority of organ systems.
The presence of plexiform neurofibroma is pathognomonic. In the spine, there is abnormal development of the vertebral bodies with hypoplasia of pedicles and posterior elements.
Dural ectasia is seen secondary to weakness of the meninges.
Neurofibromatosis type 2 (central neurofibromatosis) is characterized by bilateral acoustic neuromas, meningiomas and ependymomas.
Tuberous sclerosis produces multiple hamartomas and malformations of several organ systems.
Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes may also cause posterior scalloping of vertebral bodies.
(CNS) 65) A severely hypoplastic cerebellar vermis in an enlarged bony posterior fossa, with associated hydrocephalus and communication of the fourth ventricle with a posterior midline CSF cyst, are features of which of the following posterior fossa malformations?
a. mega cisterna magna
b. Dandy-Walker malformation
c. Dandy-Walker variant
d. Arnold-Chiari malformation
e. Joubert’s syndrome
b. Dandy-Walker malformation
Classically, the Dandy-Walker malformation consists of partial or total absence of the cerebellar vermis, dilatation of the fourth ventricle into a large cystic mass, an enlarged posterior fossa, hydrocephalus (in 75% of cases) and torcular-lambdoid inversion (elevation of the torcular herophili above the lambdoid suture).
The proposed aetiology is obstruction of CSF outflow at the foramina of Magendie and Luschka.
The vermis abnormality is the key component in all forms of the Dandy-Walker complex.
The variant is less severe with a better prognosis.
Chiari malformations have the fundamental abnormality of an underdeveloped, small posterior fossa, in contrast to the Dandy- Walker complex where it is normal or enlarged.
66) During a routine new-baby check, a unilateral, firm, tense, nonpitting, parietal mass is noticed. Ultrasound scan demonstrates a crescent-shaped lesion adjacent to the outer table of the skull. The mass is most likely to be which of the following?
a. caput succedaneum
b. cephalocele
c. cephalhaematoma
d. leptomeningeal cyst
e. fibrous dysplasia
c. cephalhaematoma
Cephalhaematoma is seen with birth trauma, particularly following poor instrumentation and skull fracture during delivery. It is seen in 1-2% of deliveries. It can grow after birth and takes weeks or months to resolve. It does not cross sutural lines because the haematoma is beneath the outer layer of periosteum. The haematoma can calcify.
Caput succedaneum is localized scalp oedema that does cross sutural lines.
A cephalocele is a skull defect through which meninges, brain and cerebrospinal fluid may protrude.
67) Hyperechoic lesions are seen within the brain of a preterm neonate during a cranial ultrasound scan. Of the following, which most strongly suggests that the appearances are due to germinal matrix haemorrhage rather than periventricular leukomalacia?
a. the baby is premature
b. the hyperechoic changes are anterior to the caudothalamic groove
c. the hyperechoic changes are adjacent to the trigone of the lateral ventricle
d. cystic changes follow the acute phase in the affected brain
e. there was no birth trauma
b. the hyperechoic changes are anterior to the caudothalamic groove
Germinal matrix is highly vascular tissue seen at 24-32 weeks’ gestational age, located anterior to the caudothalamic groove and inferior to the lateral ventricles. It is at risk of hypoxaemia and ischaemia. Haemorrhage here can be promoted by trauma at birth or coagulopathy including rhesus incompatibility.
Germinal matrix haemorrhage less than 7 days old is hyperechoic but without shadowing.
Within 2-3 weeks, the abnormal area decreases in size and the echogenicity reduces.
Periventricular leukomalacia is white matter necrosis following hypoxaemia. It is seen in 5-10% of preterm babies. It occurs in arterial watershed areas and may appear acutely as a broad region of periventricular increased echogenicity. Cystic degeneration may follow after 2 weeks or more.