Peds & EENT Flashcards
(285 cards)
1
Q
What muscle is responsible for lateral movement of the eye
A
Lateral rectus
1
Q
Which CN innervates the superior oblique?
A
CN IV
1
Q
What nerve innervates the lateral rectus
A
CN VI
2
Q
A change in Hirschberg test (corneal reflex) between monocular and binocular view indicates what?
A
Strabismus or tropia
3
Q
A white or yellow color for Bruckner Test (red reflex test) indicates?
A
Retinoblastoma
4
Q
If you suspect a foreign body, what should you do?
A
Evert the eyelids to look under the eyelids
5
Q
Patient presents with blackness (like a curtain is being pulled over their eye) and flashes of light. What could be causing this?
A
Retinal detachment
6
Q
Hyphema (blood in the cornea) can be caused by what?
A
Trauma & sickle cell disease
7
Q
When patient comes in, what do you test first?
A
Visual acuity
8
Q
A 40 yo woman presents wearing bifocals and claims vision has worsened. States her arms are not long enough to reach things, what is the suspected condition?
A
Presbyopia (loss of accommodative ability)
9
Q
A 60-year-old man presents describing a film over his eye and states he sees a glare at night when driving with decreased visual acuity. Upon physical examination, what is the suspected condition?
A
Cataracts (from normal aging changes to lens)
10
Q
Where is your blind spot?
A
15° temporally
11
Q
A patient has a large cup to disc ratio (≥0.2). What is the suspected Dx?
A
Glaucoma
12
Q
What is the best method to measure IOP in young children and mentally/physically handicapped patients?
A
Digital palpation
13
Q
when checking IOP in a young child, if it is easy to indent, what does that mean?
A
Low IOP
14
Q
When checking IOP in a young child, what does it mean if it is firm to the touch?
A
Normal IOP
15
Q
When checking IOP in a young child, what does it mean if it is hard to the touch?
A
High IOP
16
Q
what are the signs and symptoms of temporal arteritis?
A
Unilateral, temporal headache, jaw claudication, scalp tenderness, myalgias, low-grade fever, elevated ESR, CRP, and/or plts
17
Q
Suspect organic substance as a culprit if?
A
Fingernail in eye; wood in eye
18
Q
If suspect organic substance as culprit don’t use what?
A
No patch is recommended due to risk of fungal infection
19
Q
Most common cause of lens sublaxation?
A
Trauma > Marfan’s syndrome
20
Q
What are the ocular vital signs?
A
Vision, pupils, pressure
21
Q
You should refer for {{…}} if a metal-on-metal eye injury
A
Dilated fundus exam
22
Q
You should perform a {{…}} if you suspect an intraocular foreign body due to a metal-on-metal
A
CT (maybe XR)
23
A metal-on-metal injury can pierce the retina or cause {{...}}
occult ocular penetration
24
What are the bones of the orbital floor?
Maxillary, palatine, zygomatic
25
What is the landmark for the orbital floor?
Infraorbital canal
26
What is the most common injury of the orbital floor?
Blow-out fracture
27
What is worse, an ocular injury due to alkaline or acidic fluid?
Alkaline
28
Why is an alkaline ocular injury worse?
Saponification of fat & quick absorption into the eye
29
How do you treat alkaline ocular injury?
Copious irrigation w/ 1-2 L of NS
30
How do you make the Dx of giant cell arteritis?
Elevated ESR/CRP & Plts
31
Enlargement of the muscle belly is a sign of?
Graves' disease (thyroid-related eye disease)
32
Most common malignant neoplasm in the eye?
Primary ocular melanoma
33
What is the most common sickle cell retinopathy?
HbSC disease
34
S/Sx of optic neuritis
Afferent pupil defect, painful, sudden vision loss in ≥ 1 eye, pain on eye movement
35
What age group is most affected by optic neuritis?
20-30 yo
36
What is the Tx for Optic neuritis?
High-dose IV steroids
37
S/Sx of giant cell arteritis
HA, jaw claudication, acute visual loss, pale, swollen nerve
38
What age is most common for giant cell arteritis
≥ 55 yo
39
What is the Tx for giant cell arteritis?
High dose PO steroids
40
White band of calcium across the iris
Iritis in juvenile RA
41
What is the most common intraocular malignancy in adults?
metastatic carcinoma (female: breast; male: lungs)
42
Migraine visual S/Sx
Binocular (central retinal artery occlusion is monocular)
43
What are the (2) most common drugs for glaucoma?
Prostoglandin analogs; β blockers
44
How does a PGF-2a work for glaucoma?
increasing aqueous outflow
45
What type of drug is latanoprost?
PGF-2a
46
How do β blockers work for glaucoma?
Decreases aqueous production
47
What condition can timolol eye drops be contraindicated in?
asthma
48
Why are β blockers preferred for glaucoma?
once daily dosing
49
What are (2) drugs used for a dilated eye exam?
Phenylephrine; Tropicamide
50
MOA: tropicamide
M3 antagonist
51
MOA: phenylephrine
α1 agonist
52
What is used to Tx strabismus or blepharospasm?
Botulinum toxin Type A (Botox)
53
What drug is used for closed-angle glaucoma prior to surgery?
Acetazolamide
54
MOA: acetazolamide
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
55
Which neuron is sympathetic in Horner's syndrome?
3rd order
56
Drug for Dx of Horner's syndrome
Cocaine
57
S/Sx of Horner's syndrome
Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis on same side of face
58
How does hydroxyamphetamine work for a Horner's patient?
Dilates eye if lesioned 1 or 2 order neurons
59
Although diabetes cannot be prevented, blinding complications can be {{...}}
moderated
60
What are the early warning signs of diabetic retinopathy?
none
61
What is key in preventing vision loss in diabetic retinopathy?
early detection & treatment
62
A medication that has been a miracle in saving the vision of patients with diabetic retinopathy is what?
Anti-VEGF Tx inj. q 30 days
63
After diabetic retinopathy presents, the most important factor in preventing progression is what?
control BG
64
What is the leading cause of blindness in those 20-75 yo?
diabetic retinopathy
65
What reduces the risk of vision loss in diabetic retinopathy?
early detection & treatment
66
What are the S/Sx of diabetic retinopathy?
No early signs; noticeable loss of vision is a late symptom
67
Although diabetes can not be prevented vision loss can be {{...}}
mitigated
68
A lateral lazy eye is:
Exotropia
69
A medial lazy eye is:
esotropia
70
A superior lazy eye is:
hypertropia
71
An inferior lazy eye is:
hypotropia
72
An inward rotated lazy eye is:
Incyclotropia
73
An outward rotated lazy eye is:
Excyclotropia
74
What is strabismus?
Deviation of eye
75
How is strabismus seen?
Unilateral cover test
76
How do you manage strabismus?
Refractive error correction
77
What causes amblyopia?
Visual pathway fails to develop properly due to inadequate stimulation
78
There is {{...}} pathology present in amblyopia (lazy eye)
no
79
In order for treatment for amblyopia to be effective the Dx must be made {{...}}
before end of critical period (8-10 yo) when visual system is still developing
80
What is anisometropic amblyopia?
Child has normal refractive error with good visual acuity in one eye & significant refractive error & reduced visual acuity in the other eye
81
Kids with a low birth weight or prematurity are more likely to have {{...}}
Strabismus or amblyopia
82
What should you do if you are in doubt of a diagnosis of strabismus/abmlyopia?
Referral
83
When is a strabismus likely to cause amblyopia?
When it is unilateral & constant
84
Dx of amblyopia must be made before {{...}} otherwise symptoms will persist throughout life
8-10 yo
85
Be suspicious of {{...}} if there is a loss of at least (2) lines of visual acuity
amblyopia
86
What causes amblyopia?
Inadequate visual system stimulation leading to failed development
87
How do you manage strabismus?
Fusion & alignment w/ refractive error correction
88
What is a phoria?
latent tendency for the eyes to deviate when fusion is broken
89
{{...}} occurs when fusion is broke causing the eyes to deviate
phoria
90
{{...}} is a deviation of the eye that can be diagnosed with corneal light reflex testing
Tropia (strabismus)
91
Tropia (stabismus) can be diagnosed via {{...}}
corneal light reflex testing
92
What presents as sudden and profound loss of vision & is considered a True Emergency?
Central retinal artery occlusion
93
What is the #1 cause of preventable vision loss in the U.S.?
Peripheral retinopathy due to diabetes
94
What do you always do first in the clinic during an examination?
visual acuity testing (liability)
95
What indicates an optic nerve or visual pathway defect?
confrontation visual field defect
96
A lesion in the optic chiasm (probably a tumor compressing it) will result in what?
bilateral hemianopsia
97
How do you treat a lesion in the optic chiasm (probably due to a tumor compressing it)?
Emergency referral to ophthalmologist
98
What is normal IOP?
10-20 mmHg
99
What is hallmark of fungal corneal ulcer?
Feathery ulcer
100
What should you always do for fungal corneal ulcer?
Cutler of eye (liability)
101
What is the most common cause of particulates in the aqueous humor w/ either RBCs or WBCs?
Anterior chamber clouding
102
What is shown in this picture?
Retinal tumor (choroidal melanoma)
103
Anything affecting the {{...}} will affect vision
macula
104
Growth of the {{...}} could affect the optic chiasm
pituitary gland (pituitary adenoma)
105
Injury of the optic chiasm causes {{...}}
bitemporal visual field defects
106
landmark area for visual pathway & visual defects is the {{...}}
lateral geniculate nucleus
107
A compressive optic neuropathy that causes eye muscles to enlarge is?
Thyroid eye disease (Graves' disease)
108
S/Sx of Optic Neuritis
Acute, unilateral, painful eye movement, vision loss, decreased color vision
109
In {{...}} a patient presents with sudden vision loss, HA, and ophthalmoplegia
Pituitary apoplexy (emergency)
110
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a diagnosis of {{...}}
exclusion
111
For a patient with idiopathic intracranial hypertension you must exclude:
Ventriculomegaly, tumor, or rural venous sinus thrombosis
112
What do you do if a patient enters with fulminant papilledema (mimics bilateral optic neuritis)?
Refer to ER w/ neuro-surgery & ophthalmology
113
What is the Tx for fulminant papilledema (mimics bilateral optic neuritis)?
Shunting & optic nerve sheath decompression
114
What is the most likely fungal infection of cavernous sinus disorder that spread from the sinuses?
Mucormycosis
115
Most common cause of CN VI palsy?
Stroke of micro-vascular
116
A non-traumatic CN III palsy with pupillary involvement is caused by what?
Aneurysm until proven otherwise
117
What do you rule out after a non-traumatic CN III palsy even if you suspect an aneurysm?
GCA if > 50 yo
118
You suspect {{...}} if a patient presents with painful vision loss, HA, pain with wearing a hat, optic disc is swollen, and chalky pale.
Arteritic ischemic optic neuropathy (AION)
119
AION usually presents after {{...}}
50 yo
120
What is the gold standard for Dx of giant cell arteritis?
Temporal artery biopsy
121
What is the Tx until confirmation for GCA?
high dose steroids
122
You suspect {{...}} if a patient presents with a HA, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, fever, polymyalgia, and tenderness over the temporal artery.
GCA
123
Pupillary fibers traavel with visual fibers as far as the posterior optic tract with the nasal fibers crossing in the {{...}}
optic chiasm
124
Pretectal pupils are caused by {{...}}
lesions affecting the dorsal midbrain
125
What is light-near dissociation?
Pupils accomodate but do NOT react when exposed to bright light
126
What happens if you give a dilute concentration of Pilocarpine (M agonist) to someone with Adie's tonic pupil?
Significant miosis (sense the sphincter muscle is super sensitive)
127
What is the most likely cause of an eye turned outward & downward?
Aneurysm compression of CN III causing paresis
128
What is the most likely cause of CN VI paresis?
Frequently post-viral infection
129
What happens with the corneal reflex in facial nerve palsy?
ipsilateral eye will not blink but contralateral eye will (regardless of which eye is being stimulated)
130
What causes sudden moderate vision loss in patients 40-60 yo?
non-arteric ischemic optic neuropathy
131
In sudden moderate vision loss in patients 40-60 yo you must rule out
GCA
132
Eye problem that most commonly occurs post-operatively (any time after waking up from anesthesia to 4-7 days after)?
Posterior ischemic optic neuropathy
133
S/Sx of Botulism
Floppy (flaccid) baby w/ only motor paralysis
134
Botulism is {{...}} mediated
neurotoxin
134
Irreversible botulism toxin binding blocks {{...}} release
ACh
135
In botulism, you should avoid {{...}} as they may potentiate paralysis of NMJ
aminoglycosides
135
In botulism, you don't use {{...}} unless the infection is complicated because it is only toxin mediated
Antibiotics
136
In Guillian-Barre Syndrome, you will note:
Proggressive ascending motor weakness of ≥ 1 limb
137
In Guillian-Barre Syndrome, you will note {{...}} disproportionally higher than cell count in CSF
protein
138
In GBS, you should provide {{...}} for the respiratory system including IVIG to help protect healthy nerves
Supportive care
139
What are the most likely pathogens in pediatric endocarditis?
S. aureus, S. epidermidis, S. viridans, S. pneumoniae, Enterococcus
140
What is a notable S/Sx of pediatric endocarditis?
A new murmur
141
What labs do you run/expect to be high in pediatric endocarditis?
Blood culture, anemia, WBCs, left shift, ESR
142
Pediatric endocarditis can lead to {{...}}, a serious sequalea of the disease
Pediatric endocarditis
142
Most of the myocarditis morbidity is due to {{...}}
influenza
143
Pediatric myocarditis starts out as...
bad cold, out of breath, fatigued then sudden collapse/death
144
{{...}} disease is associated with myocarditis
kawasaki
145
What EKG changes might you see in pediatric myocarditis?
lower height of all waves
146
What ECG changes might you see in pediatric myocarditis?
LV hypertrophy
147
{{...}} is the mainstay of treatment for pediatric myocarditis
Circulatory support
148
In Pediatric Pericarditis, you will see inflammation of...
outermost layer of heart
149
In pediatric pericarditis, there is a sound of {{...}}
wrapping paper
150
The outer layer of the pericardium is {{...}} sensitive
pain
151
The inner layer of the pericardium is {{...}} insensitive
pain
152
In epiglotittis you will note {{...}} as the patient is in respiratory distress
tripoding
153
What S/Sx will you likely note in a patient with epiglottitis?
Respiratory distress (100%), stridor, fever (92%), drooling
154
How do you Tx epiglottitis?
Keep child calm, provide airway support
155
You don't do an {{...}} on a patient with epiglottitis until you provide respiratory support
oral exam
156
Acute encephalopathy is usually caused by...
Toxin or metabolic disorder
157
{{...}} syndrome is a hepatic encephalopathy syndrome
Reyes syndrome
158
CSF glucose should be {{...}} of BG
0.667
159
{{...}} displays tumbling motility
Listeria
160
Aspirin in children can result in {{...}}
acute encephalopathy via Reyes syndrome
161
{{...}} may occur after a kid comes back from a camping trip as it can be due to tick-borne illness
Acute encephalopathy
162
What are most common S/Sx of bacterial meningitis?
Photophobia, phonophobia, neck pain, HA, irritability
163
There will be increased {{...}} recorded during spinal tap in a patient with bacterial meningitis
ICP
164
{{...}} should be used early in bacterial meningitis to prevent sequelae and deafness
Steroids
165
Restrict fluids to {{...}} of maintenance in bacterial meningitis
75%
166
{{...}} is a late complication of bacterial meningitis
Hydrocephalus
167
{{...}} testing should be performed after bacterial meningitis to ensure no deafness
audiometry
168
Most common reasons for bacterial meningitis in a neonate
GBS, E. coli, L. monocytogenes
169
To help prevent meningitis you should immunize, how?
MenB @ 16 yo + booster 4 weeks later OR immunize @ 11 & 16 yo
170
You perform {{...}} in meningococcemia to evaluate organism
Latex agglutination
171
You use {{...}} to prevent septic shock in meningococcemia
ceftriaxone
172
In Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, what labs do you expect to see abnormal?
Titers, AST/ALT, Leukocytosis, Hyponatremia
173
You will use {{...}} in all cases of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Doxycycline
174
Osteomyelitis most commonly involves the {{...}}
femur
175
The most common organism leading to osteomyelitis in children is {{...}}
S. aureus
176
The most common organism leading to osteomyelitis in neonates is {{...}}
S. aureus
177
The most common organism leading to osteomyelitis in infants & young children is
S. aureus
178
A puncture to the foot from the shoe may cause osteomyelitis due to {{...}}
P. aeruginosa
179
In Sickle Cell Disease, osteomyelitis may be caused by {{...}}
Salmonella
180
A dog or cat bite may lead to osteomyelitis due to {{...}}
Pasteurella multicoda
181
S/Sx of Septic Arthritis
Large curdled milk clots in joint fluid, high WBCs, 30% glucose, mostly PMLs
182
The most likely organism leading to septic arthritis in 2-3 yo is:
kingella kingae
183
In respiratory distress syndrome, you will note a decrease of {{...}}
surfactant
184
Pulmonary HTN is noted in respiratory distress syndrome as the patient...
Does not take first breath to close PDA
185
In a full-term infant, mortality can be caused during birth due to {{...}}
birth asphyxia due to cord wrapped around neck
186
PNA may be caused in a full-term infant due to {{...}} aspiration
meconium via anal sphincter relaxation leading to meconium in the amniotic fluid
187
The perinatal period is {{...}}
20th gestational wk to 28 days post-birth
188
The neonatal period is {{...}}
0-28 days post-birth
189
The preterm period is {{...}}
< 37 weeks
190
The post-term period is {{...}}
> 42 weeks
191
How do you Tx a neonate that has decreased muscle tone, breathing, and crying post-parturition?
provide warmth, position blanket between scapulae to open airway, clear airway, dry, stimulate by tapping feet & rubbing back
192
Post-parturition the neonates HR should be {{...}} and pink
HR > 100 bpm
193
You should perform ventilation on a neonate with HR < {{...}}
HR < 100 bpm
194
You should do chest compressions on a neonate if HR is < {{...}} or if below < 100 but doesn't increase with ventilations
HR < 60 bpm
195
You should administer {{...}} if a neonates HR is persistently below 60 bpm
IV Epi
196
{{...}} is normal in almost all babies (hint: pink body/blue extremities)
Peripheral cyanosis
197
{{...}} is when fluid is under the scalp, outside of bones, and crosses suture lines
caput succedaneum
198
{{...}} is when bleeding is under periosteum, inside suture lines, but goes away on its on
cephal hematoma
199
Respiratory distressed neonates have an increased likelihood of being {{...}}
hypoglycemic
200
Complications of respiratory distress of neonates can lead to...
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia due to lung trauma by oxygenation/ventilation leading to scarring
201
{{...}} is the #1 cause of hemolysis
Blood group incompatibility
202
Certain chemicals in breast milk can inhibit {{...}} leading to jaundice
glucoronyl transferase
203
The term infants get kernicterus if the bilirubin level > {{...}}
20mg
204
the 3rd phase of kernicterus includes {{...}}
yellow staining of brain (basal ganglia)
205
{{...}} makes bilirubin soluble
phototherapy
206
{{...}} therapy increases CYP450 leading to increased conjugation in hyperbilirubinemia
Phenobarbital
207
Breast feeding should be {{...}} in hyperbilirubinemia
D/C'd
208
In hypoglycemia, when do you administer IV glucose?
< 25 mg/dL
209
WHat is the most common organism in neonatal sepsis?
GBS
210
What is the most common risk factor of neonatal sepsis?
Maternal-vaginal colonization
211
What is the Tx for neonatal sepsis?
Ampicillin + gentamicin (check hearing)
212
What are sequalea that may be experienced in neonatal sepsis?
Osteomyelitis & UTI
213
In staphylococcal diaper dermatitis you will note...
Massive peeling bullous pustural lesions
214
In candida diaper dermatitis you will note...
Satellite papules + pustules in intertringious areas
215
What is the notable clude of irritant diaper dermatitis?
No pustures and sparing of intertriginous areas
216
{{...}} of the nose & upper cheek can appear very white & creamy but does not need treatment
Milia
217
You should perform {{...}} in erythema toxicum neonatorum cases looking for
eosinophils
218
Erythema toxicum neonatorum commonly affects the face & trunk but spares the {{...}}
palms & soles
219
Sebaceous gland hyperplasia & neonatal acne can be due to {{...}}
maternal hormones
220
{{...}} should be used to monitor neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) (hint: only in opioid withdrawal)
Finnegan scoring system
221
In Infant of Substance Abusing Mother, you should check {{...}} status
Hepatitis C
222
In Sturge Weber Syndrome, you will you will note a {{...}} rash
port wine stain
223
A port wine stain & struge weber syndrome is associated with which CN?
Trigeminal nerve
224
Type 1 Sturge weber syndrome
Port wine stain + eye + leptomeningeal angiomatosis
225
Type 2 sturge weber syndrome
Only face
226
Type 3 sturge weber syndrome
only intracranial
227
Physicans are {{...}} and must report suspected child abuse
Mandated reporters
228
What is needed when reported or investigating child abuse?
A very good Hx
229
What is something that is concerning for possible child abuse that you acquire during Hx taking?
Incompatible Hx w/ changing Hx depending on who you talk to
230
Where do you commonly find bruising on children?
bony prominences (e.g., knees)
231
Where is it uncommon to find bruising on children?
back, buttocks, upper arms, thighs, chest, abdomen, scapula
232
What lab studies should be done in suspected child abuse?
Coagulase studies, plt count
233
Oral injuries can include {{...}} as the person will hold the child's mouth to stop screaming
frenulum tearing
234
A {{...}} fracture is notable for child abuse until proven otherwise
Spiral (twisting) fracture
235
A {{...}} fracture can be from yanking of the extremity (e.g., humerus)
corner
236
Recurrent fractures of a child should always be referred to a {{...}} to evaluate for osteogenesis imperfecta
geneticist
237
Abusive head trauma can lead to...
subdural hematoma, metaphyseal chip fractures, retina hemorrhage
238
A {{...}} is gold standard for management and continual monitoring of pediatric GERD
endoscopic evaluation
239
{{...}} creates less lower esophageal tone that can appear like seizures when they try to prevent reflux
Cerebral palsy
240
A {{...}} should be evaluated via milk scan to evaluate for GERD
Recurrent PNA
241
Why is GERD worse at night?
Stomach acid comes up & saliva acts as a bicarbonate leading to continuous swallowing all day
242
{{...}} can be a sign of pyloric stenosis in a 6 week old baby
Projectile vomiting
243
Hypertrophied pylorus can look like {{...}}
Olive-sized mass
244
A {{...}} is the gold standard in diagnosing pyloric stenosis
Pyloric ultrasound
245
Pyloric channel in pyloric stenosis will display a {{...}} sign
stringlike
246
In pyloric stenosis you will note electrolyte imbalances including {{...}}
hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
247
Hirschsprung's disease can lead to obstruction and {{...}}
toxic megacolon
248
A Ba enema in Hirschsprung's disease can reveal...
Tapered transition zone (Rat-Tail)
249
Recurrent giardia can be due to {{...}}
IgA deficiency
250
{{...}} is characteristic of celiac disease
villous blunting
251
The lab study, {{...}}, is indicative of celiac disease
Anti-TTG
252
A malformation (intrinsic) results from
poor formation of tissue in embryo/fetus
253
A deformation (extrinsic) results from
unusal force on normal tissue (e.g., clubbed feet)
254
A disruption (extrinsic) results from
breakdown of normal tissue (e.g., cleft palate, micrognathia)
255
A dysplasia results from
abnormal tissue organization (e.g., polycystic kidney disease)
256
You should not give {{...}} juice as it will increase risk of obesity
down syndrome babies
257
Major cause of early mortality in Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) is due to {{...}}
Congenital heart defects (AV cushion defects)
258
An asymptomatic {{...}} dislocation can occur in Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
abdominal aneurysm
259
S/Sx of Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
clenched hand, prominent occiput, short sternum, low-set ears
260
5p Deletion can result in {{...}} with a broad/beaked nose, microcephaly, low-set ears
ocular hypertelorism
261
A cat-like cry is associated with {{...}} and cleft palate
5p deletion syndrome
262
Vater is associated with...
Vertebral anomaly, VSD, Anal atresia, T-E fistula, Radial dysplasia, Renal anomaly, Single umbilical artery
263
What are the most common S/Sx of Bardet-Biedl Syndrome?
Obesity, Retinal dystrophy -- night vision problem, abnormal calyces, hypogonadism
264
A {{...}} kidney is seen in Turner Syndrome
Horseshoe kidney
265
A short female with wide spaced nipples and a horseshoe kidney likely has {{...}}
Turner syndrome (XO)
266
In Fragile X syndrome, you will note {{...}} in the X chromosome
> 200 CCG repeats in X chromosome
267
In Fragile X syndrome, you will note...
Macro-orchidism, prognathism, > 200 CCG repeats in the X chromosome
268
{{...}} has a high false positive rate for Hep C Ab
ELISA
269
Use {{...}} to check for Hep C Abs to check false positives
RIBA
270
The gold standard for Hep C Dx is
Nucleic Acid tests
271
Why does Hep C have such genetic diversity?
Replicates rapidly without proofreading
272
Why is it hard to Tx Hep C via immunization efforts?
High genetic diversity creating many subtypes
273
Immune prophylaxis of HBV includes:
HBIG within 12 hours of birth, 1 dose of Hep B vaccine then 2nd dose 1-2 mo, then 3rd dose at 6 mo
274
In chronic Dx you will note {{...}} after 6 mo of 1st infection
HBsAg
275
Hep A is a type of {{...}}
Picornavirus
276
{{...}} sees an increased transmission rate in daycares (fecal-oral)
Hep A
277
We notice {{...}} by seeing jaundice in a pediatric daycare patient
Hep A
278
What confirms Dx of Hep A?
Anti-Hep A IGM
279
The most common viral hepatitis is
EBV, Hep A, B, C
280
{{...}} can lead to Portal HTN due to GI circulation disruption
Hepatitis
