Peds/OB Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

Abdominal mass benign in kid

A

most commonly Neuroblastoma

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2
Q

Sxs of neuroblastoma

A

abdominal mass in kid, mainly benign. periorbital echhymosis, flushing (catecholamine release), hypertension (presses on renal a), opsoclonus-myoclonus, spinal cord compression

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3
Q

most common renal tumor kids

A

Wilms tumor; age <5; usually painful, along with hypertension and hematuria; no flushing or sweating

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4
Q

When can you have Rh incompatibility

A

Rh(D) negative mother + positive father. Prior pregnancy with RhD + fetus = antibodies that can cross placenta and destroy RhD postive fetal rbcs = Hemolytic disease of the newborn

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5
Q

aplastic crisis

A

from Parvo b19; sudden drop in Hgb and v low reticulocyte count; transient arrest of hematopoeisis

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6
Q

when do you get DTaP vaccine?

A

5 doses at 2, 4, 6 months; 15-18 months; 4-6 years

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7
Q

contraindications to DTaP vaccine

A

Encephalopathy after previous dose or anaphylaxis to vaccine component. If they are on steroids, have some minor illness/infection, give it anyways

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8
Q

first line treatment for allergic rhinitis

A
allergen avoidance 
intranasal corticosteroids (not decongestant)
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9
Q

contraindications to MMR vaccine

A

anaphylaxis to MMR, neomycin or gelatin
immunodeficiency
pregnancy

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10
Q

diagnostic criteria for kawasaki dz

A

fever >5 days with 4 of the following:

  • conjunctivitis
  • mucous membrane changes
  • rash
  • lymphadenopathy
  • extremity edema/erythema
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11
Q

complications of kawasaki dz

A

coronary artery aneurysms (by day 10), MI and ischemia

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12
Q

tx of kawasaki dz

A

Aspirin + IVIg; all kids get an Echo;

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13
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip is characterized by abnormal _____ _____. Prognosis is

A

Acetabular development (=shallow hip socket, poor support femoral head). Prognosis is excellent, 95% pts have reduction of a dislocated hip.

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14
Q

adolescents with leg-length discrepancy, gait abnormalities (toe walking, Trendelenburg gait), activity related pain

A

DDH. Can result in chronic, activity related hip pain and osteoarthritis in adolescents and young adults

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15
Q

avascular necrosis of femoral head in children 5-7

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes dz. Caused by idiopathic interruption of blood supply.

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16
Q

sxs of JIA

A

fever, joint pain and rash

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17
Q

precocious puberty

A

onset of secondary sex characteristics:

<9 boys, <8 girls

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18
Q

Sxs of Congential Adrenal Hyperplasia (decreased 21-hydroxylase on ACTH stim test)

A
early pubic/axillary hair growth
severe acne
hisutism and oligmenorrhea in girls
increased growth velocity and bone age
increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone
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19
Q

Tx of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

A

Hydrocortisone

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20
Q

Target glucose levels gestational diabetes

A

Fasting <95
1 hour postprandial <140
2 hour postprandial < 120
–>can use most anti-hypoglycemic i.e. insulin, metformin or glyburide

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21
Q

when do you screen for gestational diabetes?

A

usually 24-28 weeks; earlier if there are risk factors (obesity, prior macrosomic infant) at initial prenatal even

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22
Q

Hyperthyroidism tx in pregnancy

A

1st trimester: PTU preferred (teratogenic effects methimazole)
2nd/3rd trimester: Methimazole preferred (hepatotoxiciy of PTU)

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23
Q

when is post partum thyroditis?

A

<1 year following pregnancy. associaed with thyroid peroxidase antibody

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24
Q

test to differentiate Graves from postpartum and silent thyroiditis

A

Radioactive iodine uptake. graves (high) from increased thyroid hormone synthesis; PT and silent (low RAIU) from thyroid peroxidase antibody.

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25
Absent testicular enlargement at age ____ = delayed puberty
14
26
test if you're worried about primary hypogonadism
Karyotype: Klinefelter = 47XXY
27
insulin is recommended in t2dm with ______
a1c>9, esp if + sxs
28
screening for gestational diabetes
1. administer 50g oral glucose test and check glucose after 1 hour: >140 then next step (challenge) 2. Admnister 100g oral glucose, check fasting each hour for 3 hr (glucose tolerance test)
29
when do you screen for gestational diabetes?
usually 24-28 weeks; earlier if there are risk factors (obesity, prior macrosomic infant) at initial prenatal even
30
how do you prevent neonatal rubella?
admin of MMR vaccine pre-conception (live vaccine so not during pregnancy)
31
baby born with hearing loss, no red reflex, heart murmur
congenital rubella | sxs include sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts, PDA
32
vertebral osteomyelities in traveler with cavitary pulm lesion
Pott's disease: TB betch
33
How long is patient with active pulm TB infectious with aerosolized droplets prior to onset of sxs?
3 months
34
Peds oropharyngeal lesions on anterior oral mucosa
apthous stomatitis (canker sores, recurrent) and Herpes gingivostomatitis (vesicles, ulcers, fevers)
35
peds tonsillar exudates
GAS (anterior cervical ln) | Mono (diffuse cervical ln, +/- hepatosplenomegaly)
36
peds oropharyngeal lesions on posterior oral mucosa
Herpangina (Coxsackie; vesicles, ulcers, painful pharyngitis, prevent by hand washing)
37
most common causes viral CNS infections
Enteroviruses (Coxsackie, Echovirus), then herpesvirus and arbovirus
38
tx for gastroparesis
dietary modification: smaller more frequent meals
39
common offenders for erosive esophagitis
Tetracyclines (Doxy), Bisphosphonates
40
best initial test for esophageal perforation
esophagram with water-soluble contrast
41
how do you dx painless bleeding in 2 year old?
Meckels diverticulum: need a Tech-99m pertechenate scan
42
failure of vitelline duct to obliterate during 1st 8 weeks of gestation
Meckel's diverticulum (common cause painless bleeding 2yo)
43
tx for diffuse esophageal
CCB
44
solid and liquid dysphagia, can be triggered by hot/cold liquids or gerd
diffuse esophageal spasm
45
first line tx for toxic megacolon (IBD)
steroids to treat underlying inflammatory bowel disease; if perforation then surgery
46
management of pt with gallstones and biliary colic
elective lap chole
47
weight loss + fat, bulky stools
fat malabsorption
48
labs for pyloric stenosis pt
hypokalemic, hypochloremic metablic alkalosis
49
who gets pyloric stenosis?
boys 3-6 weeks old, especially if first-born, bottle fed or preterm. azithromycin/erythromycin (macrolides) increase risk also
50
who gets hepatic adenoma?
young females on OCP, can improve with cessation of OCP if <5cm
51
breast milk jaundice
beta-glucuronidase in breast milk deconjugates = unconjugated bili,
52
tx for breast milk jaundice
continue breast feeding exclusively, will self resolve by month 3
53
isolated gastric varices
hallmark of splenic vein thrombosis (usually hx of pancreatitis)
54
screening test for Marfans kid
echo: high risk of SCD from aortic root dz
55
most common congenital heart defect Down's syndrome
endocardial cushion defect (get an echo)
56
for acute MR, is it the papillary muscle or chorda tendinae?
chorda tendinae, i.e. connective tissue disorder. CT-CT. papillary muscle rupture can happen 2-5 days post MI
57
echo is needed at time of dx and annually afterwards for this connective tissue disease
Marfan's Syndrome: majority of pts develop aortic root disease (dilation, dissection)
58
Berry aneurysms occur in this connective tissue dz
Ehlers-Danlos
59
prevention of preeclampsia in higher risk patients
aspirin at 12 weeks gestation
60
preventing preterm delivery if hx of preterm delivery
intramuscular hydroxyprogesterone
61
Rh(D) women with negative anti-D antibody
Anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks and <72 hours after delivery
62
neonatal erbs palsy
brachius plexus injury from fetal macrosomia causing shoulder dystocia
63
breech positioning causes increased risk of
DDh
64
protracted labor
<1cm/2 hours after 6cm dilation
65
variable decelerations
abrupt drops in fetal HR <2 minutes; from umbilical cord compression; tx with amnioinfusion
66
what is misoprostol used for in pregnancy?
PGE1 analog, used for cervical ripening and induction of labor
67
when does unknown GBS status require tx?
delivery <37 weeks; intrapartum fever; rupture of membranes >18 hours
68
when do you screen for GBS
36-38 weeks via rectovaginal culture
69
what do you test at 24-28 week preconception visit?
Hgb/Hct; antibody screen if Rh(D) negative; 50g 1 hour gct
70
what do you test at 35-37 weeks?
GBS
71
why do you need intramuscular betamethasone if delivery <37 weeks?
decrease risk of necrotizing enterocolitis, neonatal respiratory distress, and intraventricular hemorrhage of prematurity
72
what bHCG is pregnancy visible on US
1500
73
how do you treat ectopic pregnancy
methotrexate or surgery
74
postexposure prophy after sexual assault
GC (Cef), Chlamydia (Azithro), HIV (HAART), Trichomonas (Metronidazole), Hep B (vaccine +/i immunoglobulin if not immunized)
75
most common cause of pathologic nipple discharge
papilloma
76
unilateral breast discharge eval
<30: US +/- mammogram | >30: US + mammogram