Peds week 5 Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

Dose Propofol IV

A

2-4 mg/kg

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2
Q

Dose Propofol gtt

A

25-400 mcg/kg/min

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3
Q

Pentothal IV

A

4-6 mg/kg (about twice the propofol dose)

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4
Q

Etomidate IV

A

0.3 mg/kg (about a tenth of the propofol dose)

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5
Q

Ketamine IV

A

1-2 mg/kg (half of propofol)

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6
Q

ketamine IM

A

3-7 mg/kg (three times the IV dose, ~ as PO)

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7
Q

ketamine PO

A

3-6 mg/kg (3x iv dose, ~ as IM dose)

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8
Q

dexmedetomidine load (>20 min)

A

0.5 - 1 mcg/kg

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9
Q

dexmedetomidine IV gtt

A

0.2-1 mcg/kg/hr (almost the same as the loading dose, but run over an hour instead of 20 minutes

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10
Q

AvoidpropofolinductionthroughPICClines

A

increased risk of infection / occlusion

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11
Q

Barbiturates are contraindicated in patients with __ and should be used cautiously in patients who are __ or have limited __ reserve

A

contraindicated porphyria

caution hypovolemia or limited cardiac reserve

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12
Q

A couple of drawbacks to ketamine

A

hypersalivation could lead to laryngospasm (give glyco), increases CBF/ICP/CROM so not great for neuro, and increases IOP and nystagmus, so not great for eye surgery

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13
Q

Some drawbacks to etomidate

A

Suppresses adrenal function, but great for head injury and unstable CV status

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14
Q

fentanyl induction dose

A

1-2 mcg/kg

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15
Q

hydromorphone

A

10-20 mcg/kg (10x fentanyl dose)

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16
Q

morphine

A

100 mcg/kg (100x fentanyl dose)

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17
Q

sufenta induction

A

1-10 mcg/kg (1-10x fentanyl dose)

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18
Q

remi gtt

A

0.05-2 mcg/kg/min

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19
Q

fentanyl is highly lipid soluble and crosses the __ rapidly

A

BBB

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20
Q

Is dilaudid a good choice for infants and small children who are doing same day surgery and going to be discharged home?

A

NO due to resp depression

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21
Q

Drawbacks to morphine

A

histamine release causing hypotension, PONV

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22
Q

sufenta gtt

A

0.1-1.5 mcg/kg/hr

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23
Q

remi gtt

A

0.05-2 mcg/kg/min

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24
Q

methadone is __-__% protein bound. The main determinant of free factor is the __ acid glycoprotein

A

60-90% protein bound, a1 acid glycoprotein (think of A1 steak sauce being 60-90% protein bound on your steak)

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25
midazolam po
0.5-0.7 mg/kg MAX 20 mg
26
midazolam IV
0.05-0.1 mg/kg (about a tenth of the IV dose)
27
acetaminophen PO
10-15 mg/kg/dose q 6h (about the same as IV)
28
acetaminophen rectal
30-40 mg/kg x1 loading dose (2-3x the IV dose)
29
ketorolac IM
0.5-1 mg/kg (max 30mg)
30
ketorolac IV
0.5 mg/kg (max 30 mg)
31
acetaminophen do not exceed
90 mg/kg/24 hours
32
ketorolac caution
renal and asthma
33
compared to aspirin, ketorolac's platelet inhibition is __ and no longer an issue when the drug has been excreted
reversible
34
narcan IV
10 mcg/kg (same as flumazenil)
35
flumazenil IV
10 mcg/kg (same as narcan)
36
succs IV
1.5-2 mg/kg
37
Roc RSI
0.6-1.2 mg/kg
38
Roc regular induction
0.45-0.6 mg/kg
39
vec IV
0.1 mg/kg
40
cisatracurium IV
0.1-0.2 mg/kg (either same or double vec dose)
41
pancuronium IV
0.1 mg/kg (same as vec)
42
neonates appear more sensitive to roc than older infants
duration closer to 90 minutes
43
how is nimbex metabolized?
hoffman elimination and ester hydrolysis
44
why give panc?
when increased HR and BP is desired, along with a lengthy block
45
glyco IV
10 mcg/kg
46
atropine IV
10-20 mcg/kg (min. 100 mcg)
47
neostigmine IV
70 mcg/kg (max 5 mg)
48
decadron antiemetic IV
0.1 mg/kg (max 10 mg)
49
decadron airway IV
0.5 mg/kg (max 10 mg)
50
zofran IV
0.1 mg/kg (max 4 mg)
51
caution with atropine and some children with Down syndrome due to
narrow-angle glaucoma
52
amides are metabolized by
cytochrome p450
53
esters are metabolized by
plasma cholinesterase
54
bup with epi max dose
2.5 mg/kg
55
lidocaine w/wo epi infiltrate max
4.5 mg/kg
56
rope max dose
2 mg/kg
57
epi for cardiac arrest, hypotension, heart failure
10 mcg/kg q3-5 min or 0.01-1 mcg/kg/min
58
epi to treat bronchospasm
1-2 mcg/kg
59
racemic epi
less than 2 years = 6 mg in 3 mls | greater than 2 years = 12 mg in 3 mls
60
ancef IV
25 mg/kg
61
clinda IV
10 mg/kg
62
gent IV
2 mg/kg
63
ampicillin IV urology
20 mg/kg
64
ampicillin IV general
25-50 mg/kg
65
vanco IV
15 mg/kg (20 mg/kg neuro)
66
what is the hallmark of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
abnormal compression of pulmonary structures, lung growth is severely retarded
67
congenital diaphragmatic hernia manifests as severe resp distress in the neonate due to
lung hypoplasia and inadequate gas exchange
68
neonate is born with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, what do you do
avoid masking, tube quickly and rate high with Vt low, low peak pressures <30, NG tube, avoid nitrous,
69
which lung is usually affected by congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
left lung through the foramen of bochdalek
70
during repair of congenital diaphragmatic hernia the sat and heart rate fall, increased peak pressures, what's going on?
tension pneumo on contralateral side, insert chest tube
71
what pH abnormality with pyloric stenosis?
metabolic alkalosis, also hypokalemia, hypochloremia
72
pyloric stenosis is considered a __ stomach and requires RSI
full | awake extubation
73
which way does the oxyhemoglobin curve shift with pyloric stenosis?
left due to alkalosis d/t vomiting