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Peds Flashcards

(94 cards)

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1
Q

when does the NS first appear during gestation?

A

day 21

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2
Q

the neural tube closes at _____ days from ____ to ____

A

23-25
anterior to posterior

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3
Q

what are the 3 primary brain vesicles?

A

prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

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4
Q

by week ____ of gestation there are 5 vesicles

A

5

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5
Q

which adult structures come from the telencephalon?

A

cerebral hemispheres

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6
Q

which adult structures come from the diencephalon?

A

thalamus
GP
hypothalamus

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7
Q

which adult structures come from the mesencephalon?

A

midbrain

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8
Q

which adult structures come from the metencephalon?

A

pons
cerebellum

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9
Q

which adult structures come from the myencephalon?

A

medulla

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10
Q

which supplement should be taken to prevent neural tube defects?

A

folate

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11
Q

dysraphism is disorders of the

A

neural tube closure

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12
Q

spina bifida occulta

A

vertebral arch defect only
10% of population
usually asymptomatic

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13
Q

spina bifida meningocele

A

dura and arachnoid herniation through vertebral defect

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14
Q

spina bifida myelomeningocele

A

herniation of spinal cord and meninges through defect

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15
Q

where is spina bifida occulta most common at (levels)

A

L5-S1

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16
Q

which spina bifida can present with tethered cord syndrome and persistent neuro defects?

A

myelomeningocele

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17
Q

what is the most common presentation of tethered cord?

A

unilateral LMN dysfunction in 1 leg

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18
Q

what is an Arnold-Chiari Malformation?

A

congenital abnormality of hindbrain downward elongation of brainstem and cerebellum in to cervical portion of SC

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19
Q

type 1 Arnold-Chiari Malformation

A

cerebellar tonsils displaced >6mm

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20
Q

type 2 Arnold-Chiari Malformation

A

associated myelomeningocele

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21
Q

type 3 Arnold-Chiari Malformation

A

associated encephalocele

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22
Q

how does an Arnold-Chiari HA present?

A

HA with increased ICP and CN Sx

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23
Q

what is a Dany-Walker Malformation?

A

cerebellar vermis developmental anomaly with large cyst in posterior fossa

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24
Q

sx of Dany-Walker Malformation

A

mental retardation
hydrocephalus
spastic diplegia

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25
what is craniostenosis?
skull sutures fuse early
26
developmental delay is diagnosed when a developmental domain quotient is <___%
70%
27
global developmental delay is diagnosed when there is delay in ____ developmental domain(s)
2 or more
28
at what age should babies be walking and saying their first word?
12 months
29
what is a vital sign for peds?
head circumference
30
red flags for peds
head size crossing 2 percentiles failure to respond to sounds fisting beyond 3 months rolling before 3 months persistent MORO >6 months persistent ATNR & not rolling >7 mo not sitting >9 mo delayed smiling, laughing, cooing, first words handedness below 12 months no words after 2 years persistent echolalia >3 years noticeable stutter after 4 years decline in speech ability or vocabulary
31
a baby should not have handedness until
12 months
32
T/F: fragile X syndrome only occurs in males
T
33
characteristics of trisomy 21
single palmar crease broad flat face short nose hypotonia umbilical hernia
34
what is the most common chromosomal cause intellectual disability?
fragile X syndrome
35
what does TORCHS stand for when considering infectious causes of developmental delay?
Toxoplasmosis Other (Zika) Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes Simplex, HIV Syphilis
36
what is the most important intervention for children with developmental delay?
referral to specialist
37
what is a key characteristic of cerebral palsy?
it's NONPROGRESSIVE
38
what is the most common form of CP?
spastic
39
which type of CP is hypotonic? hypertonic?
hypotonic - ataxic hypertonic - spasticity
40
what is the most common combination for mixed CP?
spastic with dyskinesias
41
what is a common cause of spastic hemiparesis?
intrauterine stroke affecting the cerebral artery
42
is the arm or leg more affected in spastic hemiparesis?
arm
43
if a child develops handedness before 18 mo, what is suspected?
spastic hemiparesis
44
spastic diplegia effects the ___ more
legs (weakness)
45
scissoring gait is seen in spastic _____
diplegia d/t adductor spasm
46
what blood supply is affected in spastic diplegia?
borderzone of ACA and PCA
47
what is the most severe form of spastic CP?
spastic quadriplegia
48
dyskinetic CP occurs due to lesion at the
basal ganglia
49
what is the main causes of dyskinetic CP?
neonatal hyperbilirubinemia severe anoxia
50
what is the rarest form of CP?
ataxic
51
ataxic CP occurs due to abnormal development of the
cerebellum *trunkal and gait ataxia
52
meds for CP
baclofen diazepma tizamidine botulinum A
53
neurocutaneous disease are also called
phakomatoses
54
why aren't neurofibromas removed?
they are entangled within the nerve itself
55
sx of CNS neurofibromatosis
B acoustic neuromas meningioma gliomas
56
sx of PNS neurofibromatosis
cafe-au-lait spots neurofibromas on skin, peripheral nerves, and/or roots optic pathway glioma
57
presentation of tuberous sclerosis
white, hard nodules on surface of brain and jutting into ventricles, calcifications
58
where are lesions in tuberous sclerosis?
NS skin bones retina kidney
59
what is a common sx of tuberous sclerosis?
seizures
60
leukodystrophies are a _____ progressive genetic disorder affecting _____
demyelinating myelin metabolism
61
adrenoleukodystrophy has issues with the ____ matter
white
62
when do changes appear with adrenoleukodystrophy?
around 8 years old (normal early development)
63
sx of adrenoleukodystrophy
only in boys behavioral changes visual loss progressive dementia seizures progressively spastic gait
64
metachromatic leukodystrophy is degeneration of myelin where?
central AND peripheral
65
T/F: children with tone abnormalities ALWAYS have low tone early on then develop high tone if they are going to present with high tone
T
66
what is the most common MD is children?
Duchenne MD
67
define muscular dystrophy
group of progressive hereditary disorders of muscle
68
define myotonias
involuntary persistent muscle activity occurring in response to percussion or activity of the muscle
69
2 categories of myopathies
metabolic congenital
70
psudeohypertrophy of the ____ is seen in Duchenne and Becker MD
calf
71
hallmark of Duchenne MD
boys enter a WC by 9-12 yo no dystrophin present
72
Does Becker MD have an early or later onset than Duchenne?
later
73
Pts with Becker MD are ambulatory until
30 yo
74
Becker MD has isolated ___ weakness
quad
75
high ____ is seen in Becker and Duchenne MD
CK
76
what med is used to maintain ambulation in dystrophinopathies?
corticosteroids
77
what can be a life changing treatment for dystrophinopathies?
gene therapy
78
is spinal muscular atrophy UMN, LMN, or both?
LMN only
79
spinal muscular atrophy results in progressive loss of
motor neurons in SC
80
type 1 spinal muscular atrophy never
sit
81
type 2 spinal muscular atrophy never
stand
82
type 3 spinal muscular atrophy never
run
83
how does type 4 spinal muscular atrophy present?
proximal leg weakness as an adult
84
which spinal muscular atrophy types have a normal lifespan?
3 and 4
85
what is a common cause of infantile botulism?
eating honey (also corn syrup)
86
infantile botulism prevents the release of
ACh
87
sx of Infantile botulism
acute generalized weakness loss of reflexes hypotonia ptosis poorly reactive pupils**** respiratory difficulty
88
which part of the brachial plexus is more commonly injured?
upper C5-C6
89
Erb's palsy is due to injury of _____ (levels)
C5-C6
90
MOI for Erb's palsy
head pushed down away from shoulder
91
how does arm rest with Erb's palsy?
shoulder adduction elbow extension pronation
92
Klumpke Palsy is due to injury of ____ levels
C8-T1
93
what hand deformity does Klumpke Palsy cause?
claw hand
94
MOI for Klumpke Palsy
arm is pulled upwards

Neuro MSK (15 decks)

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